Unit 3 Flashcard Deck

1
Q

What can microbes be thought of as?

A

independent, self-replicating factories that are great at bioconversion

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2
Q

What is bioconversion?

A

The conversion of substance A to substance B through intracellular intermediates carried out by a biological entity
- biological entities can secrete enzymes into the environment that can carry out all steps of bioconversion outside of the cell

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3
Q

What are polymicrobial communities?

A
  • feeding networks
  • cross-feeding
  • syntrophism
  • Microbes don’t live in a vacuum, so they are consistently subjected to living in environments with many different types of other microbes
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4
Q

What is required to build the structures of microbes/

A
  • carbon source
  • nitrogen source
  • sources of other elements (S, H, P, O, ions, other trace elements)
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5
Q

What is required to make microbes perform their functions?

A
  • enzymatic reactions
  • transcription and translation
  • transport molecules
  • motility and directed movement (chemotaxis)
  • nutrient acquisition
  • cell wall synthesis and DNA replication
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6
Q

What are the 4 main things needed to maintain the microbe in the environment?

A

1) replication
2) adaptation
3) repair mechanisms
4) power/energy

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7
Q

What does metabolism do for microbes?

A

enables the processes required to maintain the cell

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8
Q

What is metabolism?

A
  • the sum of all chemical processes (reactions) in a living system
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9
Q

What are the 4 chemical principles that make cellular metabolism possible?

A

1) Enzyme-mediated catalysis
2) reaction coupling
3) energy harvesting by redox reactions
4) use of membranes to form gradients of charge and chemical concentration

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10
Q

What is enzyme-mediated catalysis?

A

catalysts that accelerate chemical reactions

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11
Q

What is reaction coupling?

A
  • when a conversion step is energetically unfavorable, it can be driven by coupling the reaction to a highly favorable one
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12
Q

What is energy harvesting by redox reactions?

A
  • oxidation is used to accumulate energy in a metabolically usable form, such as a proton pool or ATP
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13
Q

What do gradients of charge and chemical concentration of membranes do for the cell?

A

biological membranes make it possible to transduce energy into metabolically useful forms

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14
Q

What does replication do for microbes?

A
  • self-replication with DNA as the blueprint
  • builds the physical components of a cell
  • helps to make or acquire the building blocks
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15
Q

How do microbes adapt?

A

-adjust RNA profiles (transcriptome)
- modify the DNA
- change physical structures
- motility
- endospore formation/encystment

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16
Q

What does repair do in microbes?

A

Damage to DNA, membranes, and proteins can occur from:
- free radicals
- UV light
- chemical reactions, etc
- exogenous substances and toxins

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17
Q

What does cellular power do for microbes?

A

drives enzymes, facilitated membrane transport, nanomotors

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18
Q

what can microbes generate energy from?

A
  • charge differentials across a membrane
  • electron transfer
  • storage in high energy bonds of chemical intermediates
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19
Q

Can concentration and charge gradients be involved in transportation simultaneously?

A

yes, commonly referred to as electrochemical gradient

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20
Q

What is the concentration gradient?

A

Works in diffusion and is based off of the concentrations of uncharged/charged solutes

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21
Q

What is the charge/chemical gradient?

A

Typically known as the membrane potential: a differential charge across the membrane layers
- used in the proton motive force
- H+ ions are used to be transported back into the cell, down the concentration gradient, and it tied to driving certain cellular processes

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22
Q

What is special about oxygen when trying to create energy for the cell?

A
  • oxygen is the strongest electron acceptor in nature
  • is the terminal electron acceptor
  • movement of electrons down the concentration gradient/ ETC is coupled with pumping of protons through the membrane = powering ADP phosphorylation
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23
Q

What is the electron donor?

A

the substance oxidized in a redox reaction

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24
Q

What is the electron acceptor?

A

the substance reduced in a redox reaction

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25
Q

What is special about NAD+ and NADH?

A

facilitate redox reactions without being consumed; they are recycled

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26
Q

What stores energy for bacterial metabolism?

A

The phosphate bonds in ATP

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27
Q

What are the reactants and products of glycolysis?

A

Reactants: Glucose
Products: electron acceptor (pyruvate)

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28
Q

What are the reactants and products of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

reactants: Glucose-6-phosphate
products: Ribose-5-phosphate sugar and NADPH

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29
Q

What are the reactants and products of the citric acid cycle?

A

reactants: acetyl-CoA
products: new electron carriers, new oxygen reducers (NADH, FADH2, ATP, CO2)

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30
Q

What are some characteristics of the electron transport systems/

A
  • membrane-associated
  • mediate transfer of electrons
  • conserve some of the energy released during transfer and use it to synthesize ATP
  • Many redox enzymes are involved in ET
    - NADH dehydrogenase
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31
Q

What is special about anaerobic respiration?

A
  • depends on the availability of alternate electron receptors hat works with the specific electron carriers of that species
  • generates less proton motive force and ATP
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32
Q

What is the terminal electron acceptor in Anaerobic respiration?

A

nitrate

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33
Q

What is the stepwise process of nitrate reductions called?

A

denitrification
- main biological source of gaseous N2

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34
Q

What are the enzymes of the anaerobic respiration pathway repressed by?

A

oxygen

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35
Q

What happens when there is no oxygen or alternate electron acceptor for the ETS?

A
  • after a few cycles all of the reducing power in the cell is used up because they can not deliver their electrons since their shuttles are shut down
  • TCA cycle stops and pyruvate builds up
  • Fermentation occurs to use up the pyruvate and regenerates reducing power of the cell
  • electron donor and acceptor are the same compound
    -substrate-level phosphorylation
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36
Q

What are the end products of fermentation?

A

it depends on the microbe

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37
Q

What are genomics?

A

discipline of mapping, sequencing, analyzing, and comparing genomes

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38
Q

What is the genome?

A

entire complement of genetic information
- includes genes regulatory sequences, and noncoding DNA

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39
Q

True or false: each electron donor may use alternative enzymes, depending on the environmental conditions

A

true

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40
Q

What must the bacterial cell do in response to changes in availability of electron donors or terminal electron acceptors?

A

must encode the appropriate oxioreductases and change its transcriptional profile

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41
Q

What are the 3 stages of genetic information flow?

A

1) replication
2) transcription
3) translation

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42
Q

What can be used to predict some level of bacterial function/phenotype?

A
  • DNA sequences (Genome)
  • RNA Sequences and copy numbers (transcriptome)
  • Protein sequences and copy numbers (proteome)
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43
Q

What is the relationship between genome size and gene content?

A

the larger the genome size, the more amount of genes that are present

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44
Q

What type of organisms have the smallest genomes?

A

parasites and endosymbiotic microbes

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45
Q

What is the estimated minimum number of genes for a viable free-living cell?

A

250-300 genes

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46
Q

True or false: If two prokaryotic genes have identical sequences, the enzymes they encode will have the same enzymatic activity?

A
  • True for genes without introns; true for mature mRNA sequences
  • prokaryotic cells typically lack introns
  • False for eukaryotic cells and for prokaryotes with introns because splicing variants of a gene can alter enzymatic activity
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47
Q

What is the DNA sequence like for two enzymes that catalyze the same reaction?

A
  • the DNA sequences of the two can be different
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48
Q

What is a function of genome size?

A

the percentage of an organism’s genes devoted to a specific cell function

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49
Q

What are the 5 sources and chemical variations of glycans in the gut?

A
  • plant saccharides
  • mucus glycans
  • mammalian tissue
  • microbial glycans
  • milk ogliosaccharides
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50
Q

True or false: there are species-level differences in their pathway functions?

A

True
- Example: there are variations in functional complexity among starch utilization system (Sus)-like systems

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51
Q

What is microbial ecology?

A

the study of microbes in their environment and their interactions with each other

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52
Q

What are microbiota?

A

the microorganism of a particular site, environment/habitat, or geological period

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53
Q

What is the microbiome?

A

the collection of microorganisms and their genes that inhabit a particular environment

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54
Q

What is the Metagenome?

A

the genomes of whole biological communities from a particular habitat

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55
Q

What is the metatranscriptome?

A

the total content of gene transcripts (RNA copies of the gene) in a community

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56
Q

What is the order of (bacterial) classification?

A
  • Domain
  • Kingdom
  • Phylum
  • Class
    -Order
  • Family
  • Species
  • Strain (for bacteria)
    Each level has genetic differences
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57
Q

What are bacterial strains vs bacterial isolates?

A
  • bacterial strains are of the same species but different in their genetic sequences, even by 1 nucleotide
  • bacterial isolates may be of the same strain of different = may or may not be different in their genetic sequences
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58
Q

What allows for the different types of microbial activities in an ecosystem?

A

The following features of the microorganisms in each habitat
- the species present
- their population sizes
- the physiological state

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59
Q

What are the rates of microbial activity controlled by?

A

the nutrients and growth conditions that prevail

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60
Q

What are abiotic factors?

A

Non-living components like chemicals and physical structures of the environment that affect living organisms

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61
Q

True of False: every species has an optimal environment that it performs particularly well in.

A

True

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62
Q

What do the combination of abiotic factors present in an environment determine?

A

Whether or not a species can persist there
- all species have limits to the abiotic conditions that they can tolerate

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63
Q

What is the fundamental niche?

A

the range of environmental conditions under which an organism can survive, metabolize, and grow/reproduce

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64
Q

What happens as organisms are forced to experienced conditions outside of their fundamental niche?

A
  • rates of reproduction decreases/stops
  • as conditions become more extreme, an organism’s sole function is to try and survive, rates of growth decrease/stops
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65
Q

What is a realized niche?

A

the conditions in which microbes are most successful, but can still inhabit other niches in which they are less ecologically successful = can still compete, metabolize and reproduce

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66
Q

What makes up the realized niche for microbes?

A

-metabolism/nutrients, environment (abiotic factors)
- ecologic/symbiotic factors

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67
Q

What is the realized niche in comparison to the fundamental niche?

A

the realized niche is a subset of the fundamental niche

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68
Q

What are characteristics of populations?

A
  • derived from a single cell (clones)
  • all cells of the same genetic strain
  • populations can grow up as micro colonies
  • populations interact to form communities
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69
Q

What are micro colonies?

A

aggregates of a few dozen to a few thousand cells

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70
Q

What are characteristics/definitions of communities/

A
  • unified assemblage of multiple populations that coexist and interact at a given location (habitat)
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71
Q

What is a functional self-supporting system?

A
  • ecosystem
  • the combination of a community and habitat
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72
Q

What percentage of microbes are disease-causing/ human pathogenic?

A

much less than 1%

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73
Q

What is symbiosis?

A

close, prolonged physical or metabolic interactions between two or more populations

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74
Q

What is mutualism?

A
  • both partner species benefit and may fail to grow independently
    ex: lichens
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75
Q

What is synergism?

A
  • two-way relationship where both partner species benefit through growth, but can still live independently as well
    ex: mycorrhizae, rhizosphere: (plants and bacteria), microbiome of animals, bioluminescent bacteria and marine animals
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76
Q

What do mycorrhizae do for plants?

A

mycorrhizae uses the plants for a source of carbs/sugar in exchange for helping plants to fix nitrogen and extends the volume of soil accessible to the plants

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77
Q

What are the positive impacts of relationships between populations?

A
  • enhances survival capacity of the interacting populations
  • more efficient use of available resources than by an individual population
  • populations can co-exist in habitats where neither could survive alone
  • benefits and costs may not be equal across the relationship
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78
Q

What are benefits to bacterial mutualism?

A
  • bacterial populations can complement each other so they can grow on minimal media
  • mutualism is based on cross feeding of essential growth factors
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79
Q

What is commensalism?

A

A one-way relationship where one population benefits and the other is unaffected
- typically the unaffected population chemically or physically modifies a habitat so that the second population benefits

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80
Q

What is amensalism?

A

A one-way relationships where one population produces a substance that is inhibitory to another population
- first population gains a competitive edge as a result of its ability to inhibit the growth of competitive populations

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81
Q

What are the impacts of negative interactions between populations?

A
  • limit population densities
  • may eliminate a population that is not well adapted within the community of a given habitat
  • colonization resistance
  • maintain community stability in an ecosystem
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82
Q

How do resources typically enter an ecosystem?

A
  • intermittently: large amount of nutrients may be followed by a period of nutrient deprivation
  • produce intracellular storage polymers as a reserve materials when resources are abundant and use these sources when in a starvation period
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83
Q

When does competition occur?

A
  • when two populations are striving for the same resource
  • often it’s a single nutrient present in limiting concentrations
  • competition can also be for space, terminal electron acceptors, and other factors
  • both populations achieve Lower densities than what they would alone
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84
Q

What do competitive interactions typically result in?

A

exclusion of a closely related population

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85
Q

What can competitive exclusion prevent?

A

two populations from occupying the same ecological niche
- the populations with a higher growth rate in the habitat will succeed over the one with lower growth rate

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86
Q

How do gut microbes prevent the invasion of pathogenic species?

A
  • through colonization resistance = competitive exclusion via amensalism
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87
Q

What is neutralism?

A

low population densities and low metabolic activity permit microorganisms to co-exist without competing for the same available resources in the habitat

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88
Q

What do low rates of metabolic activity characterize?

A

the resting stages of microbes
- favors a lack of interaction

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89
Q

Why is neutralism more likely to occur at low population densities?

A

microbes are less likely to come in contact with each other

90
Q

Why are actively growing vegetative cells less likely to exhibit neutralism toward other microbial populations?

A

because they are actively growing and thus competing

91
Q

What is parasitism?

A

A one-way relationship where one population benefits and the other is harmed
- parasite derives its nutritional needs from the host cell or organism and damages the host

92
Q

What is the difference between predation and parasitism?

A
  • parasitism is a relatively long period of contact between organisms and the parasite is smaller than the host
93
Q

When is the intensity of interactions between populations the greatest?

A

at high population densities and when populations are actively growing

94
Q

A given species typically have an effect on what?

A

small number of other species, but not the entire community

95
Q

True/False: the extinction of a single species does not have a long term effect on the viability of the community

A

True - other species in the community can usually provide the missing physical, chemical or metabolic elements to the community
- sometimes though, the loss of one species can have a disproportionate large effect on the entire community

96
Q

The loss of what type of species can have a disproportionately large effect on the community?

A
  • a keystone species
  • exists in lower numbers
  • may be predators, sources of food, synergistic species, or providers of some other essential factor for the community
97
Q

True/False: the most abundant species or the major energy producers of the community are typically not the keystone species.

98
Q

What is the order of species to recover in a damaged environment?

A

1) typically antibiotics are pretty resistant
2) primary/pioneer species
3) secondary/intermediate species
4) tertiary/climax species

99
Q

What can environmental succession occur on?

A
  • environments that are devoid of any pre-existing communities
  • in environments where there has been big community disturbances but not complete elimination of some communities
100
Q

What do the initial colonizers (pioneer/primary species) do in ecological succession/environmental recovery?

A
  • alter the physical and chemical environment = allowing subsequent colonization of additional species
  • each additional species alters the biotic and abiotic factors of the environment = allowing more and more additional species
101
Q

What stops ecological colonization/succession?

A
  • until a dynamic equilibrium is reached in the community between the populations, their biochemical and biologic activities, and the abiotic factors (climax community)
102
Q

What is an indicator species?

A
  • a species where their presence, absence, pr abundance can reflect a specific trait or characteristic of the ecosystem
  • used as a proxy to indicate a change in the ecosystem
    -reflect changes in a unique set of environmental qualities or characteristics found in a specific place, such as a unique microenvironment
103
Q

What bacteria is used as an indicator organism for water quality?

A
  • coliform bacteria
  • potable and recreational water tested, its presence signals a potential for disease
104
Q

What media type is most commonly used to detect coliform bacteria in water?

A
  • medias that contain lactose as the primary fermentable sugar
105
Q

What type of coliform is used mainly in water testing?

A
  • fecal coliform, not all coliforms are fecal
106
Q

What is a key bacteria in fecal coliform?

107
Q

What is a benefit for bacterial microbiota to use humans as a host?

A

Because humans have multiple cell types, there a many different relationships between a human host and microbes

108
Q

What is a benefit to ecosystems with a higher species diversity?

A

they tend to be more resilient
- species are not all likely to be affected by a disturbance in the same way

109
Q

What contributes to community richness?

A

What types of species is there

110
Q

What contributes to community evenness?

A

how many of different species there are

111
Q

what is Alpha diversity?

A

the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem

112
Q

What is beta diversity?

A

a comparison of diversity between ecosystems, measured as the amount of species change between the ecosystems

113
Q

What are the metrics used to make Beta Diversity comparisons between pairs of ecosystems/sites?

A
  • Bray-Curtis dissimilarity
  • Jaccard Distance
  • Unweighted UniFrac
114
Q

What is the Bray-Curtis dissimilarity Beta Diversity metric?

A
  • examines abundance of certain microbes shared between two samples and the number of microbes found in each
  • ranges from 0 to 1
  • if both samples share the same number of microbes and the same abundance, the dissimilarity will be 0
  • if absolutely nothing is shared, the value = 1
115
Q

What is the Jaccard Distance metric of Beta Diversity?

A
  • bounded between 0 and 1
  • does not take abundances into account, only the presence of microbes in one or both samples
116
Q

What is the unweighted UniFrac metric of beta diversity?

A
  • considers the phylogenetic relationships between the microbes found in two samples
  • the weighted version takes abundance into account
117
Q

What is the matrix in biofilms?

A

a mixture of polysaccharides, proteins and nucleic acids
- the matrix binds cells together
-traps nutrients for microbial growth and help prevent detachment of cells in flowing systems

118
Q

What are biofilms important for medically?

A
  • implantable medical devices
  • Wound-healing
  • Dental health
  • hospital acquired infections
  • tissues
119
Q

What are the benefits to enrichment culturing methods?

A
  • obtain microbes from a natural sample
  • can isolate organisms from a mixed community by manipulating growth conditions (media/temp) to select for a specific organisms
  • can prove that a microbe lives in a habitat
120
Q

What are the disadvantages to enrichment culture methods?

A
  • cannot prove that a microbe doesn’t live in a habitat
  • requires you to know the nutrient needs of your organism of interest
  • ability to culture an organism tells us nothing about their ecological significance interactions
121
Q

What is culture media?

A

nutrient solutions used to grow microbes in the lab

122
Q

What is defined media?

A

media that you know the exact chemical composition of

123
Q

What is complex media?

A

composed of digests of chemical unknown substances
(yeast and meat extracts)

124
Q

What is nutrient-rich media?

A

media containing many nutrients that allows a variety of microbes to grow (non-specific)

125
Q

What is selective media?

A

Contains compounds that selectively inhibit growth of some microbes but not others

126
Q

What are the pros and cons of enrichment cultures?

A

Pros: can price the presence of an organism, can isolate and organism from an environment
- cons: cannot prove that an organism does not inhabit an environment, says nothing about an organism’s ecological significance

127
Q

What is required for a successful microbe cultivation?

A

to know the nutritional requirements and supply them in proper forms and proportions in a culture medium

128
Q

What is the “great plate count anomaly”?

A

only a minority of bacterial species have been cultures from all environments

129
Q

How do we study microbes without growing them in the lab?

A

Via DNA
- all microbes have DNA
- organism specific
- predict functional capability
- if we know the DNA, we can predict the RNA and the proteins

130
Q

What is capillary gel electrophoresis?

A

The process used in Sanger sequencing that separates DNA fragments based on size and run them through a thin, long tube containing a gel matrix

131
Q

What are the ingredients needed for PCR?

A
  • DNA template
  • primers
  • DNA polymerase (thermotolerant - often Taq)
  • Heat and cool cycles
  • buffer with nucleotides
132
Q

What 4 methods constitute next generation/second generation sequencing?

A
  • Pyrosequencing
  • Sequencing by Synthesis (Illumina)
  • Sequencing by Ligation
  • Ion semiconductor sequencing
133
Q

What are some characteristics of next gen/second generation sequencing?

A
  • performing many sequencing reactions at the same time (parallelizing)
  • outputs are short reads (5–50bps) at high accuracy
  • most studies today use the illumination platform
  • faster and more accurate
134
Q

What constitutes first generation sequencing?

A

-Sanger sequencing
- Maxam and Gilbert Sanger chain-termination

135
Q

What are characteristics of first generation sequencing?

A
  • infer identity using dNTPs then visualize with electrophoresis
  • 500-1000bps
  • relatively slow and expensive
136
Q

What is third generation sequencing?

A

PacBio, Oxford Nanopore

137
Q

What are the characteristics of Third generation sequencing?

A
  • sequence native DNA in real time with single-molecule resolution
  • lower accuracy than NGS (~15% error rate)
  • tens of kb fragments on average
  • very fast
  • long reads helpful for genome assembly
  • read 10,000 bases in less than 2 hours
138
Q

What sequencing types are short-read sequencing?

A

-First generation
- Next generation/ second generation

139
Q

What sequencing types are long-read sequencing?

A

Third generation

140
Q

What are characteristics of PacBio Third generation sequencing?

A
  • read single DNA molecule in real time
  • DNA polymerase at the bottom of the well with florescent tags
141
Q

What are characteristics of Oxford Nanopore Third generation sequencing?

A
  • Passes DNA through protein pores embedded in a synthetic membrane
  • detector measures change in electric current
  • generates extremely long reads of DNA seqs
142
Q

How do you identify bacteria only by sequencing?

A
  • small subunit ribosomal RNA genes
  • found in all domains of life
  • 16S rRNA in prokaryotes vs. 18S rRNA in eukaryotes
  • functionally constant
143
Q

What did rRNA do for phylogenetic studies?

A

established the presence of three domains of life
- provided a unified phylogenetic framework

144
Q

What do differences in 16S rRNA do?

A
  • the variability at some nucleotide positions allows for identification of uncultured bacteria
145
Q

What areas of 16S rRNA are slow to change (sufficiently conserved) between species/strains?

A

stems with intramolecular basepairing

146
Q

What structures of 16S rRNA is quicker to change (less conserved) between prokaryotic species?

147
Q

How do you identify bacteria using sequencing only?

A
  • performs PCR reaction using primers form highly conserved regions that flank highly variable regions of 16S rRNA
148
Q

What is comparative rRNA sequencing?

A
  • used to build molecular phylogeny by:
  • obtain cultures of pure bacteria
  • amplification of the the 16S rRNA
  • sequencing of the amplified gene
  • Analysis of sequence in reference to other sequences
149
Q

What is a phylogenetic tree?

A
  • a graphic illustration of the relationships among sequences
  • composed of nodes and branches
150
Q

What do branches symbolize in a phylogenetic tree?

A
  • define the order of descent and ancestry of the nodes (nodes demonstrate similarity)
  • branch lengths represent the relative differences that have occurred along that branch from the last node
151
Q

What is metagenomics?

A

total DNA from a microbial community is isolated and sequences without culture or enrichment

152
Q

When can we use 16S rRNA sequencing?

A

to distinguish family, genus, and species levels

153
Q

What do we use to differentiate/distinguish different strains?

A

shotgun metabolomics sequencing

154
Q

What is the human microbiome?

A

the collection of microbes and their genes that inhabit the human body

155
Q

what organisms constitute the human microbiome?

A
  • bacteria
  • viruses
  • fungi
156
Q

What is the ratio of human cells to microbial cells?

157
Q

What are some characteristics of microbial cells in the human body?

A
  • not evenly distributed
  • not typically associated with disease
  • often present in vastly diverse communities
158
Q

What is the estimate of totally bacterial phyla that exist?

159
Q

What are the main 4 types of bacterial phyla that dominate humans?

A
  • Majority are: bacteriodetes and firmicutes
  • there are also Actinobacteria Proteobacteria
160
Q

What is most commonly reported in studies?

A

The family, Genus, or Species levels

161
Q

What is the scientific name rule at the Genus level?

A
  • genus is written first and is capitalized
162
Q

What is the scientific name rule at the species level?

A
  • written in lower case
  • written in latin
  • italicized or underlined
163
Q

What is a way to tell is a name is at the order level?

A

if the name ends in “ales”
- pronounced ‘ay-lees’

164
Q

What is a way to tell if a name is at the family level?

A

if the name ends in ceae
- pronounced ‘see-ay’

165
Q

What is special about each body site and their microbial communities?

A
  • each body site is colonized predominately by only certain bacterial groups
166
Q

What is special about the microbial types/taxa between sites and individuals?

A

the carriage of microbial taxa varies between these sites and individuals

167
Q

What is special about metabolic pathways at each bacterial site?

A
  • metabolic pathways for each site remain similar and stable within healthy populations
168
Q

What’s the debate of first contact in wombs?

A
  • traditionally, wombs have been thought of as sterile, but some studies showed bacterial DNA in placenta and amniotic fluid.
  • it is also believed in other studies that these findings are due to sample contamination
169
Q

What happens at the time of birth?

A
  • critical microbial exposure happens at birth
  • maternal microbes + early-life microbiota leaves a lasting imprint on the biology of the offspring
170
Q

What constitutes maternal microbiota and how is it introduced?

A
  • vaginal, intestinal/fecal, breastmilk, and skin sources
  • vaginal and fecal microbes are undergo vertical transmission
  • intestinal sources are introduced via transplacentally
171
Q

What is a major source in structuring the microbiome composition during early life?

A
  • birth mode
  • feeding mode
172
Q

What adapts during the different stages of pregnancy?

A
  • maternal microbiota and the immune system
173
Q

What play key roles in fetal immunity?

A
  • maternal microbiota and by products
    ex: DNA, cell fragments, and metabolites
174
Q

What constitutes the main source of microorganisms for neonatal microbial assembly?

A
  • during vaginal birth
  • maternal gut and vaginal microbiota
175
Q

What is the main postnatal source of microorganisms and immune- modulating compounds?

A
  • breastmilk
  • drives neonatal microbiota and immune system development
176
Q

What is special about breastmilk?

A

composition and complex and unique to each person

177
Q

How is the needs of infants tailored through information in the breast milk?

A

during breastfeeding, there is a reverse flow of milk back into the breast = may serve as information

178
Q

What occurs within the first 1,000 days of birth?

A
  • parallel microbial-immune development in early life
179
Q

What is Atopic March?

A

common progression of allergic symptoms from infancy to adulthood

180
Q

What the order of allergic symptoms to develop and when do they occur?

A

1) dry skin: begins at birth
2) Eczema/atopic dermatitis: first few weeks or months of life - infancy
3) food allergies: first few months or years of life - infancy
4) Rhinitis/ nasal allergies: after age 3 - childhood
5) asthma: first few months to years of life - childhood

181
Q

What are some causes of the atopic march?

A
  • skin barrier damage
  • microbiome alteration
  • interferences of predicted genes
  • social dysfunction of cells and molecules
  • epigenetic factors
182
Q

What types of people have lower rates of asthma and allergies?

A
  • amish people/ people who live on farms
183
Q

Why do people who live on farms tend to see lower rates of allergies?

A
  • increased tolerance to microbial antigens due to widespread exposure from lifestyle factors
184
Q

What is the hygiene hypothesis?

A
  • early childhood exposure to particular microorganisms protects against allergies by strengthening the immune system.
  • a lack of such exposure is thought to lead to poor immune tolerance
185
Q

What happens in the small intestine/

A
  • mucus, oxygen, and antimicrobial peptides regulate bacterial colonization and organization near the epithelium
  • bacterial contact at Peters patches facilitates immune sampling of the microbiota
186
Q

What happens in the large intestine?

A
  • denser inner mucus layer protects epithelium
  • outer mucus layer is colonized by many bacteria, phages, and immune factors
  • in the lumen, microbes can attach to food particles and debris
  • oxygen is highest towards the crypt
187
Q

What are characteristics of Gut inflammation and inflammatory bowel disease?

A

loss of the protective mucus layer and uncontrolled bacterial contact

188
Q

What are the 3 types of skin microenvironments?

A
  • dry skin
  • moist skin
  • sebaceous skin
189
Q

What effects chemical and bacterial composition of the skin?

A
  • environmental factors (weather)
  • host factors (personal hygiene, age)
190
Q

What do microbes interact with on the skin?

A
  • skin surface
  • skin structures
191
Q

What happens in a synergistic host-microbe relationship?

A
  • host provides nutrients to the microbes
  • microbes promotes epithelial and immune homeostasis and pathogen resistance via their products and occupation of metabolic niches
192
Q

What does the microbe do in a pathogenic relationship?

A
  • invades through the epithelium, causing inflammation and sometimes benefiting from the inflammatory response
193
Q

What is special about the oral microbiome?

A
  • the oral cavity has different habitats = different structures colonized by different subgroups of bacteria
194
Q

What is a common bacteria among all structures in the oral microbiome?

A

streptococcus

195
Q

How does the oral microbiome affect the rest f the body?

A

Bacteria can leave their place in the oral structure and get logded in other parts of the body like plaque buildup in the cardiovascular system

196
Q

What are some characteristics of the lung microbiome?

A
  • previously thought that the lungs were free from bacteria, but this is wrong. there is a low microbial biomass however
  • humans inhale between 8,000-11,000 liters per day
  • the lung does not have a mucosal surface (lipid- covered) like the GI tract.
197
Q

Why is the healthy lung a low biomass site for microbe?

A
  • aerobic environment
  • ciliated
  • Lower surface temperatures in trachea and bronchi
  • external surface
  • surfactant (host-produced detergent) in alveoli
  • surfactant proteins and anti-microbial peptides
  • little mucin (food for microbes) in alveoli
  • contain alveolar macrophages (bacterial predator)
198
Q

What are some ways to sample the airway microbiome?

A
  • induced sputum
  • bronchoalveolar lavage (bronchoscopy)
  • end-bronchial biopsy (bronchoscopy)
199
Q

What allows for microbial elimination in the lungs to have the host to become healthy again?

A
  • cough
  • mucocillary clearance
  • innate and adaptive host defense
200
Q

What types of microbial immigration occur in the lung to cause disease?

A
  • microaspiration
  • inhalation of bacteria
  • direct mucosal dispersion
201
Q

What are some regional growth conditions of the lung that can contribute to disease?

A
  • nutrient availability
  • oxygen tension
  • temperature
  • pH
  • concentration of inflammatory cells
  • activation of inflammatory cells
  • local microbial competition
  • host epithelial cell interactions
202
Q

What locations of microbes are linked to asthma?

A
  • lung and gut microbes have been linked to asthma
203
Q

What can happen to metabolites produced by the gut microbiota?

A

-can travel and impact other organ systems
- vagus nerve and enteric nervous system thought to link the gut with the brain

204
Q

What maintains homeostasis in the vaginal microbiome?

A
  • commensal bacteria by interacting with epithelial cells
  • loss of commensal bacteria can lead to increased microbial diversity and changes in immune and epithelial homeostasis
205
Q

What is bacterial vaginosis associated with?

A
  • loss of lactobacillus bacteria and is replaced with increased microbial diversity of unrelated bacteria
207
Q

Vaginal bacteria may be a useful marker for what?

A
  • in identifying risk of pre-term birth
208
Q

What diseases can bacteria near or on the teeth cause?

A
  • dental caries
  • tooth abscess
209
Q

What diseases can be caused by bacteria in or near the periodontist (gums)?

A
  • gingivitis
  • periodontitis
210
Q

What diseases can be caused by microbes in the stomach?

A
  • Gastro-esophageal reflux disease
  • use of proton pump inhibitors and H2 blockers
  • Gastroparesis
211
Q

What diseases can be caused by microbes in the lung that contribute to lung dysbiosis?

A

impaired clearance mechanisms

212
Q

What diseases can be caused by microbes in the oropharynx that contribute to lung dysbiosis?

A
  • oropharyngeal dysphagia
213
Q

What diseases can be caused by microbes in the nasal cavity that contribute to lung dysbiosis?

A
  • anatomic abnormalities
  • cystic fibrosis
  • irritants and pollutants
  • immunodeficiancy
  • viral infections
214
Q

What diseases can be caused by microbes in the nasopharynx that contribute to lung dysbiosis?

A
  • defects in mucosal immunity
  • ciliary dyskinesia
215
Q

What are the 2 major outstanding questions and needs in human microbiome research?

A
  • How do the unique relationships between the microbiome and the immune system influence health outcomes
  • Understanding the substantial structural variations in species and subspecies that influence microbiome functionality.
216
Q

What is the influence of microbiomes in precision medicine?

A
  • based on microbiome data of different groups, different respective treatments can be used that is tailored to help those groups the best
217
Q

How does the gut microbiome impact the way we process drugs?

A
  • directly breaks them down
  • can produce products that influence drug kinetics and travel in the body
  • interferes with host metabolism of the drug
  • modify bioavailability of the drug
218
Q

What can trigger asthma attacks?

A
  • allergens (mold, dust mites)
  • pollutants
  • stress
  • tobacco smoke
  • pests
  • cold air
219
Q

What are some recognized challenges in asthma?

A
  • it can manifest in different ways
  • responses to available treatments vary
  • limited knowledge of processes behind variability
  • imprecise or nonexistent biomarkers for some subtypes of asthma
  • unmet medical need
  • limited knowledge of contributions of microbiome across lifespan
220
Q

What group of people have the highest rates of death due to asthma?

A
  • black women