unit 3 exam Flashcards

1
Q

Name all hormones secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

A

Growth hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, prolactin, ACTH, lipotropin, melanocyte stimulating hormone

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2
Q

Name all hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland

A

ADH and oxytocin

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3
Q

What are causes of hypofunction or hyperfunction

A

inflammation (usually chronic but can be acute) or tumor originating in endocrine glands

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4
Q

Name the hormones the thyroid gland produces

A

Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothryonine (T3) and calcitonin

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5
Q

What do the thyroid hormones do

A

they are necessary for normal growth and development, regulate basal metabolism, increase metabolic activity and protein synthesis, influence renal decelopment

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6
Q

what is the function of parathyroid hormone

A

regulate calcium and phosphate metabolism

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7
Q

how is calcium and phosphate regulated

A

stimulating resorption of calcium and phosphate from bone, reabsorption of calcium and excretion of phosphate by the kidneys, combined action with vitamin D, and absorption from GI tract

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8
Q

What is the function of mineralocorticoid

A

regulate reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium by kidneys, regulate blood pressure

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9
Q

Why is there changes in the endocrine system from age

A

Concentration of hormones needed dont change, but the way we achieve the equilibrium hormone levels do

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10
Q

Where are changes in the system seen from aging

A

pituitary, adrenal, and thyroid function. ———glucose homeostasis, reproductive function, and calcium metabolism——–

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11
Q

If a patient has a lack of progress in PT, what should the therapist note

A

it should signal the possibility of a systemic origin of musculoskeletal symptoms

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12
Q

If a patient has muscle weakness, atrophy, myalgia, and fatigue that persists despite rest, what diseases could be manifested?

A

thyroid or parathyroid disease, acromegaly, diabetes, cushing syndrome, or osteomalacia

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13
Q

What are the functions of cortisol

A

regulates metabolism of proteins, carbs, and lipids to elevate blood glucose levels. essential to norepinephrine-induced vasoconstriction. dampening body’s inflammatory response to foreign agents.

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14
Q

What is acromegaly

A

Excessive secretion of growth hormone after normal completion of body growth

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15
Q

Graves disease is..

A

most common type of hyperthyroidism, increase in T4 production

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16
Q

Pathogenesis of hyperthyroidism

A

people with graves have circulating autoantibodies called TSIs that react against thyroglobulin

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17
Q

What do TSIs do

A

Stimulate enlargement of thyroid gland and secretion of excess thyroid hormone

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18
Q

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A

Larger thyroid, nervousness, heat intolerance, weight loss, increased appetite, sweating, diarrhea, tremor, palpitations, afib, increase risk of myocardial infarction, and congestive heart failure

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19
Q

What role does the Mu receptor take part of

A

respiratory depression

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20
Q

Management of hyperthyroidism

A

antithyroid medication, radioactive iodine, and surgery

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21
Q

Type 1 hypothyroidism is..

A

reduced thyroid mass, impaired hormonal synthesis or release of hormones, or elevated TSH hormone

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22
Q

symptoms of type 1 hypothyroidism

A

slowing of body processes, bradycardia, decreased GI tract motility, slowed neuro, decrease in body heat, absence of hydrochloric acid, development of anemia, lipid metabolism is altered

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23
Q

Type 2 hypothyroidism

A

result of failure of pituitary gland to synthesize and release adequate amounts of TSH

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24
Q

What are mixed agonist-antagonists

A

they exhibit some agonist and antagonist-like activity, there’s less risk of the side effects associated with Mu receptors

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25
Q

What kind of opiate classification would you use if you need to treat severe pain

A

strong agonists

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26
Q

Where does metabolic inactivation of opioids take place

A

liver

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27
Q

What are the three mechanisms of action for opioids

A

spinal, supraspinal, and peripheral effects

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28
Q

Explain the spinal effects of opioids

A

the inhibitory effect (decreased transmitter release from presynaptic and decreased excitability of post synaptic neuron) mediated by opioid receptors

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29
Q

explain supraspinal effects of opioids

A

bind to receptors in midbrain and remove inhibition of pathways that decrease pain. Release setatonin and norepinephrine and inhibit ability of synapses to transmit painful impulses to the brain

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30
Q

Adverse effects of opioids

A

drowsiness, respiratory depression, orthostatic hypotension, GI distress

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31
Q

When do withdrawal symptoms show

A

6-10 hours after last dose

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32
Q

What is opioid induced hyperalgesia

A

may fail to respond to opioids or report increased pain sensitivity.

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33
Q

What are corticosteroids

A

naturally occurring hormones made by adrenal cortex

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34
Q

what are glucocorticoids

A

effect carb and protein metabolism, —-increase blood glucose and liver glycogen

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35
Q

what are mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)

A

regulate electrolyte and water metabolism

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36
Q

What are the anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids

A

act on macrophages, lymphocytes, and endothelial cells to inhibit expression of cytokines, inhibit production of adhesion molecules diminish ability of leukocytes to enter inflamed tissues

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37
Q

What are adverse effects of glucocorticoids

A

Changes in mood, effects on skin and connective tissue, cardiovascular effects, steroid-induced myopathy, effect of growth and bone.

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38
Q

What are the applications of glucocorticoids

A

decrease inflammation, for immunosuppression, replacement steroid for adrenal insufficiency

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39
Q

Adverse effects of prolonged systemic corticosteroids

A

hyperglycemia, fluid retention, increase risk of infection, osteoporosis, bone fractures, peptic ulcer disease, gastritis, nausea, change in mood

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40
Q

pharmacological properties of NSAIDs

A

decreases inflammation, relieve mild to moderate pain, decrease fever, decrease blood clotting

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41
Q

what is the role of eicosanoids in health

A

have effects on every major system

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42
Q

What does aspirin inhibit

A

COX-1 and COX-2

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43
Q

What are the clinical applications of aspirin

A

pain and inflammation, fever, vascular disorders, and prevention of cancer

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44
Q

How does aspirin help pain and inflammation

A

provide analgesic effects similar to opioid drugs without harmful side effects

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45
Q

should children use aspirin for a fever

A

NO, can cause Reye syndrome

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46
Q

how does aspirin help vascular disorders

A

help prevent onset or recurrence of heart attacks by inhibiting thrombus formation in coronary arteries—- using daily can prevent stroke

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47
Q

What is the mechanism of aspirin

A

inhibit platelet induced thrombus formation through its ability to inhibit thromboxane biosynthesis

48
Q

How does aspirin prevent cancer (mechanism)

A

inhibit COX-2 enzyme which inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins that cause abnormal cell division

inhibits platelet activation

49
Q

What kind of CV problems can be caused by aspirin

A

increase BP and chance of thrombotic events, can lead to stroke, heart attack in susceptible individuals

50
Q

Why would a patient prefer COX-2 selective drugs

A

Useful to patients who can’t tolerate traditional NSAIDS or aspirin
or
preferred for patients who are at risk for prolonged bleeding and bruising that can happen with aspirin and NSAIDs

51
Q

COX-2 inhibitors spare the production of _________

A

thromboxane

52
Q

How do COX-2 drugs increase the risk of CV events

A

COX-2 inhibition can cause loss of prostaglandins that cause vasodilation and prevent thrombosis which allow PROthrombotic prostaglandins to dominate

53
Q

What is thromboxane

A

a prostaglandin that facilitates platelet aggregation and clot formation

54
Q

What is the major advantage of acetaminophen

A

les supper GI tract irritation

55
Q

is acetaminophen considered an NSAID

A

NO, lacks anti-inflammatory and anti-coagulant properties

56
Q

Name the body parts involved in the upper GI tract

A

mouth, esophagus, stomach, and duodenum

57
Q

Name the parts involved in the lower GI tract

A

small intestine and large intestine

58
Q

What are the most common GI problems in older adults

A

constipation, incontinence, and diverticular disease

59
Q

What is a hiatal hernia

A

esophageal hiatus of diagram gets enlarged and causes the stomach to go through the hole

60
Q

what are symptoms of a hiatal hernia

A

Heartburn or reflux

61
Q

Contraindications for hiatal hernia

A

avoid flat supine position or valsalva manuever

62
Q

What is GERD

A

reflux of gastric contents into esophagus accompanied by a failure of anatomic and physiologic mechanisms to protect the esophagus

63
Q

clinical manifestations of GERD

A

heartburn, asthma, cough, laryngitis

older that 70 years old can have dysphagia, vomiting, respiratory issues, weight loss, anemia, or anorexia.

64
Q

What are the general functions of the liver

A

digestive, endocrine, excretory, hematologic, and immune

65
Q

-Conversion and excretion of bilirubin,
-produce clotting factors and storage of vitamins,
- metabolize drugs, chemicals, and toxins,
filters all of blood from GI system

A

examples of liver function

66
Q

How much bile does the liver produce per day

67
Q

Functions of pancreas as an exocrine gland

A

secretion of digestive enzymes and pancreatic juices and neutralize

68
Q

functions of pancreas as endocrine gland

A

secretion of glucagon ad insulin by islet of langerhans cells

69
Q

bile helps in….

A

alkalinizing intestinal contents and plays role in emulsification, absorption, and digestion of fat

70
Q

How does hepatic failure occur

A

mass of liver cells diminished or cirrhosis, liver cancer, infection, or inflammation

71
Q

What is palmar erythema

A

warm redness of skin over palms

72
Q

what hormone is associated with spider angiomas

A

increase estrogen

73
Q

When liver dysfunction causes increased serum ammonia and urea levels, it will IMPAIR THE CNS OR PNS

74
Q

What is acute cholangitis

A

obstruction and stasis of bile from choledocholithiasis, biliary strictures, or malignancy can lead to a suppurative infection of the biliary tree

75
Q

what is acute cholecystitis

A

inflammation of gallbladder, causes prolonged abdominal pain lasting more than 6 hours

76
Q

asterixis

A

can’t maintain wrist extension with forward flexion of upper extremities

77
Q

symptoms of hepatic failure in MSK

A

thoracic pain, hepatic osteodystrophy

78
Q

what is osteodystrophy

A

abnormal development of bone, osteomalacia and porosis, pain in wrist and ankles, and referred pain

79
Q

Neuro symptoms of hepatic failure

A

confusion, sleep disturbances, muscle tremors, hyperreactive reflexes, and asterixis, hepatic encephalopathy or portosystemic encephalopathy

80
Q

medications that are lipophilic have an increased area of distribution in older people secondary to an increase in the proportion of….

A

fat mass and decrease of lean mass

81
Q

At >2.0 mg/dL, how does jaundice look like

A

Yellow discoloration of skin, sclerae, and mucous membrane

82
Q

At 3.0 mg/dL, how does jaundice look like

A

Skin becomes yellow, urine gets dark, stool is light

83
Q

When does cirrhosis occur

A

when inflammation causes liver tissue damage and/or necrosis

84
Q

How is cirrhosis characterized

A

Progressive loss of normal tissue that’s replaced with fibrosis and nodular regeneration

85
Q

Is cirrhosis reversible

86
Q

Elevated portal pressure gradient occurs when pressure of blood entering the liver is higher than pressure of blood in inf vena cava

A

portal hypertension

87
Q

_________, __________, and __________ combine to form mechanical barriers to blood flow and increase resistance

A

Fibrosis, nodularity, and abnormal liver architecture

88
Q

What syndrome is a complex neuropsychiatric syndrome and motor disturbances to coma and death?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

89
Q

what are the grades of hepatic encephalopathy

A

minimal, grade 1-4

90
Q

Ascites

A

abnormal accumulation of fluid within the peritoneal cavity

91
Q

What is hepatitis

A

acute or chronic inflammation of the liver caused by a virus, chemical, drug reaction, or alcohol abuse

92
Q

How many different viruses does hepatitis have

93
Q

What kind of hepatitis comprises several diseases with common clinical manifestations, usually asymptomatic, an ongoing injury for over 6 months

A

chronic hepatitis

94
Q

What kind of liver failure is rare but fatal, rapidly progressing, cause is acetaminophen hepatotoxicity/?

A

Acute liver failure

95
Q

what kind of hepatitis can be easily spread before symptoms appear, symptoms include malaise, fatigue, fever, nausea, and so on.

A

Viral hepatitis

96
Q

Which hepatitis is transmitted via fecal-oral route, due to poor hygiene, highly contagious, greatest danger of transmission during incubation

A

Hepatitis A

97
Q

Which hepatitis is highly infections, trasmitted via percutaneously or mucosal contact, and a sexually transmitted disease

A

Hepatitis B

98
Q

Which hepatitis is commonly associated with injection use, period of infectivity before onset of symptoms, lifetime carrier, often symptomatic

A

hepatitis C

99
Q

Which hepatitis is uncommon in the US, a coinfection of HBV, requires hepatitis B for its replication

A

Hepatitis D

100
Q

Which hepatitis is transmitted by contaminated water via the fecal-oral route and clinically resembles HAV

A

Hepatitis E

101
Q

What’s the pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease

A

fatty liver disease occurs with the accumulation of fat in hepatocytes

102
Q

Chronic alcohol use results in bacterial overgrowth and disturbance of junctions between intestinal cells stimulates…

A

Immune system and inflammation

103
Q

How does the liver respond to inflammation and injury

A

a fibrogenic scar

104
Q

Alcoholic fatty liver disease is associated with

A

elevated AST and ALT enzymes, bilirubin less than 3 mg/dL, ultrasound may show steatosis

105
Q

What is alcoholic steatohepatitis

A

inflammation on liver biopsy

106
Q

What is associated with alcoholic hepatitis

A

elevated AST and ALT, increased bilirubin greater than 3 mg/dL, 50% have advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis on liver biopsy

107
Q

What is nonalcoholic fatty liver disease

A

its without significant inflammation, related to diabetes and insulin resistance

108
Q

What is the definition of pancreatitis

A

serious inflammation of pancreas and surrounding organs that can result in auto digestion of pancreas by its own enzymes

109
Q

What pancreatitis is 80% of cases and mild course and few complications

A

interstitial pancreatitis

110
Q

what pancreatitis is 20% of cases and has significant complications and higher mortality

A

necrotizing pancreatitis

111
Q

what type of acute pancreatitis is characterized by absence of organ failure or local or systemic complications

A

Mild acute

112
Q

what type of acute pancreatitis is characterized by transient organ failure with local or systemic complications and severe right upper quadrate pain

A

Moderately severe

113
Q

What type of acute pancreatitis has severe cytokines and free radicals mediate a systemic response, leading to persistent multi-organ failure or death

114
Q

What pancreatitis has the development of irreversible changes in the pancreas secondary to chronic inflammation

A

chronic pancreatitis

115
Q

Which cancer has the lowest 5 year survival rate after diagnosis

A

pancreatic cancer