unit 3 genetics and meiosis Flashcards

1
Q

genotype

A

actual genetic makeup- letters are used

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2
Q

phenotype

A

observed physical characteristics

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3
Q

homozygous

A

both letters are the same- AA or aa

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4
Q

heterozygous

A

different- Aa

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5
Q

segregation

A

During gamete formation, alleles segregate from each other so that each gamete carries only a single copy of each gene

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6
Q

allele

A

contrasting forms of genes/versions

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7
Q

punnett square

A

Used to show the types of gametes (egg and sperm cells) produced by each F1 parent, and shows each possible gene combination for the F2 offspring in the four boxes that make up the square

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8
Q

Homologous chromosomes

A

paired chromosomes, one inherited from each parent, that have the same length, centromere position, and gene order

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9
Q

Haploid (what type of cells are haploid)

A

cells that contain a single set of chromosomes (denoted as n), meaning they have only one copy of each chromosome.

haploid cells are sperm and egg cells

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10
Q

Diploid (what type of cells are diploid)

A

contain two sets of chromosomes—one from each parent. This means they have homologous pairs of chromosomes, where each chromosome has a corresponding partner.
Diploid cells are somatic cells: body cells of most animals and plants

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11
Q

Explain five differences between monozygotic and dizygotic twins.

A

origin
Formed from a single fertilized egg (zygote) that splits into two embryos
Formed from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells
Genetic similarity
Identical genetic makeup
Genetically similar, like regular siblings
Sex
Always the same sex (unless rare mutations occur)
Can be the same or different sexes
Placenta & Amniotic Sac
May share a placenta but have separate or shared amniotic sacs
Always have separate placentas and amniotic sacs
Appearance
Very similar physical features
Can look different, like any other siblings

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12
Q

3 ways triplets form

A

Three Separate Eggs (Trizygotic Triplets) – Three eggs are fertilized by three different sperm, resulting in three genetically unique siblings.

One Egg Splitting and One Separate Egg (Monozygotic + Dizygotic Triplets) – One fertilized egg splits into identical twins, while another separate egg is fertilized, leading to two identical babies and one fraternal sibling.

One Egg Splitting Twice (Monozygotic Triplets) – A single fertilized egg splits into three embryos, which is extremely rare.

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13
Q

examples of dominant traits

A

Rolling tongue
Curly hair
Short big toe

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14
Q

karyotype

A

the complete set of chromosomes in a cell, arranged in pairs and ordered by size and shape.

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15
Q

autosomes vs sex chromosomes

A

Autosomes are everything but x and y chromosomes, which are the sex chromosomes

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16
Q

down syndrome

A

extra 21 chromosome (3 in total)

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17
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

xxy

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18
Q

turner syndrome

A

missing x

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19
Q

jacob’s syndrome

A

xyy

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20
Q

edward’s syndrome

A

3 18 chromosomes

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21
Q

superfemale

A

triple x syndrome

22
Q

patau syndrome

A

3 13 chromosome

23
Q

cri-du-chat syndrome

A

one of #5 is partly missing

24
Q

Explain how autosomal recessive disorders work.

A

An autosomal recessive disorder occurs when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene—one from each parent. If a person has only one mutated gene, they are a carrier but do not show symptoms.

25
What is meiosis?
Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half, producing haploid (n) gametes (sperm and egg cells) from a diploid (2n) parent cell. This process ensures genetic diversity and is essential for sexual reproduction.
26
meiosis one steps
Prophase I Chromosomes condense and become visible, and homologous chromosomes pair up (synapsis). Crossing over occurs (exchange of genetic material). Nuclear membrane breaks down, spindle fibers form. Metaphase I Homologous chromosome pairs align at the center (equatorial plate). Independent assortment increases genetic variation. Anaphase I Homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles. Sister chromatids remain together (unlike mitosis). Telophase I & Cytokinesis Two new haploid cells form, each with half the chromosome number. Cells may enter a brief resting phase (interkinesis) before Meiosis II.
27
meiosis two steps
Prophase II Chromosomes condense again. Spindle fibers form, nuclear envelope dissolves. Metaphase II Chromosomes (now consisting of sister chromatids) align at the center. Anaphase II Sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles. Telophase II & Cytokinesis Four haploid cells are formed
28
meiosis one and two ending
end of Meiosis I: seperation of homologous chromosomes End of Meiosis II: seperation of sister chromatids
29
original parent cell- haploid or diploid
mitosis: diploid meiosis: diploid
30
How many viable sperm cells are created during meiosis? How many viable egg cells are created during meiosis?
4 sperm cells, one egg cell and 3 polar bodies
31
What are polar bodies?
Polar bodies are small, non-functional cells produced during oogenesis (egg cell formation) in female meiosis. They contain excess genetic material but do not develop into eggs. One functional egg and up to 3 polar bodies are produced during female meiosis
32
What is gametogenesis?
the process in which cells undergo meiosis to form gametes.
33
What is oogenesis? Spermatogenesis?
Oogenesis: formation of eggs in females Spermatogenesis: formation of sperm in males
34
Explain how the egg cell in a female and a sperm cell in the male develop prior to the child's birth.
Before birth, sperm cells remain in their undifferentiated form, unlike egg cells, which begin meiosis early but pause until puberty.
35
Explain what happens to the egg and sperm once the child reaches puberty.
Once a child reaches puberty, hormonal changes trigger the maturation of egg and sperm cells, enabling fertility.
36
Who is considered the "Father of Genetics"? What type of plant did he study?
Gregor Mendel, pea plants
37
How did Mendel set up his experiment, starting with the Pt generation to the F2 generation?
Gregor Mendel began his pea plant experiment with the P (parental) generation, crossing true-breeding tall (TT) plants with true-breeding short (tt) plants. The offspring, known as the F1 generation, were all tall (Tt), showing that the tall trait was dominant while the short trait was recessive. Mendel then allowed the F1 plants to self-pollinate, producing the F2 generation. This generation had a 3:1 ratio, tall:short. This proved that the recessive trait had not disappeared but was simply hidden in F1. From this, Mendel developed key principles of inheritance, including the Law of Segregation and the Law of Dominance, forming the foundation of modern genetics.
38
What does "true-breeding" mean?
If self-pollinated, they would only produce offspring that are identical to themselves.
39
Summarize Mendel's principles.
Biological inheritance is determined by genes Each of the traits Mendel studies was controlled by one gene that occurred in two contrasting forms called alleles (versions) Some of these factors are dominant while others are recessive.
40
List the steps to solving dihybrid story problems
-identify traits and alleles -determine parental genotypes -set up a punnett square -determine phenotypic and genotypic ratios -answer questions
41
For each blood type, know: The type of antigen (protein) present
O: none A: a B: b AB: a b
42
Possible genotypes for blood types
O: ii A: I^AI^A, I^Ai B: I^BI^B, I^Bi AB: I^AI^B
43
What type they can donate blood to
O: O, A, B, AB A: A, AB B: B, AB AB: AB, A, B
44
What type they can receive blood from
O: O A: A, O B: B, O AB: A, B, O
45
Antibodies found
O: A, B A: B B: A AB: none
46
What is the rH factor? Why is it important during pregnancy?
If the blood type is positive or negative, it is important during pregnancy because if the fetus is positive and the mother is negative, during the second pregnancy, the mother’s body will begin to attack the fetus due to the antibodies against it.
47
What blood type is the universal donor? Why? What blood type is the universal recipient? Why?
O- because it has no antigens. AB+ is the universal recipient because it produces all of the antibodies.
48
What is the most common blood type? Least common?
Most common: O+ Least common: AB-
49
exception to Incomplete dominance (and give an example)
Incomplete dominance occurs when neither allele in a pair is completely dominant over the other, resulting in an intermediate phenotype in the heterozygous individual. This means that the offspring will show a blending of the two parental traits rather than one being fully expressed. Red flowers (RR) and white flowers (WW) are crossed. The offspring (RW) will have pink flowers, an intermediate color between red and white, because the red allele does not fully dominate the white allele.
50
exception to codominance (give an example)
Codominance occurs when both alleles contribute equally and separately to the phenotype of the organism. In codominance, both traits are fully expressed in the heterozygous individual, without blending. blood types in humans, AB: The A allele and the B allele are both dominant over the O allele. Genotype AA results in blood type A, BB results in blood type B, and AB results in blood type AB, where both A and B alleles are expressed equally in the phenotype.
51
exception to multiple alleles (give an example)
Multiple alleles refer to the presence of more than two alleles for a particular gene, though an individual still only inherits two alleles (one from each parent). These multiple alleles lead to greater genetic diversity and more variations in the traits expressed. Blood types: A, B, O
52
exception to polygenic traits (give an example)
Polygenic traits are traits that are controlled by multiple genes, rather than a single gene. These traits usually show a wide range of phenotypes because the effects of the different genes combine, and the phenotype is influenced by the interaction of all the contributing alleles. Example: skin color (range of skin colors)