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physiology 1 palmer > Unit 3 skeletal system > Flashcards

Unit 3 skeletal system Flashcards

1
Q

5 functions of the skeletal system

A
  1. provide structure, support and protection 2. essential for locomotion and movement 3. site of blood cell formation (hematopoiesis) 4. storehouse for some inorganic materials, especially calcium 5. indicator of sex, height, age, weight, race and medical history
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2
Q

a bone that is longer than wide, cylindrical with a medullary cavity

A

long bones

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3
Q

this bone is the main component of limbs

A

long bones

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4
Q

this bone is roughly cubical and found where mobility is needed but space is limited

A

short bones

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5
Q

carpals and tarsals are examples of this type of bone

A

short bones

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6
Q

this is a relatively thin bone that provide broad surfaces for muscle attachment and/or protection of the underlying organs

A

flat bones

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7
Q

frontal, parietal, innominate, ribs and scapula are all examples of

A

flat bones

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8
Q

this type of bone is the main site of blood cell formation in adults

A

flat bones

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9
Q

these bones are abnormal shaped with numerous projections

A

irregular bones

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10
Q

sphenoid, ethmoid and scapula are examples of this type of bone

A

irregular bones

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11
Q

these bones contain sizable air spaces and are only found in the skull

A

pneumatic bones- all the sinuses

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12
Q

these bones reduce the weight of the skull thus reducing the need for large neck muscles

A

pneumatic bones

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13
Q

frontal, maxilla, sphenoid, ethmoid, mastoid process bones are all examples of what type of bone?

A

pneumatic bones

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14
Q

what bones are small, round and embedded within a tendon

A

sesamoid bones

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15
Q

sesamoid bones alter what?

A

the angle of muscle attachment to increase mechanical leverage

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16
Q

patella is an example of what type of bone?

A

sesamoid bone

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17
Q

bones of the skull, hyoid, vertebral column and rib cage are all part of the________

A

axial skeleton

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18
Q

bones of the limbs and their attachment onto the axial skeleton are part of the?

A

appendicular skeleton

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19
Q

pectoral and pelvic girdles are part of what part of the skeleton?

A

appendicular skeleton

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20
Q

bones of the skull are also called

A

the cranial skeleton

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21
Q

bones of the vertebral column, hyoid, rib cage, limbs, pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle are all examples of bones in the

A

post-cranial skeleton

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22
Q

bone matrix fibers are what type of fibers and what is there function?

A

they are collagen type I fibers and they provide strength to resist tension

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23
Q

organic components of the ground substance of the bone matrix include

A

proteoglycans and glycoproteins

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24
Q

as a review, what are the 3 main examples of proteoglycans?

A

chondroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate and hyaluronic acid

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25
Q

what are 2 types of glycoproteins in the bone matrix

A

osteonectin and osteocalcin

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26
Q

what is the inorganic component of the ground substance of the bone matrix?

A

hydroxyapatite

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27
Q

what is an inorganic mineral composite which provides strength to resist compressive forces?

A

hydroxyapatite

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28
Q

organic and inorganic components of the ground substance of the bone matrix are also called

A

osteoids

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29
Q

what type of bone cells give rise to or mature into osteoblasts

A

osteoprogenitor cells

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30
Q

what type of bone cells are located within the central and perforating canals of osteons and within the periosteum and endosteum?

A

osteoblasts

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31
Q

which type of bone cell is responsible for laying down new bone tissue and mature into osteocytes?

A

osteoblasts

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32
Q

what are mature osteoblasts located within the lacunae of the osteons of compact bones and also bony struts of spongy bone?

A

osteocytes

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33
Q

what are located in bony struts of spongy bone?

A

osteocytes

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34
Q

what are located in the lacunae of the osteons of compact bones?

A

osteocytes

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35
Q

which bone cell is responsible for maintaining surrounding bone tissue and regulating mineral content of the bone?

A

osteocytes

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36
Q

which are the bone destroying cells that digest organic components? also resorption

A

osteoclasts

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37
Q

these bone cells are large and multinucleated and originate from the fusion of several monocytes

A

osteoclasts

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38
Q

type of bone tissue described as a woven bone

A

primary bone tissue- immature

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39
Q

this bone tissue develops first during fetal development and is also associated with repair of fractures

A

primary bone tissue

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40
Q

primary bone is described as woven bone because of the

A

collagen fibers that are randomly arranged

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41
Q

primary/woven bone differs from mature bone how? 2 major differences

A
  1. mineral content is lower 2. contains more osteocytes
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42
Q

another name for secondary bone tissue?

A

mature or lamellar bone

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43
Q

3 categories of secondary bone tissue

A

compact/cortical bone spongy bone subchondral bone

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44
Q

the outer layer of densely packed bone tissue composed of osteons, circumferential lamellae and interstitial lamellae

A

compact/cortical bone

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45
Q

osteons are formations from

A

mature bone tissues

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46
Q

concentric layers of bone tissue are also called

A

lamellae

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47
Q

the fundamental functional unit of a mature bone and is also called

A

osteon; haversion system

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48
Q

within each layer of lamellae, collagen fibers are

A

oriented at right angles to the fibers in adjacent layers

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49
Q

open circle of the osteon that contains vascular structures and nerves

A

central or haversion canal

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50
Q

which part of the osteon is lined with osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts

A

central canal

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51
Q

which part of the osteon are the holes found between lamellae that contain osteocytes?

A

lacunae

52
Q

which part of the osteon are passageways connecting lacunae to eachother and to the central and perforating canals

A

canaliculi

53
Q

which part of the osteon connects the central canals to eachother and are also lined by osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts

A

perforating canals

54
Q

what is another name for perforating canals?

A

communicating or volkmann’s canals

55
Q

multiple layers of mineralized matrix of secondary bone tissue is called?

A

circumferential lamellae

56
Q

the external circumferential lamellae is located deep to the_______

A

periosteum

57
Q

the inner circumferential lamellae is located at the

A

perimeter of the medullary cavity

58
Q

this is also layers of the mineralized matrix of bone tissue but its different in that it lies between and around osteons and is made up of partially destroyed osteons

A

interstitial lamellae

59
Q

other names for spongy bone

A

cancellous or trabecular bone

60
Q

where is spongy bone found?

A

in the interior of a bone

61
Q

a lattice of bony bars and struts is also called

A

trabeculae

62
Q

each trabeculae consists of a few concentric layers of

A

bony connective tissue

63
Q

the site of blood cell manufacturing in spongy bone

A

trabeculae

64
Q

a type of secondary bone tissue with a very thin layer of modified compact bone, lacking the extensive vascular channels

A

subchondral bone

65
Q

type of secondary bone tissue found underlying articular cartilage, making up the articular surface

A

subchondral bone

66
Q

a type of abnormal bone growth from existing normal bone

A

accessory bone

67
Q

an example of accessory bone abnormal growth would be

A

bone spurs

68
Q

a type of abnormal bone growth formed entirely within soft tissue

A

heterotopic bone

69
Q

examples of heterotopic bone

A

kidney stones, gallstones, muscle of tendon calcification

70
Q

what is the name of the bone shaft where primary ossification occurs?

A

diaphysis

71
Q

what part of a bone is often associated with an area of articulation with another bone or site of excessive muscle tension

A

epiphysis

72
Q

where does secondary ossification occur?

A

epiphysis

73
Q

what part of a bone connects the diaphysis and epiphysis and is composed of hyaline cartilage?

A

epiphyseal plate

74
Q

what is the fibrous structure covering the outer surface of a bone; with exception to articular bone surfaces and where tendons and ligaments attach to a bone?

A

periosteum

75
Q

what areas of bone does that periosteum not cover?

A

articular bone surfaces and where tendons and ligaments attach onto bone

76
Q

the periosteum is anchored to outer bone surfaces by ?

A

perforating sharpey’s fibers

77
Q

the periosteum consists of what 2 layers?

A

fibrous layer and cellular layer

78
Q

the layer of periosteum that is superficial and consists of a sheet of dense irregular connective tissue

A

fibrous layer

79
Q

the fibrous layer of the periosteum’s sheet of connective tissue contains type 1 collagen fibers, fibroblasts and what 2 other structures?

A

blood vessels and nerve fibers

80
Q

what is the deep thin layer of the periosteum containing bone cells?

A

cellular layer

81
Q

what type of bone cells does the cellular layer of the periosteum contain?

A

primarily osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts

82
Q

what part of the bone is a very thin layer of connective tissue covering inner bone surfaces?

A

endosteum

83
Q

the endosteum primarily consists of?

A

a single layer of osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts

84
Q

what is the cavity at the center of the long bone called?

A

medullary cavity

85
Q

Another name for medullary cavity

A

marrow cavity

86
Q

in children, the medullary cavity is an additional site for

A

blood cell manufacturing

ie ‘red bone marrow’

87
Q

in adults, the medullary cavity is a site for

A

adispose storage

ie ‘yellow bone marrow’

88
Q

what part of bone covers articular surfaces and is composed of hyaline cartilage?

A

articular cartilage

89
Q

a bone remodels its shape according to the way force is transmitted through it

A

Wolff’s law

90
Q

intramembranous bone aka dermal bone are

A

bones at the top of the skull and the clavicle

91
Q

endochondral bone aka cartilaginous include

A

bones of the skull base, all postcranial bones and part of the clavicle

92
Q

describe the first 4 steps of the ontogenetic (development, morphogenesis) process in endochondral bone

A
  1. cartilaginous model forms
  2. cartilage disintegrates

blood vessels invade,

undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

  1. mesenchymal cells differentiate

into osteoprogenitor cells

then osteoblasts

form spongy bone

  1. periosteum forms

osteoblasts form compact bone

93
Q

growth between the epiphysis and diaphysis is called

A

interstitial growth

94
Q

the ends of bone where blood vessels invade in endochondral bone growth are the?

A

secondary ossification centers

95
Q

secondary ossification centers are also called

A

epiphyses

96
Q

what is the zone of cartilage remaining between primary and secondary ossification centers and is also the site of active growth?

A

epiphyseal plate

97
Q

when a plate ossifies what ceases?

A

growth

98
Q

what type of growth is an increase in overall size?

A

appositional growth

99
Q

in appositional growth, new compact bone is deposited by osteoblasts just below the?

A

periosteum

100
Q

which glycoprotein is involved with binding and connecting the mineral component of the ground substance to ground fibers??

A

osteonectin

101
Q

which glycoprotein facilitates the mineralization of the ground substance?

A

osteocalcin

102
Q

what is hydroxyapatite made of?

A

a mineral composite made of calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate

103
Q

where are osteoprogenitor cells located?

A

in the cellular layer of the periosteum and endosteum

104
Q

where are osteoblasts located?

A

within the central and perforating canals of osteons and within the periosteum and endosteum

105
Q

what do osteoblasts originate from?

A

osteoprogenitor cells

106
Q

where does the ontogenic process of the intramembranous bone take place?

A

takes place in a membrane layer formed by mesenchymal cells

107
Q

what is vitamin D responsible for in the body?

A
  • facilitates proper bone mineralization by increasing absorption of calcium w/in the Si
  • reabsorption of calcium from the blood in the kidneys
108
Q

what is on the outside of the intramembranous bone?

A

periosteum

109
Q

the outside osteoblasts of the periosteum manufacture compact bone toward?

A

the outer edge

110
Q

what does Vit D deficieny lead to?

A

rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults

111
Q

what is the active form of vit D?

A

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

112
Q

what is the job of the parathyroid hormone?

A

it increases the amount of calcium in the body by indirectly stimulating osteoclast activity

113
Q

when PTH binds to receptors on the osteoblasts, what is released?

A

osteoprotegerin ligand is released OPGL

114
Q

when OPGL activates receptors on the preosteoclast cells what happens?

A

the preosteoclasts mature into osteoclasts

115
Q

what does excess of PTH lead to?

A

bone thinning

116
Q

what is a comminuted fracture?

A

complete and fragments the bone as well as interrupting blood supply

117
Q

what is a greenstick fracture?

A

an incomplete fracture that happens in children; bone breaks on convex portion of bone but not on concave portion

118
Q

what is a compression fracture?

A

forces cause bone to collaps and stack up on eachother

119
Q

the healing process of a fracture:

A
  1. fracture hematoma forms from ruptured blood vessels
  2. soft callus forms (mix of spongy bone and cartilage)
  3. hard callus forms by mineralization and remodeling of soft callus
  4. remodeling of hard callus to mature (compact or spongy bone)
120
Q

what is osteitis?

A

inflammation of bone tissue caused by injury or infection

121
Q

what is periostitis?

A

inflammation of the periosteum caused by trauma or infection

122
Q

what is osteomyelitis?

A

inflammation of bone interior caused by bacteria, usually entering bone via wound or bloodstream

123
Q

How can TB spread and what is the result?

A

can spread to the spongy bone (particularly verterbral bodies) Potts disease and results in bone and joint destruction

124
Q

what are neoplasms?

A

tumors

125
Q

what are 2 types of benign tumors?

A

osteochondroma

osteoma

126
Q

what are 2 types of malignant tumors?

A

osteogenic sarcoma

multiple myeloma

127
Q
A

physiology 1 palmer (4 decks)

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