Unit 1 Flash Cards (Lecture + Book)

1
Q

What are the 3 common traits shared between most bacteria?

A

1) Thick, complex outer envelope
2) Compact genome - not a lot of non-coding genes/DNA
3) Tightly coordinated functions - parts of the cells work together very closely and mechanistically.

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2
Q

What is a main similarity of archaea and bacteria?

A

They are both prokaryotes (cells do not contain a membrane-bound nucleus.)

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3
Q

What is a main trait of eukaryotic cells?

A

Extensive membrane-bound organelles

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4
Q

What is a trait of the plasma membrane of most bacteria like E.coli?

A

It has two membranes: inner and outer

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5
Q

What is between the inner and outer cell membranes?

A

the cell wall, which has a chain of sugars and peptides: peptidoglycan

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6
Q

What is a gram-negative bacterium?

A

A type of bacteria that is not stained by the crystal violet stain.

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7
Q

What is the peri plasm?

A

the space surrounding gram-negative bacteria’s cell wall that . it contains water, nutrient-binding molecules, and secretion machinery

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8
Q

What constitutes the outer wall of a gram-negative bacteria?

A

Phospholipids and lipopolysaccharides

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9
Q

What are lipopolysaccharides?

A

A type of lipids attached to long sugar chains. This layer maybe surrounded by thick capsules.

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10
Q

What is a benefit to the capsules that may surround LPS layers?

A

The layer is slippery and prevents phagocytosis by macrophages.

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11
Q

What are flagella?

A

external helical proteins used to propel bacteria around.

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12
Q

What do the chromosomes attach to in bacteria?

A

the cell membrane/envelope

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13
Q

What is a nucleoid?

A

the circular, coiled formation of chromosomes. not contained in a membrane.

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14
Q

What are the common chemical components shared between all cells?

A

1) water
2) essential ions
3) small organic molecules
4) large macromolecular structures

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15
Q

What is the point of microbes having a high content of nucleic acids?

A

to maximize reproduction of its chromosomes and minimized cell resources

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16
Q

Why can’t humans digest bacteria?

A

because we do not have the enzymes to digest the uric acid from the breakdown of the high content of nucleic acids.

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17
Q

What is the proteome?

A

proteins expressed in a cell under certain conditions.

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18
Q

What is cell fractionation?

A

The separation of cellular components.

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19
Q

What has microscopy revealed?

A

1) humans consist and are covered in microbes
2) we live in a world that is filled with microbes and their usefulness
3) bacteria are beautiful

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20
Q

What is the smallest resolution of our eyes?

A

~0.1mm

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21
Q

What is resolution?

A

The smallest distance by which two objects can be separated and still be distinguished.

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22
Q

What is detection?

A

ability to determine the presence of an object. Different from resolution.

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23
Q

What is magnification?

A

increase in the size of an image to resolve smaller separations between objects

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24
Q

T/F: not all bacteria are microscopic.

A

true

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25
Q

What are examples of eukaryotic microbes?

A

1) protozoa
2) algae
3) fungi

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26
Q

T/F: eukaryotic microbes are typically smaller than bacteria.

A

False

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27
Q

What is the typical size range of eukaryotic microbes?

A

10-100um (can be seen under a light microscope)

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28
Q

What is the typical size range of prokaryotes (bacteria and archaea)?

A

0.4-10um (cannot be seen under a light microscope)

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29
Q

T/F: prokaryotic cells are simpler shapes than eukaryotic cells.

A

True

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30
Q

What are common shapes of bacteria?

A

1) cocci - spheres
2) Bacilli - rods
3) spirilli - rigid spiral
4) Spirochetes - flexible spiral
5) Appendaged - protrusions

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31
Q

What is the size range for the resolution of microbes by the human eye?

A

1-0.1mm

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32
Q

What is the size range for the resolution of microbes by light microscopy?

A

1mm - 200nm

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33
Q

What is the size range for the resolution of microbes by scanning electron microscopy?

A

1mm - 5nm

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34
Q

What is the size range for the resolution of microbes by transmission electron microscopy?

A

25um-5nm

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35
Q

What is the size range for the resolution of microbes by atomic force microscopy?

A

5um - 1 angstrom

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36
Q

What is the size range for the resolution of microbes by X-ray crystallography?

A

10nm - 1 angstrom

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37
Q

What is the wavelength range of visible light?

A

400-750nm

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38
Q

What are the 3 conditions for light to resolve an object?

A

1) contrast between the object and its medium
2) the wavelength needs to be significantly smaller than the object
3) magnification

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39
Q

T/F: Microscopy takes advantage of how light interacts with matter because light has both wave and particle properties.

A

True

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40
Q

What are the ways that light can interact with matter?

A

1) absorption: object blocks part of the light
2) reflection: light bounces off the surface at an equal angle from where it was received
3) refraction: light will bend when it enters a substance that changes its speed
4) scattering: small fraction of the light is scattered in all directions.

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41
Q

When does light scattering occur/

A

When the size of the object is similar to the wavelength size.

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42
Q

What type of light-object interaction does magnification require?

A

refraction

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43
Q

How does refraction work in magnification?

A
  • light shift direction as they enter a substance of a higher refractive index.
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44
Q

What is a focal point?

A
  • when parallel rays enter through a parabolic glass and the rays that pass through all meet at this certain point.
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45
Q

What limits the ability of what we see with a microscope?

A

resolution.

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46
Q

What is the resolution limit from wavelength of light/

A

200nm or 0.2um

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47
Q

What is empty magnification ?

A

Magnification without increasing detail/resolution.

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48
Q

What is bright-field microscopy?

A

generates a dark image of an object over a light background.

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49
Q

How do you increase resolution with bright-field microscopy?

A

1) use shorter wavelength light
2) have balanced light and contrast
3) use immersion oil
4) use wider lens closer to specimen
5) higher numerical aperture

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50
Q

What is the refractive index/

A

the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in another medium

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51
Q

What is the refractive index of water, air, immersion oil, and glass?

A

1) 1.3
2) 1.0
3) 1.5
4) 1.5

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52
Q

How does immersion oil help in microscopy/

A
  • minimizes the loss of light rays by refracting them
  • makes 100x magnification possible with minimal distortion
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53
Q

How does increasing the cone of light filling the object change the numerical aperture and lens width?

A
  • increasing = an increase in NA
  • increase = a wider lense
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54
Q

What is a compound microscope?

A

system of multiple lenses to correct for aberration
contains: ocular and objective lens

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55
Q

What is total magnification with a compound microscope?

A

magnification of the ocular lens multiplied by that of the objective lens

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56
Q

What is we mount preparation?

A

Observes microbes by placing them in a drop of water on a slide with a coverslip

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57
Q

What are the advantages to wet mount?

A
  • observe cells in natural state
  • fast and easy
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58
Q

What are the disadvantages to wet mount prep?

A

-little contrast between cell and background
- some microbes move fast
-sample dries out quickly

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59
Q

What does a sample look like when it is too far away?

A

beyond focal point looks empty with interference rings

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60
Q

What does a sample look like when it is too close?

A

image is blurred

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61
Q

what are some examples of how to fix cells?

A

methanol or flaming

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62
Q

What charges do stain have?

A

Positive charge to react with the negatively charged groups of the bacterial cell envelope.

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63
Q

T/F: both staining and fixation kills the cell.

A

True

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64
Q

What is a simple stain?

A

adds a dark color to cells but not the external medium or surrounding tissue
- methylene blue is a common example of this

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65
Q

What is a differential stain?

A

stains one kind of cell but not another
- ex: Gram stain

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66
Q

what is the step procedure for staining with methylene blue?

A

1) loopfuls of culture on clean slide
2) spread thinly over film
3) air-dry
4) fix cells
5) stain with a certain time period
6) wash off slide with water
7) blot off excess water

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67
Q

What is the procedure for differential staining with gram stain?

A

1) fix cells to surface
2) add crystal violet stain
3) add iodine, binds to stain in gram positive cells
4) wash with ethanol
5) add safranin (counterstain)

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68
Q

what are gram-positive bacteria?

A

Bacteria that retain the crystal violet stain because of their thicker cell wall

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69
Q

What are gram-negative bacteria?

A

bacteria that do not retain crystal violet stain

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70
Q

What is acid-fast stain?

A

carbolfuchsin stains mycobacterium

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71
Q

What are spore stains?

A

malachite green detects spores of bacillus and clostridium

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72
Q

What is a negative stain?

A

stains the background, making the capsules more visible

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73
Q

Why are some structure too difficult to image with BF microscopy?

A

1) too small: size is below the limit of resolution of light
2) too clear: cytoplasm is transparent`

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74
Q

What light technique does dark field take advantage of?

A

light scattering, visualized as halos of bright light against darkness
- detects very narrow cells (0.1um)
- resolves flagella

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75
Q

what light technique does phase contrast take advantage of?

A

refraction, which light passes through the cytoplasm it slows down more
- differences in refractive indexes between cytoplasm and surrounding medium
- superimposes image of specimen onto a second beam of light that generates interference fringes

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76
Q

What is fluorescence microscopy?

A

specimen absorbs light of a defined wavelength, then emits light of lower energy = lower wavelength (allows specimen to fluoresce)
- view cellular processes in various cell types

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77
Q

Process of fluorescence microscopy?

A

1) light passes through color filter that selects excitation wavelength
2) excitation light is reflected by dichroic mirror (reflects light below a wavelength, transmits light above that wavelength)
3) reflected light passes objective lens and excites fluorophroes in specimen
4) emitted light of longer wavelength passes through objective and dichroic
5) ocular lens focuses light onto camera

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78
Q

What is a fluorophore?

A

a fluorescent chemical compound

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79
Q

What are the ways to label/add fluorescence to cell parts/

A

1) chemical affinity (membrane dyes)
2) labeled antibodies (immunofluorescence)
3) DNA hybridization
4) Gene fusions (adding GFP to a POI)

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80
Q

T/F: super-resolution imaging beats the diffraction limit of light/

A

True

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81
Q

What is total internal reflection fluorescence microscopy (TIRFM)?

A

use of an angled laser illumination to resolve sub cellular details at the membrane surface of the cell

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82
Q

What does atomic force microscopy (AFM) do?

A

images the contours of live bacteria in water or exposed air.
- measures VDWFs between electron shells of adjacent atoms of the cell surface and a sharp tip.

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83
Q

T/F: electron microscopy uses high frequency of waves.

A

true

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84
Q

T/F: sample doesn’t need to absorb electrons in electron microscopy?

A

false

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85
Q

T/F: electron beam and sample are in a vacuum where lenses are magnetic fields.

A

true

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86
Q

What is TEM?

A
  • electrons pass through specimen
  • reveals internal structures
  • cell requires slicing, then stain
    -images dead cells
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87
Q

What is SEM?

A
  • electrons scan the specimen surface
  • reveals external 3D structures
  • does NOT require slicing
  • images dead cells
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88
Q

What is the order of bacterial cytoplasm and cell parts?

A

Ordered, but flexible and adaptable structure. cytoplasm is very dense and well-organized.

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89
Q

What is the purpose of the LPS layer in bacteria?

A

To evade immune systems

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90
Q

What is the order of layers that make up the envelope of a gram-negative bacteria?

A

1) LPS
2) outer membrane
3) cell wall
4) Periplasm
5) Inner Membrane

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91
Q

What are some of the functions of membrane proteins?

A
  • structural support for the cell
  • detection of environmental signals
  • secretion of virulence factors and communication signals
  • ion transport and energy storage
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92
Q

What are the 2 ways that active transport can acquire energy?

A

1) cotransport of another substance down its gradient
2) coupling transport to energy-yielding chemical reaction

93
Q

Do kinks (double bonds) increase or decrease fluidity in phospholipid membranes?

94
Q

Do cyclic structures in unsaturated fatty acids decrease or increase fluidity of cell membranes?

95
Q

What happens if cell membranes become too fluid?

A

Membrane will not be stable and fall apart.

96
Q

What is a main reason why archaea are stable in extreme conditions?

A
  • extreme variations in phospholipid side-chains keep stability
97
Q

What are ether linkages?

A

Links between glycerol and FAs

98
Q

What are terpenoids?

A

structures where every 4th carbon has a methyl branch attached

99
Q

What are the benefits to having methyl branches on FAs of phospholipids?

A

limits movements of hydrocarbon chains = strengthens the membrane

100
Q

T/F: bilayers in archaea can fuse into monolayers

101
Q

What are cyclopentane rings?

A

Terpenoids that have had their methyl groups cyclize into pentagons, stiffening the membrane.

102
Q

In prokaryotes, what is the layer that protects the cell membrane?

A

Exoskeleton

103
Q

T/F: All prokaryotes have outer layers in their cell membrane.

A

False, mycoplasmas do not (just 1 cell membrane barrier + peptidoglycan layer)

104
Q

What is the point of a cell wall/sacculus?

A
  • helps with shape and rigidity
  • withstands tutor pressure from taking in water
    -porous, cage-like structure is open to many ions and organic molecules
105
Q

What are some of the linkages in the cell wall?

A

1) G bonds of N-acetylGlucosamine
2) M bonds of N-acetylMuramic acid
3) peptide (4-6AA) linkages between M-M, forming cross bridges between parallel glycan strands

106
Q

T/F: the cell wall is the most common target of anti-bacterial drugs

107
Q

How can we visualize Peptidoglycan growth?

A

-Use fluorescent D-AAs instead of regular L-AAs in fluorescence microscopy to monitor growth
- watch D-AAs be taken up during PG in real-time
- Sequential addition to one side of organism during PG

108
Q

How thick is the cell wall in gram-positive bacteria?

A

thick, 3-20 layers to compensate for no outer membrane

109
Q

How thick is the cell wall in gram-negative bacteria?

A

thin, 1-2 layers, has outer membrane

110
Q

What is special about mycobacteria’s cell wall?

A

they are complex and multilayered

111
Q

What threads together the peptidoglycan layers in gram-positive bacteria?

A

teichoic acids - negatively charged threads that help retain gram stain

112
Q

What is the capsule portion of gram-positive and some gram-negative bacterias’ cell envelope?

A
  • protects cell from phagocytosis
  • sticky and helps the cell to not dry out, doesn’t let water escape
  • seen using DF microscopy or with a negative stain
  • made of polysaccharide and glycoprotein
113
Q

What is a benefit to outer membranes in gram-negative bacteria?

A

has defensive abilities and toxigenic properties on many pathogens

114
Q

What consists of the outward-facing leaflet of the outer membrane in GN (Gram-negative) bacteria?

A

1) LPS cross-linked by Mg2+
2) porins

115
Q

What consists of the inward-facing leaflet of the outer membrane in GN bacteria?

A

lipoproteins (associates with the cell wall)

116
Q

What is the S-layer?

A
  • extra protective layer in bacteria and archaea
  • crystalline layers of thick units of proteins
  • contributes to cell shape and protection from osmotic stress
117
Q

T/F: the nucleiod is not organized into domains.

A

False, form chromosome loops called domains, radiate from the center

118
Q

Does transcription and translation occur at the same time in prokaryotes?

A

yes: DNA to ssmRNA bound by ribosomes to be translated to peptide chain

119
Q

T/F: Bacteria coordinate DNA replication and gene expression

120
Q

What is transertion?

A

the coupling of transcription, translation, and membrane insertion

121
Q

What is SRPs role in transertion?

A

binds to growing peptides and targets it for insertion into the membrane.

122
Q

T/F: prokaryotes synthesizes RNA and proteins continually while the cell’s DNA undergoes replication.

123
Q

What is a replisome?

A

the DNA replication fork, DNA polymerase, accessory proteins, and newly synthesized DNA

124
Q

T/F: Prokaryotes can continue to divide before the previous round of replication and division has been completed.

125
Q

What is FtsZ?

A

Tubulin-like GTPase that polymerizes into z-ring, allowing the cell to split apart.

126
Q

T/F: bacteria have chemical and physical asymmetry in age.

127
Q

What is polar aging?

A

Two cell poles differ in their origin and age

128
Q

What is the old pole in polar aging?

A

the pole where division did not occur

129
Q

What is the new pole in polar aging?

A

the pole where division occurred

130
Q

T/F: with each cell division, the old pole degrades slightly.

A

True, this raises the chance of lysis

131
Q

What are Thylakoids in bacteria?

A

extensively folded intracellular membranes in photosynthetic bacteria

132
Q

What are carboxysomes?

A

Polyheral bodies packed with the enzyme Rubisco to fix CO2 (only found in bacteria)
- fixes CO2 into sugar for cells to grow

133
Q

What are gas vesicles?

A

Organelle that helps traps hydrogen and CO2 gases to increase buoyancy
- done by phototropes at the top of water to collect sunlight

134
Q

What are sulfur globules?

A

holds granules of elemental sulfur to be used as antioxidant and to avoid predation

135
Q

What are pili/fimbrae?

A

straight filaments of piling PROTEIN used in attachment

136
Q

What are sex pili used for?

A

conjugation

137
Q

What is conjugation?

A

extend pili into another cell to transfer DNA

138
Q

What are stalks?

A

MEMBRANE-embeded extensions of the cytoplasm that attached to surfaces

139
Q

What are holdfasts?

A

adhesion factors secreted by the tips of stalks.
- allows mother cells to hold on to sediment while daughter cell pinches off and swims away with a flagellum

140
Q

What are nanotubes?

A

intercellular connections that pass big material from one cell to the next

141
Q

What is monotrichous flagella?

A

1 flagella on the backend of the bacteria

142
Q

What is amphitrichous flagella?

A

1 flagellum on the front and back ends of the bacteria

143
Q

what is lophotrichous flagella?

A

bacteria that have many flagella in the back end

144
Q

What is pertrichous flagella?

A

flagella is randomly distributed around the cell.
-flagella rotate together in a bundle behind the swimming cell

145
Q

What is the magnetosome?

A

a MEMBRANE-bound organelle that allows bacteria to navigate the Earth’s magnetic field

146
Q

What are characteristics of magneto tactic bacteria?

A
  • align and navigate magnetic fields
  • ubiquitous in aquatic environments
  • stays in low oxygen environments
  • Magnetite is biomineralized in membrane-bound organelles
    -magnetosomes are organized by a filament to form an intracellular compass needle.
147
Q

What is cell fractionation?

A

separates cellular components such as membranes, ribosomes, and flagella

148
Q

What are 4 lysis methods?

A

1) sonication (physical)
2) French Press (Physical)
3) Glass beads (physical)
4) lysozyme (chemical)

149
Q

What is sonication?

A

sound waves at high frequencies pop cells

150
Q

What is French press lysing?

A

high pressure environments pop the cells

151
Q

What is glass-bead lysing?

A

shake tiny glass beads to crush open cells

152
Q

What does lysozyme do?

A

a chemical that degrades cell walls

153
Q

What are macronutrients?

A

nutrients that are needed in large quantities.
Ex:
- major elements: S, C, H, P, O, N
- Cations for protein function: Mg, Ca, Fe, K

154
Q

What are micronutrients?

A

need trace amounts of these nutrients for enzyme function
- Co, Cu, Mn, Zn

155
Q

what are lithotrophs?

A

organisms that use inorganic molecules as a source of electrons.

156
Q

What are Organotrophs?

A

organisms that use organic molecules

157
Q

T/F: most heterotrophs organisms are lithotrophs.

A

False, most are heterotrophs are organotrophs

158
Q

What are nitrogen fixers?

A

organisms that use nitrognase to convert gaseous N2 to ammonium ions

159
Q

What are nitrifires?

A

oxidize ammonium ions to generate energy = production of NO3-

160
Q

What are denitrifiers?

A

use oxidized forms of nitrogen as alternative forms of electron acceptors (NO3 to N2)

161
Q

What is a symbiont?

A

An organism that lives in intimate association with another organism.
Ex: Rhizobium

162
Q

What are permeases?

A

substrate-specific carrier proteins

163
Q

What are nutrient-binding proteins?

A

proteins that patrol the periplasmic space and binds to the nutrients present there

164
Q

What are ABC transporters?

A

ATP-Binding Cassettes (family of energy-driven transport systems), found in all three domains of life

165
Q

What are Uptake ABC transporters?

A

critical for transporting nutrients

166
Q

What are efflux ABC transporters?

A

generally used as multi drug efflux pumps

167
Q

What is group translocation?

A

uses energy to chemically alter a substrate during transport.

168
Q

What is the phosphotransferase system?

A

PTS uses energy from PEP to attache phosphates to specific sugars
- present in all bacteria

169
Q

What are the 2 types of culture media that bacteria are grown in?

A

1) Liquid/broth
2) solid

170
Q

What is liquid/ broth media good for studying?

A

studying the growth characteristics of a pure culture

171
Q

What is solid culture media best for?

A

best for trying to separate mixed cultures from clinical specimens or natural environments

172
Q

What are the 2 main techniques that allow for pure colony isolation?

A

1) Dilution streaking
2) spread plate

173
Q

What is dilution streaking?

A

a loop with your sample is dragged across the agar plate, thinning the sample more and more as you drag it across and make different passes

174
Q

What is spread plating?

A

perform serial dilutions in liquid culture, then spread a small amount of each dilution is plated to see what will give you isolated colonies.

175
Q

What are the 5 types of experimental media?

A

1) Complex media
2) Minimal Media
3) Enriched Media
4) Selective media
5) Differential media

176
Q

What is complex media?

A

nutrient rich but poorly defined (has a bunch of unknown properties in it)

177
Q

What is minimal media?

A

contains only nutrients that are essential for growth of a given microbe

178
Q

What is enriched media?

A

complex media to which specific components are added

179
Q

What is selective media?

A

favors growth of one organism over another

180
Q

What is differential media?

A

exploits differences between two species that grow equally well.

181
Q

what are growth factors?

A

specific nutrients not required by other species
- needed to grow in lab media

182
Q

What are the 5 techniques for counting organisms?

A

1) spread plating
2) opitical density using a spectrometer
3) Hemocytometer
4) Fluorescence microscopy
5) Flow cytometry

183
Q

How does Optical density work?

A

Bacteria in liquid can be detected by how cloudy the medium is as more cells scatter light more.
-quick and easy approximation of cell density
-cell volume, length, and morphology can alter the OD value mistakenly
- dead cells scatter light too, so not a live count

184
Q

How does a hemocytometer work?

A

place a dilution of organisms sample on a special microscope slide called a hemocytometer/Petroff-Hausser chamber = gets counted by a machine

185
Q

How does fluorescence microscopy work?

A

easy to distinguish living from dead cells based on differential staining
- stain live cells with Syto-9 dye (enter all cells)
- dead cells fluoresce red with propidium dye (only enters dead cells)

186
Q

How does flow cytometry work?

A

Cells are sorted based on characteristics:
1) fluorescence (live vs dead)
2) side scatter correlates to cell size

187
Q

What is binary fission?

A

the process how most bacteria divide
- one parent cell splits into two equal daughter cells
- some divide asymmetrically by budding

188
Q

If the cell divides by binary fission, what is the number of cells proportional to?

A

2raised to the power of n = exponential growth
- n = number of generations

189
Q

What is a batch culture?

A

a liquid medium within a closed system where nutrient consumption and toxic products eventually slow growth rate

190
Q

What influences the length of the lag phase?

A

changes in growth conditions like temp, pH, and nutrient richness

191
Q

What is the lag phase in bacterial growth?

A

bacteria are preparing cell machinery for growth

192
Q

What is a chemostat used for?

A

a system that continuously removes used/bad media/products from the microbes’ environments and replaces it with fresh, nutrient-rich media.

193
Q

What are homotypic aggregations?

A

organisms groups together to survive environmental stressors

194
Q

What is quorum sensing?

A

A group of bacteria collectively respond to environmental changes

195
Q

What is swarming?

A

A group of bacteria move across a surface

196
Q

What are biofilms?

A

a group of bacteria adheres to each other and to a surface.
- can be formed by one or multiple species
- form when nutrients are plentiful
- if nutrients become scarce, individuals detach to find more food

197
Q

What are biofilms protected by?

A

an extracellular matrix composed of curly and cellulose

198
Q

What is Curli?

A

CsgA protein fibers that are resistant to denaturants that form in sheets of amyloid
- found in biofilm ECM

199
Q

What is cellulose?

A
  • glucose fibers that are resistant to denaturants
  • highly wettable
200
Q

What are the 5 stages in biofilm development?

A

1) initiation - attached to monolayer by flagella
2) maturation - forms micro colonies
3) Maintenance
4) dissolution

201
Q

What are endospores?

A

a formation induced by starvation/stressors in gram-positive bacteria
- asymmetric division that produces foreshores and ultimately an endospore
- forming these spores takes a lot of energy and is the last option
- spores are heat resistant and do not need nutrients until the germinate

202
Q

What is sporulation?

A

the process where bacteria turn into spores, uses a lot of energy

203
Q

What are heterocyst?

A

-present in cyanobacteria
- make nitrogenase to fix gaseous nitrogen
- produce 3 additional cell walls
- form a specialized O2 barrier
- degrades photosynthetic machinery
- present in every 10th cell to allow for both photosynthesis to occur in other cells and fix nitrogen in heterocysts
- fix nitrogen anaerobically at night

204
Q

What are fruiting bodies?

A

Found in myxococcus xanthus
- starvation triggers the aggregation of 100,000 cells, which form a larger “fruiting” body

205
Q

What are considered “normal growth conditions”?

A

-Pressure: sea level
- Temperature: 20-40oC
-pH: near neutral
- salt concentration: ~0.9%
- ample nutrients
- anything outside these conditions is considered extreme

206
Q

What temps do psychrophiles live in?

207
Q

What temps do mesophiles live in?

208
Q

What temps do Thermophiles live in?

209
Q

What temps do Hyperthermophiles live in?

210
Q

What type of extremophiles are typically human pathogens?

A

mesophiles

211
Q

What are psychroptrophs?

A

cold-resistant mesophiles that grow between 0-35oC

212
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

a measure of the number of solute molecules in a solution.

213
Q

What are compatible solutes

A

molecules that accumulate in cells and balance the osmotic difference between the cells surroundings and the cytosol- especially in hypertonic solution

214
Q

What are mechxnosensitive channels?

A

channels used to leak solutes out of the cell - especially in hypotonic solutions.

215
Q

What is a prophage?

A

the viral genome stabilized in the host cell

216
Q

What are some forms of prophage DNA?

A
  • plasmid
  • integrated into the host genome
217
Q

What are the 3 different life cycles that bacteriophages can under go?

A

1) Lytic cycle: kill
2) Lysogenic cycle: sleeper cell
3) slow-release cycle: Persistent Phage

218
Q

What are the steps of the lytic replication cycle?

A

1) phage recognizes the host cell and attaches to it
2) phages gains access/inserts its DNA into the host genome
3) Using the host machinery, the phage components are expressed and assembled into progeny phages
4) many progeny phage kills and exits host cell in search of new host cells

219
Q

What is a temperate phage?

A

a phage that infects and lyses the cell but maintains the genome as a prophage without complete destructions of the cell

220
Q

What is lysogeny?

A
  • phages are quiescent as prophage
  • prophage presence prevents superinfection and a lot of cell death
  • prophage is replicated and inherited along with host chromosome each generation.
  • can become reactive/lytic again
221
Q

What decides whether a cell/phage enter the lytic or lysogenic cycles?

A
  • dictated by environmental cues/triggers
  • events that threaten host cell trigger a lytic burst
222
Q

What is the slow-release cycle of a persistent phage?

A

-phage produce phage particles without lysing the host cell
- host will reproduce, but more slowly than uninfected cells

223
Q

What happens when a new type of phage enters GI tract?

A

1) transduction: horizontal gene transfer
2) lysogeny
3) Lysis: to depopulate bacterial species

224
Q

What can lysogenic cells use to detect cell density and trigger lysis for population control?

A

quorum sensing

225
Q

How do phage monitor immune system?

A

suppresses t-cell activation and tumor formation

226
Q

What is something unusual that phage infections can erode?

A

biofilms of pathogens

227
Q

What are some defenses that bacteria have evolved against phage infection?

A

1) genetic resistance: alter/block receptor proteins
2) Restriction/Modification: cleave phage DNA lacking methylations
3) CRISPR

228
Q

What does CRISPR in bacteria do against phages.