UNIT 2 ANS ✨ Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 classifications of receptors?

A

Ion channel, GPCR, Enzyme-linked receptor, Intracellular receptor

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2
Q

What is signal transduction?

A

The process by which a cell converts an extracellular signal into an intracellular response.

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3
Q

Describe the general architecture of the G protein second messenger system.

A

1st msgr = extracellular signal
Receptor = responds to extracellular signal
G protein = turn on or off an effector
Effector = activates or inhibits the 2nd msgr
2nd msgr = primary intracellular signal
Cellular response = causes a physiological change

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4
Q

What second messenger system is associated with the alpha-1 receptor?

A

Gq > PLC > IP3, DAG, Ca++

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5
Q

What other receptors share a similar pathway with the alpha-1 receptor?

A

Histamine-2, Muscarinic-1

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6
Q

What second messenger system is associated with the alpha-2 receptor?

A

Gi > AC > ATP 🡪 cAMP

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7
Q

What other receptors share a similar pathway with the alpha-2 receptor?

A

Muscarinic-2, Dopamine-2 (presynaptic)

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8
Q

What second messenger system is associated with the beta-1 and beta-2 receptors?

A

Gs > AC > ATP 🡪 cAMP

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9
Q

What other receptors share a similar pathway with beta-1 and beta-2 receptors?

A

Histamine-2, Vasopressin-2 (renal), Dopamine-1 (postsynaptic)

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10
Q

Describe the autonomic innervation of the heart.

A

SNS: cardiac accelerator fibers arise from T1-4
PNS: Vagus nerve (CN X)

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11
Q

Describe the autonomic innervation of the bronchial tree.

A

Beta-2 receptors are NOT innervated! They respond to catecholamines either in the systemic circulation or in airway (inhaled).

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12
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter of the SNS?

A

Norepinephrine (NE)

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13
Q

What are the 3 ways that NE can be removed from the synaptic cleft?

A
  • Reuptake – into presynaptic neuron (accounts for 80%)
  • Diffusion – away from synaptic cleft
  • Reuptake – by extraneural tissue
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14
Q

What enzymes metabolize NE and epi?

A
  • MAO – monoamine oxidase
  • COMT – catechol-O-methyltransferase
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15
Q

What is the final metabolic byproduct of NE and epi?

A

VMA (vanillylmandelic acid) or 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid

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16
Q

List the 3 types of cholinergic receptors.

A
  • Nicotinic-M (muscle)
  • Nicotinic-N (nerve)
  • Muscarinic
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17
Q

Where are Nicotinic-M receptors found?

A

Neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

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18
Q

Where are Nicotinic-N receptors found?

A
  • Preganglionic fibers at autonomic ganglia (SNS & PSNS)
  • CNS
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19
Q

Where are Muscarinic receptors found?

A

Postganglionic PNS fibers at effector organs and CNS

20
Q

What are the 5 components of the autonomic reflex arc?

21
Q

Compare and contrast the architecture of the SNS & PSNS efferent pathways.

A

Both have pre- and post-ganglionic nerve fibers.
PSNS: Long, myelinated, B-fiber (Ach); Short, unmyelinated, C-fiber (Ach).
SNS: Short, myelinated, B-fiber (Ach); Long, unmyelinated, C-fiber (NE).

22
Q

What is the origin of the efferent SNS pathways?

A

Thoracolumbar: T1-L3; cell bodies arise from the intermediolateral region of the SC.

23
Q

What is the origin of the efferent PNS pathway?

A

CranioSacral: CN 3, 7, 9, 10 and S2-4.

24
Q

Describe the innervation of the adrenal medulla.

A

No POST-ganglionic fibers; it is in direct communication with the bloodstream.

25
Q

What is the treatment approach for managing a patient with pheochromocytoma?

A

ALPHA BLOCK BEFORE BETA BLOCK!

26
Q

What is the transcellular K+ shift?

A

K+ 🡪 cells (ICF) = hypokalemia; K+ 🡪 ECF = hyperkalemia.

27
Q

Describe the anatomy & physiology of the baroreceptor reflex.

A

Regulates short-term BP control; if BP ↑ = reflex ↓ HR, contractility, & SVR… and vice versa.

28
Q

What is the primary determinant of cardiac output in the patient with a heart transplant?

A

Autonomic - intrinsic heart rate from the SA node.

29
Q

What drugs can be used to augment HR in the patient with heart transplant?

A

EPI, isoproterenol, glucagon.

30
Q

What are the anesthetic considerations for multiple system atrophy?

A

Autonomic dysfunction (orthostatic hypotension); treat hypotension with volume and direct acting sympathomimetics.

31
Q

What effects does low dose epinephrine have?

A

NON-selective BETA effects predominate; beta1 ↑ HR, contractility; beta2 vasodilation in skeletal muscle.

32
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of isoproterenol?

A

↑ HR, contractility; ↓ SVR, ↓ DBP = ↓ coronary perfusion pressure.

33
Q

List 4 clinical indications for isoproterenol.

A
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Cor pulmonale
  • Heart transplant pts
  • Chemical pacemaker for bradycardia unresponsive to atropine
34
Q

In what situations should ephedrine NOT be used to treat hypotension?

A
  • Heart transplant pts
  • Sepsis
  • Risk of HTN crisis in pts on MAOI
  • Conditions where ↑ HR or contractility is detrimental to hemodynamics.
35
Q

How does vasopressin increase BP?

A

V1 = intense vasoconstriction; V2 = ↑ intravascular volume by stimulating aquaporins.

36
Q

What is the best treatment for vasoplegic syndrome?

A

Vasopressin (0.5-1 units IVP f/b 0.03 u/min).

37
Q

List 6 drugs that are selective for the Beta1 receptor.

A
  • Atenolol
  • Acebutolol
  • Betaxolol
  • Bisoprolol
  • Esmolol
  • Metoprolol
38
Q

List 6 NON-selective beta antagonists.

A
  • Carvedilol
  • Labetalol
  • Nadolol
  • Pindolol
  • Propranolol
  • Timolol
39
Q

What is the primary site of metabolism of commonly used beta blockers?

40
Q

What are 2 exceptions for the primary site of metabolism for beta blockers?

A
  • Esmolol (RBC esterase’s)
  • Atenolol (kidneys)
41
Q

Which beta blockers have local anesthetic properties?

A

Propranolol and acebutolol.

42
Q

What is intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?

A

Beta blockers that exert a partial-agonist effect while blocking other agonists.

43
Q

List 3 alpha antagonists.

A
  • Phenoxybenzamine
  • Phentolamine
  • Prazosin
44
Q

What is the mechanism of action for phenoxybenzamine?

A

Long acting, non-selective, noncompetitive antagonist.

45
Q

What is the mechanism of action for phentolamine?

A

Short acting, non-selective, competitive antagonist.

46
Q

What is the mechanism of action for prazosin?

A

Selective, alpha-1 antagonist.