UNIT 3 CV 🫀 Flashcards

1
Q

Define chronotropy

A

HR

Chronotropy refers to the heart rate and how it is influenced by various factors.

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2
Q

Define inotropy

A

Strength of contraction (contractility)

Inotropy describes the force of heart muscle contraction.

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3
Q

Define dromotropy

A

Conduction velocity (how fast the AP travels per time)

Dromotropy relates to the speed at which electrical impulses propagate through the heart.

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4
Q

Define lusitropy

A

Rate of myocardial relaxation (during diastole)

Lusitropy indicates how well the heart muscle relaxes after contraction.

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5
Q

What is the function of the sodium-potassium pump?

A

Maintains cell resting potential, removes Na+, returns K+

The sodium-potassium pump is crucial for maintaining the negative resting potential of cells, particularly in cardiac myocytes.

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6
Q

List the 5 phases of ventricular AP

A

Phase 0: depolarization (Na influx)
Phase 1: initial repolarization (K efflux, Cl influx)
Phase 2: plateau (Ca influx)
Phase 3: repolarization (K efflux)
Phase 4: resting membrane potential restoration

These phases describe the electrical activity during a cardiac action potential.

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7
Q

List the 3 phases of SA node AP

A

Phase 4: spontaneous depolarization (leaky to Na)
Phase 0: depolarization (Ca influx)
Phase 3: repolarization (K efflux)

The SA node’s action potential is crucial for initiating the heartbeat.

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8
Q

What determines the intrinsic HR?

A

Rate of spontaneous phase 4 depolarization in the SA node

This rate can be influenced by various physiological factors.

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9
Q

What is the calculation for MAP?

A

MAP = (1/3 x SBP) + (2/3 x DBP)

MAP is a critical parameter for assessing perfusion pressure.

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10
Q

What is the formula for SVR?

A

([MAP – CVP) / CO] x 80

SVR indicates systemic vascular resistance.

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11
Q

What is the formula for pulmonary vascular resistance?

A

[(MPAP – PAOP) / CO] x 80

This formula helps assess the resistance in the pulmonary circulation.

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12
Q

Describe the Frank-Starling relationship

A

Relationship between ventricular volume (preload) and output (CO)

It states that increased preload leads to increased cardiac output until a certain point.

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13
Q

What factors affect myocardial contractility (inotropy)?

A

Chemicals affecting contractility, particularly calcium

Contractility can be altered by various substances that influence calcium levels.

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14
Q

What is afterload?

A

The force the ventricle must overcome to eject its stroke volume

Afterload is an important determinant of cardiac performance.

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15
Q

What law describes ventricular afterload?

A

Law of LaPlace

This law relates wall stress to intraventricular pressure, radius, and wall thickness.

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16
Q

List 2 conditions that set afterload proximal to the systemic circulation

A
  • Aortic stenosis
  • Coarctation of the aorta

These conditions increase the workload on the heart.

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17
Q

What are the 6 stages of the cardiac cycle?

A
  1. Atrial systole
  2. Isovolumetric contraction
  3. Ventricular systole
  4. Isovolumetric relaxation
  5. Ventricular filling
  6. Atrial diastole

These stages describe the sequence of events during one heartbeat.

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18
Q

How do you calculate ejection fraction?

A

EF = (SV / EDV) x 100

Ejection fraction measures the percentage of blood ejected from the heart during systole.

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19
Q

What is the best TEE view for diagnosing myocardial ischemia?

A

Midpapillary muscle level in short axis

This view provides optimal visualization of the left ventricle.

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20
Q

What is the equation for coronary perfusion pressure?

A

Coronary PP = aortic DBP – LVEDP

This equation is essential for understanding blood supply to the myocardium.

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21
Q

Which region of the heart is most susceptible to myocardial ischemia?

A

LV subendocardium

This area is particularly vulnerable during diastole due to its blood supply dynamics.

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22
Q

What factors affect myocardial oxygen supply and demand?

A
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23
Q

Discuss the nitric oxide pathway of vasodilation

A

NO synthase catalyzes L-arginine to NO, which activates guanylate cyclase, increasing cGMP and causing smooth muscle relaxation

This pathway is crucial for vascular regulation.

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24
Q

What are the two primary ways a heart valve can fail?

A
  • Stenosis
  • Regurgitation

These failures can lead to significant hemodynamic consequences.

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25
Q

How does the heart compensate for pressure overload?

A

Concentric hypertrophy

This adaptation increases wall thickness to manage increased pressure.

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26
Q

How does the heart compensate for volume overload?

A

Eccentric hypertrophy

This adaptation increases chamber size to accommodate extra volume.

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27
Q

What is the most common dysrhythmia associated with mitral stenosis?

A

Atrial fibrillation

This arrhythmia is often a consequence of atrial enlargement.

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28
Q

List 6 risk factors for perioperative cardiac morbidity and mortality for non-cardiac surgery

A
  • High-risk surgery
  • History of ischemic heart disease
  • History of congestive heart failure
  • History of cerebrovascular accident
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Serum creatinine > 2 mg/dL

These factors are critical for assessing surgical risk.

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29
Q

What is the risk of perioperative MI in the patient with previous MI?

A

Gen pop: 0.3%, >6mo: 6%, 3-6mo: 15%, <3mo: 30%

Timing of previous myocardial infarction significantly influences risk.

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30
Q

Categorize high, medium, and low-risk surgical procedures according to cardiac risk

A

High (>5%): emergency surgeries, open aortic surgeries, peripheral vascular surgeries
Medium (1-5%): carotid endarterectomy, head and neck surgeries, intrathoracic surgeries
Low (<1%): endoscopic procedures, cataract surgeries, superficial surgeries

Understanding the risk categories helps in preoperative planning.

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31
Q

How do you interpret cardiac enzymes in the patient with suspected ischemic event?

A

Infarcted myocardium releases CK-MB, troponin I, troponin T; troponins are more sensitive for diagnosing MI

Timing and context of enzyme elevation are crucial for diagnosis.

32
Q

How do you treat intraoperative myocardial ischemia?

A

Make the heart slower, smaller, and better perfused

This approach improves myocardial oxygen supply.

33
Q

What factors reduce ventricular compliance?

A
  • Age > 60 years
  • Ischemia
  • Pressure overload hypertrophy
  • Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
  • Pericardial pressure

These factors impact the heart’s ability to fill properly.

34
Q

What is the difference between HFrEF and HFpEF heart failure?

A

HFrEF: vent doesn’t empty well, ↓ EF with ↑ EDV
HFpEF: vent doesn’t fill properly, heart can’t relax, ↓ vent compliance

Understanding these differences is essential for management.

35
Q

What is the Modified NY Association Functional Classification of HF?

A

Class 1: asymptomatic, Class 2: symptomatic with moderate activity, Class 3: symptomatic with mild activity, Class 4: symptomatic at rest

This classification helps assess heart failure severity.

36
Q

List 6 complications of hypertension

A
  • LVH
  • Ischemic heart disease
  • CHF
  • Arterial aneurysm
  • Stroke
  • End-stage renal disease

Hypertension has widespread effects on various organs.

37
Q

How does hypertension contribute to CHF?

38
Q

How does hypertension affect cerebral autoregulation?

A

Chronic HTN shifts curve to the right; helps brain tolerate higher BPs but not lower BPs

This shift can lead to increased risk of complications during hypotensive episodes.

39
Q

What’s the difference between primary and secondary hypertension?

A

Primary (essential): no identifiable cause (95% of cases)
Secondary: due to other pathology (5% of cases)

Distinguishing between these types is important for treatment.

40
Q

List 7 causes of secondary hypertension

A
  • Coarctation of the aorta
  • Renovascular disease
  • Hyperadrenocorticism
  • Hyperaldosteronism
  • Pheochromocytoma
  • Pregnancy-induced hypertension

Identifying secondary causes is crucial for effective management.

41
Q

What are the two major classes of CCBs?

42
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of constrictive pericarditis

A

Fibrosis thickens pericardium, limiting diastolic filling and increasing ventricular pressure

This condition can lead to heart failure due to impaired filling.

43
Q

Describe the anesthetic management of constrictive pericarditis

A

CO dependent on HR, avoid bradycardia, preserve HR and contractility

Anesthetic approach must consider hemodynamic stability.

44
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of pericardial tamponade

A

Fluid in pericardium increases pressure, limiting filling and pumping ability

This condition leads to rising CVP and equalization of cardiac diastolic pressures.

45
Q

What is Kussmaul’s sign?

A

JVD and ↑ CVP, most pronounced during inspiration

This sign indicates impaired RV filling.

46
Q

List 2 conditions commonly associated with Kussmaul’s sign

A
  • Constrictive pericarditis
  • Pericardial tamponade

Kussmaul’s sign can occur with any condition limiting RV filling.

47
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus?

A

Exaggerated ↓ in SBP during inspiration (>10 mmHg)

This phenomenon suggests impaired diastolic filling.

48
Q

List 2 conditions commonly associated with pulsus paradoxus

A
  • Constrictive pericarditis
  • Pericardial tamponade

Both conditions can lead to this clinical finding.

49
Q

What is Beck’s Triad?

A

HoTN, JVD, muffled heart tones

This triad is indicative of acute cardiac tamponade.

50
Q

What is the best anesthetic technique for the patient with acute pericardial tamponade undergoing pericardiocentesis?

A

Local anesthesia preferred; if GETA, preserve myocardial function

Minimizing hemodynamic impact is crucial.

51
Q

List 7 patient factors that warrant antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis

A
  • Previous infective endocarditis
  • Prosthetic heart valve
  • Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease
  • Repaired congenital heart defect if <6mo old
  • Repaired CHD with residual defects
  • Heart transplant with valvuloplasty

These factors increase the risk of developing endocarditis.

52
Q

List 3 surgical procedures that warrant antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis

A
  • Dental procedures involving gingival manipulation
  • Respiratory procedures that perforate mucosal lining
  • Biopsy of infective lesions on skin or muscle

These procedures pose a risk of bacteremia.

53
Q

What are the 3 key determinants of flow through the LVOT?

A
  • Systolic LV volume
  • Force of LV contraction
  • Transmural pressure gradient

These determinants are critical for understanding cardiac output.

54
Q

What factors reduce CO in the patient with obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Anything that narrows the LVOT

Obstruction can significantly limit cardiac output.

55
Q

How long should elective surgery be delayed after percutaneous coronary intervention?

56
Q

What is the difference between alpha-stat and pH-stat blood gas measurement during CPB?

A

Alpha-stat does not correct for temp; pH-stat corrects for temp aiming to keep constant pH

This difference impacts outcomes in adults and pediatrics.

57
Q

Why is a left ventricular vent used during CABG surgery?

A

Removes blood from the LV

This vent helps prevent distention and improves surgical conditions.

58
Q

How does the IABP function throughout the cardiac cycle?

59
Q

What does the Alpha-stat management technique NOT correct for?

A

Temperature

Alpha-stat maintains intracellular charge neutrality across all temperatures and is associated with better outcomes in adults.

60
Q

What is the main goal of the pH-stat management technique?

A

Keep a constant pH across all temperatures

pH-stat corrects for patient temperature and is associated with better outcomes in pediatric patients.

61
Q

What is the purpose of using a left ventricular vent during CABG surgery?

A

Removes blood from the left ventricle

The blood comes from Thebesian veins and bronchial circulation (anatomical shunt).

62
Q

How does the IABP inflate during the cardiac cycle?

A

Inflates during diastole

This inflation helps perfuse the coronaries and correlates with the dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure wave.

63
Q

What happens during systole when the IABP deflates?

A

Decreases afterload and increases cardiac output

This deflation correlates with the R wave on ECG.

64
Q

What are the effects of IABP on myocardial oxygen supply and demand?

A

Increases myocardial O2 supply while decreasing myocardial O2 demand

This is beneficial for the patient.

65
Q

List four contraindications for the IABP.

A
  • Severe aortic insufficiency
  • Descending aortic disease
  • Severe peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
  • Sepsis
66
Q

What classification system describes aortic aneurysms?

A

Crawford classification system

This system categorizes aortic aneurysms based on their anatomical features.

67
Q

What are the two classification systems for aortic dissection?

A
  • DeBakey classification
  • Stanford classification
68
Q

Which law describes the relationship between aortic diameter and risk of aortic rupture in AAA?

A

Law of Laplace

This law states that wall tension equals transmural pressure times vessel radius.

69
Q

What is the threshold diameter for increased mortality risk in AAA?

A

> 5.5 cm

Surgical correction is recommended if the diameter increases by > 0.6-0.8 cm in a year.

70
Q

How does aortic cross-clamping contribute to the risk of anterior spinal artery syndrome?

A

X-clamping above the artery of Adamkiewicz may cause ischemia to the lower portion of the anterior spinal cord

This can lead to ASAS or Beck’s syndrome.

71
Q

What are the symptoms of anterior spinal artery syndrome (ASAS)?

A
  • Flaccid paralysis of lower extremities
  • Bowel and bladder dysfunction
  • Loss of temperature and pain sensation in lower extremities with preserved touch and proprioception
72
Q

What is amaurosis fugax?

A

Blindness in one eye

It is a sign of impending stroke caused by an embolus traveling from the internal carotid to the ophthalmic artery.

73
Q

What regional technique can be used for a carotid endarterectomy (CEA)?

A

Cervical plexus block or local infiltration

The levels that must be blocked are C2-C4.

74
Q

What reflex can be activated during CEA or following carotid balloon inflation?

A

Baroreceptor reflex

This is also known as the pressure reflex.

75
Q

What is the best treatment for a patient who develops a hematoma post-right CEA with complete airway obstruction?

A

Cricothyroidotomy

This should be performed if the surgeon is not available for an emergent decompression.