Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Internal Medicine > Unit 3 Assignments, Quizzes, and Drug suffixes > Flashcards

Unit 3 Assignments, Quizzes, and Drug suffixes Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following clinical manifestations is commonly seen in a person with diabetes?

A

All of the above
-Impaired cognitive function
-Infection
-Balance and gait abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When a person has hypoglycemia episode, what clinical manifestation he/she may have?

A

Tachycardia and shallow respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is TRUE about insulin resistance?

A

The endogenous insulin levels can be high during the diagnosis, and it may become low as the diabetes progress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is TRUE in a person with hyperglycemia?

A

High Ketones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What will be an ideal A1C target for a person with type 2 diabetes?

A

< 7.0%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is TRUE on diabetes?

A

Type 2 diabetes can develop at any age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following decreases blood glucose levels?

A

Insulin released by beta cells in the islet of Langerhans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If an individual has a fasting plasma glucose of 80 mg/dL, what can physical therapist infer from this information?

A

Normal fasting plasma glucose level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The National Institutes of Health clinical guidelines and the WHO define overweight in adults as a BMI equal to or greater than _______.

A

25 kg/m^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Prediabetes is diagnosed in people with an A1C greater than or equal to but less than or equal to ______.

A

5.7% ; 6.4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In children, BMI greater than or equal to the ______ percentile signifies risk for being obese.

A

95th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is metabolic syndrome?

A

All of the above
-Abdominal obesity and atherogenic dyslipidemia
-Elevated blood pressure and insulin resistance
-Prothrombotic and proinflammatory state of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is precipitating causes of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

All of the above
-Trauma
-Medications i.e., Beta blockers
-Pregnancy
-Inadequate insulin under stressful conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In the United States, about _______ have been diagnosed with diabetes.

A

1 in every 10 people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In diabetes, ________ causes dehydration, which causes thirst. Excessive thirst is called _______.

A

polyuria; polydipsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

According to the natural history of type 2 diabetes, which of the following complications may already exist when people are diagnosed with diabetes?

A

Macrovascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hulk checked his blood glucose levels two hours after eating a Chinese buffet last night. The glucometer showed 299 mg/dL. What would be the clinical indication from this information?

A

Hulk may have developed hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Releasing a series of multiple-function mediators, is involved in a wide spectrum of diseases, including not only cardiovascular and metabolic complications, such as atherosclerosis and type 2 diabetes, but also inflammatory- and immune-related disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis.

A

white fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which type of diabetes is an autoimmune type of diabetes that begins in middle to late adulthood, also referred to as latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA)?

A

Type 1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following diseases is considered a microvascular complication for diabetes?

A

Retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which region of the brain is the main integrative center for the endocrine and autonomic nervous systems, controls the function of endocrine organs by neural and hormonal pathways?

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following tissues can be classified as an endocrine gland?

A

Adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In response to the hypothalamus, the posterior pituitary secretes _____.

A

Oxytocin and ADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the basic action of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?

A

Stimulates secretory activity and synthesis of corticosteroids in adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The primary hormones produced by the thyroid are _______________.

A

thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following hormone’s basic action is calcium and phosphorus metabolism, construct bone, and reduce serum calcium?

A

Calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following disorders creates a generalized elevation of body metabolism, the effects of which are manifested in almost every system?

A

Hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Myxedema is the clinical manifestation of ____________.

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder caused by overactivity of one or more of the four parathyroid glands that _____________.

A

disrupts calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following medical diagnosis occurs because of a disorder within the adrenal gland itself, with insufficient cortisol release from the adrenal glands causing a wide range of problems?

A

Addison disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hypercortisolism resulting from adrenal gland oversecretion or from hyperphysiologic doses of corticosteroid medications is called _________.

A

Cushing syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following medical diagnosis occurs when an adrenal lesion results in hypersecretion of aldosterone, the most powerful of the mineralocorticoids?

A

Conn syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is the characteristic of hypoparathyroidism?

A

Decreased bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following hormones is essential to norepinephrine-induced vasoconstriction and other physiologic phenomena necessary for survival under stress?

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the hallmark of Addison disease?

A

Decreased serum cortisol levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

-prazole

A

Proton pump inhibitor

Used for gastric ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

-idine

A

Histamine H2-receptor blockers

Used for gastric ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

-amide

A

Oral antidiabetics (sulfonylurea group)

Antidiabetic (Type 2 Diabetes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

-dronate

A

Bisphosphonates

Used for Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Omeprazole, lansoprazole

A

Proton pump inhibitor

Used for gastric ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cimetidine, ranitidine

A

Histamine H2-receptor blockers

Used for gastric ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Chlorpropamide, tolbutamide

A

Oral antidiabetics (sulfonylurea group)

Antidiabetic (Type 2 Diabetes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Alendronate, pamidronate

A

Bisphosphonates

Used for Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of hyperthyroidism?

A

Increased bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What can be the medical diagnosis and symptoms of this patient?

A

Goiter; enlargement of the thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

This patient presents the signs and symptoms of Myxedema (nonpitting, boggy edema, especially around the eyes, hands, feet, and in the supraclavicular fossae). What can be her medical diagnosis?

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following can be a cause for Cushing disease?

A

An excess of corticosteroid medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is true for cortisol?

A

It is essential to norepinephrine-induced vasoconstriction and other physiologic phenomena necessary for survival under stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following lab (blood) tests is relevant to diagnose hyperthyroidism?

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Flexor tenosynovitis with stiffness can accompany carpal tunnel syndrome in persons with _______

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder caused by overactivity of one or more of the four parathyroid glands that ______

A

disrupts calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following is true?

A

All of the above
-Hyposecretion of human growth hormone results in dwarfism
-Hypersecretion of human growth hormone causes gigantism in children
-Hypersecretion of human growth hormone causes acromegaly in adults

53
Q

Decreased levels of thyroid hormone lead to an overall slowing of the basal metabolic rate. This slowing of the body processes leads to ______

A

All of the above
-Bradycardia
-Decreased GI tract motility
-Slowed neurologic functioning

54
Q

What is true about insulin resistance?

A

commonly being seen in people w/ Type 2 Diabetes

55
Q

Which of the following clinical manifestations is commonly seen in a person with diabetes?

A

Numbness of the limbs

56
Q

What clinical manifestation may a patient have if their blood glucose is 62 mg/dL?

A

Convulsion / coma

57
Q

What is the A1C recommendation for non-pregnant adults with diabetes?

A

Less than 7.0%

58
Q

Fat accumulated in the lower body (subcutaneous fat) results in a _____ figure, whereas fat in the abdominal area (visceral fat) produces more of an ______.

A

Pear-shaped, apple shape

59
Q

_______ is the branch of medicine concerned with the management of obesity.

A

Bariatrics

60
Q

Which of the following Islet cells produce insulin in the Pancreas?

A

Beta cells

61
Q

Prediabetes is diagnosed in people with a fasting plasma glucose greater than or equal to ____ but less than or equal to _____.

A

100 mg/dL ; 125 mg/dL

62
Q

In diabetes, _____ causes dehydration, which causes thirst. Excessive thirst is called _____.

A

Polyuria, polydipsia.

63
Q

How to manage diabetes?

A

All of the above
-work with a health professional
-Eat healthy
-Stay active

64
Q

The term _______ was often applied to opioid compounds because when taken, they tend to have sedative or sleep-inducing side effects, and high doses can produce a state of unresponsiveness and stupor.

A

Narcotic

65
Q

The source of the naturally occurring opioid (narcotic) analgesics is from

A

the opium poppy

66
Q

Opioid drugs exert their analgesics effects by binding to the same receptors as

A

endogenous opioids (endorphins, enkephalins)

67
Q

Morphine and many other powerful opioids exert their primary analgesic effects by binding to the ________

A

mu opioid receptor

68
Q

Drugs such as butorphanol, nalbuphine, and pentazocine may stimulate certain opioid receptors while blocking or only partially activating other receptors. These drugs _____

A

all the above are true
-may have fewer addictive qualities than strong opioids such as morphine
-may produce adequate analgesia with less risk of side effects such as respiratory depression
-may produce more psychotropic effects (hallucinations, vivid dreams) than other opioids
-are known as mixed agonist-antagonists

69
Q

By blocking all opioid receptors, opioid antagonists such as nalmefene and naloxone are used primarily to

A

treat opioid overdose

70
Q

Opioid drugs exert their effects on afferent pain pathways by binding to neuronal receptors that in turn

A

decrease transmitter release from presynaptic terminals

71
Q

Preliminary studies on animals suggest that opioids can exert analgesic effects when administered directly into peripheral tissues (e.g., injected into an inflamed joint) because

A

opioids may bind to receptors located on the distal (peripheral) ends of primary afferent (sensory) neurons.

72
Q

When used to treat pain, opioids can be administered by all the following routes EXCEPT

A

inhalation

73
Q

In addition to their use as analgesics, opioid drugs can also be administered

A

all the above are true
-to treat severe diarrhea
-as a preoperative medication
-as a general anesthetic
-as a cough suppressant

74
Q

Which of the following side effects is NOT associated with opioid drugs?

A

increased respiration

75
Q

Certain patients can develop “tolerance” to opioid analgesics, which is indicated by

A

the need to progressively increase the dosage of the drug to achieve a therapeutic effect when the drug is used for prolonged periods

76
Q

Methadone is often used to treat opioid addiction because methadone

A

has mild withdrawal symptoms

77
Q

The onset of withdrawal symptoms (body aches, shivering, sweating, and so forth) after sudden discontinuation of opioid analgesics is an example of

A

physical dependence

78
Q

Certain patients may fail to respond to opioids or may report increased pain (hyperalgesia) when given opioid drugs. This opioid-induced hyperalgesia is likely due to _____ in nociceptive pathways in susceptible patients.

A

increased activity of glutamate

79
Q

NSAIDs such as aspirin exhibit all of the following effects EXCEPT

A

the ability to increase bronchodilation in conditions such as asthma

80
Q

Aspirin and other NSAIDs exert their primary therapeutic effects by interfering with the biosynthesis of

A

prostaglandins

81
Q

Prostaglandins are

A

a group of lipidlike compounds that exhibit a wide range of physiological activities

82
Q

NSAIDs exert their therapeutic effects by _____ the ______ enzyme.

A

inhibiting; cyclooxygenase

83
Q

The _____ form of the cyclooxygenase enzyme seems to be responsible for producing beneficial prostaglandins that help maintain or protect function in specific tissues such as the stomach and kidneys.

A

COX-1

84
Q

In addition to its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects, it appears that regular use of low-dose aspirin may also help prevent

A

All the above are true
-colorectal cancer
-heart attacks
-ischemic strokes

85
Q

In theory, a COX-2 selective drug such as celecoxib will be less likely to cause gastric irritation because

A

COX-2 drugs do not inhibit the production of beneficial prostaglandins in the stomach.

86
Q

Aspirin ______ be used to treat fever in children because this drug may cause _____.

A

should not; Reye syndrome

87
Q

It has been suggested that aspirin and other NSAIDs _______ be used to treat pain following surgeries such as spinal fusion because these drugs may ______.

A

should not; inhibit bone healing

88
Q

Several COX-2 selective inhibitors such as rofecoxib (Vioxx) and valdecoxib (Bextra) have been taken off the market because these drugs can cause serious side effects such as

A

heart attack and stroke

89
Q

Gastric irritation caused by aspirin and other NSAIDs can be treated with

A

All the above
-Gastric proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) such as omeprazole (Prilosec) and esomeprazole (Nexium)
-Drugs that mimic prostaglandins (PGs) such as PGE1 (e.g., misoprostol [Cytotec])
-Histamine type 2 (H2) blockers such as cimetidine (Tagamet) and ranitidine (Zantac)

90
Q

Which of the following is a commonly encountered problem with the use of corticosteroids?

A

Hyperglycemia

91
Q

The lower GI tract includes the ________.

A

small and large intestines

92
Q

_______ occurs when nerve endings in the stomach and other parts of the body are irritated and usually precedes vomiting.

A

Nausea

93
Q

Which of the following is a gastrointestinal sign or symptom associated with strenuous exercise?

A

Abdominal cramping

94
Q

Which of the following is the most common neurogenic cause of diarrhea?

A

Hyperthyroidism

95
Q

Which of the following medications is a common cause of constipation?

A

-Diuretics and opioids
-Hydrocodone (semi-synethetic opioid)

96
Q

What drugs are the most common causes of reactive gastritis?

A

Aspirin and NSAID’s

97
Q

Which of the following is a failure to relax the smooth muscle fibers of the gastrointestinal tract?

A

Achalasia

98
Q

Which of the following is least likely to refer pain to the left shoulder?

A

Liver cancer

99
Q

What type of hiatal hernia is the most common?

A

Sliding

100
Q

What types of exercise would increase intraabdominal pressure?

A

All of the above
-lifting
-straining
-bending over

101
Q

One of the most common symptoms of a hiatal hernia is ________.

A

heartburn or reflux

102
Q

Which of the following exercises is contraindicated for an individual with a known hiatal hernia?

A

Any exercise that causes Valsalva in the supine position

103
Q

What is the common cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease?

A

All of the above
-Nicotine or cigarette smoke
-Peppermint, fatty foods, citrus products (including tomatoes), spicy foods, garlic, onions
-Carbonated drinks, alcohol and coffee
-Caffeine
-Pregnancy (last trimester)
-Calcium channel blockers
-Central nervous system depressants
-Sclerodema
-Estrogen Therapy

104
Q

What type of medication is used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease, blocks acid pumps and prevent stomach acid production?

A

Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)

105
Q

Which of the following is not considered an extraesophageal manifestation of gastroesophageal reflux disease?

A

Heartburn

106
Q

_______ occurs when the peptic ulcer erodes into adjacent organs such as the small bowel, pancreas, or liver.

A

Penetration

107
Q

_________ is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the mucosa of the colon, typically involving the rectum, which can then advance proximally in a continuous manner to involve the entire colon.

A

Ulcerative colitis

108
Q

In ulcerative colitis, intestinal lesions are usually found in which locations?

A

Rectum and left colon

109
Q

What is the most common extraintestinal finding in inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Arthritis

110
Q

What is the primary indication or desired effect of Omeprazole?

A

To treat gastric ulcers

111
Q

Which of the following is Bisphosphonates that can treat osteoporosis?

A

Alendronate

112
Q

What is the primary indication of proton pump inhibitors?

A

Gastric Ulcers

113
Q

Which of the following medications is a common cause of diarrhea?

A

Antibiotics

114
Q

The most common presenting symptoms of acute appendicitis occur in a classic sequence of abdominal pain over ________.

A

right lower quadrant

115
Q

Why is the stool normally brown?

A

Bile converted from bilirubin causes brown coloration of the stool

116
Q

What do light-colored stools and urine the color of tea or cola most likely indicate?

A

Liver dysfunction

117
Q

Which of the following is one of the most common signs and symptoms of hepatic disease?

A

Hepatic osteodystrophy

118
Q

What is the cause of jaundice?

A

Defects in bilirubin metabolism (in uptake by the liver or conjugation)

119
Q

Progressive loss of normal tissue that is replaced with fibrosis and nodular regeneration is a characteristic of ______.

A

Cirrhosis

120
Q

Bile helps in alkalinizing the intestinal contents and plays a role in the emulsification, absorption, and digestion of _____.

A

Fat

121
Q

What is the treatment of choice for tense ascites?

A

Paracentesis and diuretics

122
Q

What is the 5-year survival rate for compensated cirrhosis?

A

Greater than 90%

123
Q

Which of the following occur in association with jaundice?

A

Dark urine and light stools

124
Q

The liver is the major site of production proteins that are associated with _____.

A

acute inflammatory reactions

125
Q

Which of the following is associated with overproduction of bilirubin?

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

126
Q

What type of hepatitis virus currently has no vaccine available?

A

Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

127
Q

What is the most common cause of fulminant hepatitis?

A

Acetaminophen toxicity

128
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests are both for liver function?

A

Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

Internal Medicine (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions