Unit 3 - Surgical Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

The availability of procedures depends on what 6 things?

A
  1. facility of availability
  2. surgeon
  3. patient health status
  4. after care ability
  5. prognosis
  6. economics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What two types of surgery are there?

A

Standing and general

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the criteria of standing surgery in equine?

A
  1. safety
  2. general anesthesia risks
  3. large animals (recumbency risk)
  4. stress
  5. problems with anesthesia
  6. cost restraints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long do we restrict grains/hay from equine in standing surgery?

A

grain for 12 hrs
hay for 2-6 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What 3 things do we use for pain control in equine?

A

Nerve block, field block, and epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In which movable intercoccygeal space is the epidural administered?

A

1st

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long is grain/hay withheld before general anesthesia in equine?

A

> 12hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does atropine do?

A

Depress GI motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do we do before intubation that helps remove debris?

A

clean mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What 5 things can reduce compartment syndrome risk?

A
  1. minimize anesthesia time
  2. minimize anesthesia depth
  3. use cushions
  4. reduce carbs before surgery
  5. maintain B/P
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 methods of induction/maintenance?

A
  1. injectable/injectable
  2. injectable/gas
  3. gas/gas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the three routes of intubation in equine?

A
  1. orotracheal
  2. nasotracheal
  3. direct tracheal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which route of intubation is used in foals only?

A

nasotracheal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long can tourniquets be used on equine for homeostasis?

A

up to 2 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During recovery, in what position should equine remain in until getting up?

A

Lateral recumbency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What age is castration done in equine?

A

1-2 years = gelding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What three things are reduced with castration?

A
  1. reduces sexual behavior
  2. reduces aggressive behavior
  3. prevents reproduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is cryptorchid?

A

failure of testicles to descend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What vaccine is given with castration in equine?

A

Tetanus prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How soon can equine exercise after castration?

A

24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does ‘sunken anus’ mean?

A

anus is cranial to vulva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When do we remove breeder’s stitch from caslick surgery in equine?

A

10-21 days before foaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What vaccine is given after caslick surgery in equine?

A

Tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three surgical drainages for gutteral pouch surgery in equine?

A
  1. modified whitehouse
  2. viborg’s triangle
  3. hyovertebrotomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What three economic values dictate if surgery is performed in bovine?

A
  1. high producing dairy cattle
  2. registered breeding stock
  3. pets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Majority of standing surgery in bovine is done with a combination of what three things?

A
  1. restraint
  2. sedation/tranquilization
  3. local-regional block
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Restraint during standing surgery in bovine is dependent on what?

A
  • facilities: personnel available & duration
  • patient factors (temperament and anatomical location)
  • anticipated pain/general health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How long is food withheld before surgery in cattle? Water?

A

12-14hrs food; <6 hrs water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What medication do we use for local anesthesia in bovine? What %?

A

lidocaine 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When giving a paravertebral block which 3 spinal roots do we use in cattle?

A

T-13, L-1, L-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where is the cornual nerve block given?

A

“HORN” - nerve between eye and horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where are bier blocks given in bovine?

A

Distal to tourniquet, use padding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When are caudal epidurals given in bovine?

A

Obstetric procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does the caudal epidural block? (bovine)

A

tail, anus, perineum, vulva, caudal vagina, and caudal thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the onset/duration of caudal epidurals? (bovine)

A

onset: 10-20 mins
duration: 1-2 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the 4 risks bovine face with general anesthesia?

A
  1. regurgitation
  2. bloat
  3. hypoventilation
  4. compartment syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What can we do to prevent regurgitation?

A

Cattle: pull food 12-36 hours, water 6-12 hours
Calves: food 2-4 hours, water 0 hours
Neonates: food and water 0 hours

  • cuff endotracheal tubes!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which preanesthetic drug are cattle very sensitive to and require 1/10 of horse dose?

A

Xylazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Inhalant gas (induction drug) is used when cattle are less than _____lbs.

A

150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What three drugs are in the triple drip?

A
  1. guaifenesin
  2. xylazine
  3. ketamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What two drugs are in the double drip?

A
  1. guaifenesin
  2. ketamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

During maintenance, inhalant gas can be used if less than ___ hr(s).

A

1 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When monitoring ventilation during general anesthesia in bovine, how many breaths/min are desired? (it’s a range)

A

20-40 B/M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When IV fluids are given, what is added for neonates? (bovine)

A

Dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What position do cattle recover in?

A

Sternal recumbency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If lateral recumbency is required during recovery, which side is preferred?

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Castration in bovine is best done when? (2 things)

A
  • young
  • no flies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What two things are used in open castration in cattle?

A
  1. newberry knife
  2. emasculator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which two things are used in closed castration in cattle?

A
  1. emasculatome (burdizzo)
  2. elastrator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are some complications of castration?

A

Hemorrhage and infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ruminants may be horned or __________.

A

polled

52
Q

Chemical cautery of horns is done when?

A

1st week of life

53
Q

What kind of dehorner is the Barnes dehorner?

A

tube dehorner

54
Q

What wire is used for dehorning?

A

Gigli wire

55
Q

What are complications of dehorning procedures?

A
  • hemorrhage
  • infection
  • flies “MYIASIS”
56
Q

What term is used to describe extra teats?

A

Supernumerary

57
Q

What vaccination is considered for all surgical procedures in bovine?

A

Tetanus

58
Q

In ovine/caprine how long is food withheld? Lambs/kids? Neonates?

A
  • adults 12-24 hrs
  • lambs/kids 2-4 hrs
  • neonates 0 hrs
59
Q

What percent of lidocaine do we use in sheep/goats? Why?

A

1% because they’re very sensitive to it

60
Q

How many mLs (range) of lidocaine are used per site in a paravertebral block in sheep/goats?

A

2-5 mL per site

61
Q

What cornual nerve(s) do sheep have?

A

Only lacrimal nerve

62
Q

What cornual nerve(s) do goats have?

A

Lacrimal and infratrochlear nerve

63
Q

Where is the lacrimal nerve located?

A

Caudal to the eye, deep

64
Q

Where is the infratrochlear nerve located?

A

Rostral to the eye, shallow

65
Q

IV analgesia is referred to the _____ block. (ovine/caprine)

A

Bier block

66
Q

What is the range of IV/ epidural anesthetic given per 50kg in ovine/caprine?

A

0.5-1mL per 50 kg

67
Q

Face mask induction is used if the goat/sheep weighs less than ____lbs

A

150 lbs

68
Q

What range should the heart rate be kept at during surgery? (ovine/caprine)

A

80-150 bpm

69
Q

Pet goats/sheep castration is performed at 5-6 mos. to allow what to mature?

A

Urethra

70
Q

Open castration in adult sheep/goats is complicated by what?

A

Blood supply

71
Q

What two things should be given for open castration in goats/sheep?

A
  1. tetanus
  2. antibiotics
72
Q

What two things are used in closed castration of sheep/goats?

A
  1. elastrator bands
  2. emasculatome
73
Q

Why do we tail dock sheep/goats? (3 reasons)

A
  1. Improves sanitary conditions
  2. Increases productivity in ewes (reproduction)
  3. Appearance
74
Q

What age is tail docking done? (ovine/caprine)

A

Before 2 weeks of age

75
Q

What kind of anesthesia is given for sheep/goat c-section?

A

L block

76
Q

What kind of restraint is used for C-sections in goats/sheep?

A

Assistants restrain

77
Q

What direction do you cut off supernumerary teats in goats/sheep?

A

Craniocaudal

78
Q

Where are the scent glands located on male sheep/goats?

A

Caudomedially from horn bud

79
Q

Camelids are at risk of _______________ but not bloat.

A

regurgitation

80
Q

How long is food withheld from camelids over 4 months? Under 4 months?

A

Over 4 months: 12-18 hrs
Under 4 months: 0 hrs

81
Q

What two things do camelids struggle with when fasting?

A
  1. hyperthermia
  2. hypoglycemia
82
Q

What two complications are common in camelid general anesthesia?

A
  1. excessive salivation
  2. nasal edema
83
Q

What are the 4 common preanesthetic drugs?

A
  1. xylazine (sedates)
  2. diazepam (calms)
  3. guaifenesin (muscle relaxant)
  4. atropine (decreases GI motility)
84
Q

What combination of drugs are used for induction in camelids?

A

ketamine and diazepam

85
Q

Keep camelids heads ______ to drain saliva.

A

Down

86
Q

Once in maintenance, what drug(s) do we give IV in camelids?

A

Ketamine

87
Q

What complication is common during recovery in camelids?

A

Nasal edema

88
Q

When do we extubate camelids?

A

After chewing activity

89
Q

Do we extubate camelids with the cuff inflated or deflated?

A

Inflated

90
Q

What age is castration performed in camelids?

A

2 yrs of age

91
Q

What complications happen if castration is done before 2 yrs of age?

A
  • straight hindlegs
  • lateral patellar luxation
  • osteoarthritis
92
Q

Scrotal castration is done _____________ or recumbent in camelids.

A

standing or recumbent

93
Q

Prescrotal castration in camelids is done in what position?

A

Lateral recumbency

94
Q

What two approaches are used in camelid c-sections?

A
  1. paralumbar fossa
  2. ventral midline laparotomy
95
Q

What dictates if surgical procedures are done in swine?

A

economics

96
Q

Surgery in swine is recumbent. What 3 methods are used?

A
  1. gas anesthesia
  2. sedation
  3. local anesthetic
97
Q

What do we watch for in swine during surgery?

A

Malignant hyperthermia

98
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia part of?

A

Porcine stress syndrome (PSS)

99
Q

What gene is inherited that causes porcine stress syndrome?

A

Halothane gene

100
Q

What does ‘PSE’ pork stand for?

A

Pale soft exudative - poor meat

101
Q

Lumbosacral epidurals in swine are considered _________.

A

cranial

102
Q

In what position do we inject in for lumbosacral epidurals in swine?

A

Standing

103
Q

What drug is used for lumbosacral epidurals in swine? Do we combine it with others?

A

Lidocaine, no combinations

104
Q

What are the two major risks for general anesthesia in swine?

A

Hypoventilation and hyperthermia

105
Q

Hypoventilation -> _____________ -> ______________.

A

hypoxia, death

106
Q

What three things cause airway obstruction in swine?

A

laryngospasms, small airway, edema

107
Q

What three things cause hypoventilation in swine?

A

Airway obstruction, respiratory depression, limited expansion of chest wall.

108
Q

How long is food withheld from piglets? Adults?

A

1-3 hrs for piglets
6-12 hrs for adults

109
Q

What preanesthetic drug is given to swine to slow salivation?

A

Atropine

110
Q

Which IV induction drug is safest in PSS swine?

A

Thiobarbituates

111
Q

What type of gas do we avoid in gas induction of swine?

A

Halothane gas

112
Q

What do we spray to lessen laryngospasms during intubation in swine?

A

Lidocaine

113
Q

When intubating swine, start with the tube bent _________ then turn _________ after clearing the larynx.

A

ventral, dorsal

114
Q

What range should swine heart rate be during surgery?

A

50-150 bpm

115
Q

What is the most important thing to monitor during surgery in swine?

A

Temperature

116
Q

What position do swine recover in after surgery?

A

sternal recumbency

117
Q

Castrating market pigs prevents what in the meat?

A

Boar taint

118
Q

Small umbilical hernia openings in swine allow ________ to pass through.

A

omentum

119
Q

Large umbilical hernia openings in swine allow __________ to pass through.

A

intestines

120
Q

What two things do we use to treat umbilical hernias in swine?

A

hernia clamp or elastrator band

121
Q

What 4 problems are common with umbilical hernias in swine?

A
  1. dehiscence (separation of wound edges)
  2. reoccurrence
  3. infection
  4. pass on genetics (breeding stock)
122
Q

When do we perform c-sections in swine?

A

As early as possible

123
Q

At what age do tusks/adult canine teeth stop growing in female swine?

A

2 years

124
Q

What are the two forms of detusking in swine?

A

surgical and trimming

125
Q

What three methods are used in trimming tusks?

A
  1. gigli wire - BEST
  2. hoof trimmer
  3. hammer
126
Q

How often should dehusking on swine be done?

A

every year