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Internal Medicine > Unit 2 Assignments, Quizzes, and Drug Suffixes > Flashcards

Unit 2 Assignments, Quizzes, and Drug Suffixes Flashcards

1
Q

In what stage of cancer is the cancer usually localized to the primary organ?

A

Stage 1

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2
Q

A history of obesity or type 2 diabetes is a risk factor for which of the following cancers?

A

Colorectal, pancreatic, breast

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3
Q

_____ can be generated by translocations in which part of one gene moves to a different chromosome and recombines with another gene.

A

Fusion proteins

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4
Q

Approximately what percent of clients with newly diagnosed cancers have clinically detectable metastasis?

A

30%

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5
Q

What is the first level of dysplasia?

A

Metaplasia

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6
Q

What type of malignant tumor originates from adipose tissue?

A

Liposarcoma

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7
Q

Using the TNM staging system, what would be the grade if the cancer has no distant metastasis?

A

M 0

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8
Q

What gene appears to be the trigger of programmed cell death as a way of regulating uncontrolled cellular proliferation?

A

p53

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9
Q

Which of the following organs is the most likely location of primary metastasis of bone cancer?

A

Lungs

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10
Q

What are the most common of all metastatic tumors?

A

Lung

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11
Q

What is the primary indication of theophylline?

A

Bronchodilation

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12
Q

What is the drug class for albuterol?

A

Bronchodilators (adrenergic)

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13
Q

If a patient has a tumor in the pancreas, what would be the most common site of pain referral for this tumor?

A

Shoulder, midthoracic, or low back

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14
Q

Cells are most sensitive to radiation therapy in the _____ phase

A

G2

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15
Q

What is the last step in the mitotic cycle before cell division?

A

G2

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16
Q

Which chemotherapy agents bind to DNA and prevent DNA replication?

A

Alkylating agents

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17
Q

Tamoxifen in an antiestrogen hormonal agent is used in _____ to block estrogen receptors in tumor cells that require estrogen to thrive.

A

Breast cancer

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18
Q

Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs

A

bind to antigens on the surface of a particular type of cancer cells.

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19
Q

A relatively new strategy for treating certain tumors is to prevent the formation of new blood vessels, thus impairing tumor growth by starving the tumor of oxygen and nutrients. Drugs that use this strategy are known as ________.

A

angiogenesis inhibitors

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20
Q

Most cancer chemotherapy agents exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because

A

most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissues and cancerous cells.

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21
Q

Some of the newer cancer chemotherapy agents (e.g., cytokines) are called biological therapies or biological response modifiers because they

A

encourage the body’s immune system to fight cancerous cells.

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22
Q

The drug subclass of cytarabine is antimetabolites. What is the mechanism of action of cytarabine?

A

Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis

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23
Q

Which of the following healthcare professionals determines the delivery method and dosage of radiation therapy to be provided to a patient?

A

Radiation oncologist

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24
Q

Which of the following therapy options is considered as nonpharmacologic modality for cancer pain?

A

Relaxation training

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25
Q

Which of the following concepts describe the theory that each round of chemotherapy will affect a certain percentage of cancerous cells and the chemotherapeutic regimen can never completely eliminate the tumor?

A

Cell kill hypothesis

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26
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) is a serious complication of chemotherapy that has significant adverse effects on the _______.

A

Kidney

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27
Q

A 37-year-old female has breast cancer. She is receiving FAC chemotherapy: Fluorouracil, doxorubicin (Adriamycin), Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). (Please answer the following questions from 15-18) 15. What is the drug class of Fluorouracil?

A

Antimetabolites

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28
Q

What is the trade name of doxorubicin?

A

Adriamycin

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29
Q

What is the drug class of Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?

A

Alkylating agents

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30
Q

What are the common adverse effects of Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?

A

All of the above
-Blood disorders (anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia)
-GI distress (nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite)
-Bladder irritation; hair loss; cardiotoxicity; pulmonary toxicity

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31
Q

A 68-year-old man presents with a history of chronic cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray reveals a mass in the right lung. A biopsy confirms the diagnosis of non-small cell lung cancer.
Question:
Given the patient’s diagnosis, which of the following imaging studies would be most appropriate to stage the tumor and assess for metastasis?

A

Positron emission tomography (PET) scan

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32
Q

Follow-up Case:
The patient in the previous case receives chemotherapy, which includes a combination of agents such as doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine (ABVD).
Question:
To help the patient recover from chemotherapy-induced neutropenia, which of the following medications might the physician consider?

A

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

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33
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor of cancer?

A

Advancing age, gender, occupation
(all of the above)

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34
Q

What type of malignant tumor originates from cartilage?

A

Chondrosarcoma

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35
Q

Which of the following organs is the most likely location of primary metastasis of colorectal cancer via blood?

A

Liver

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36
Q

_______ also called cancer-causing genes, have the ability to transform normal cells into malignant cells, independently or incorporated with a virus and there are more than 100 of them that have been identified

A

Oncogenes

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37
Q

Using the TNM staging system, what would be the grade if the cancer has increasing degrees of involvement of regional lymph nodes?

A

N1

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38
Q

Which of the following medications is a bronchodilator?

A

Pirbuterol

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39
Q

Which of the following cells can recognize different types of tumor antigens?

A

T cells

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40
Q

Which of the following is a common tumor evasion strategy?

A

-Antigenic modulation
-Induction of immune suppression
-Loss of immunogenicity

(all of the above)

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41
Q

In what stage of cancer is it described that there is an increased risk of spread because of tumor size?

A

Stage II

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42
Q

Which of the following is a secondary prevention of cancer?

A

Pap test of cervix

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43
Q

Which of the following tests are useful for early detection and staging of tumors?

A

-CT scan and MRI
-Tissue biopsy
-Laboratory values

(all of the above)

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44
Q

In the mitotic phase, when are cells most susceptible to chemotherapy?

A

Synthesis and mitosis

45
Q

Which of the following is true for irradiation therapy (radiotherapy)?

A

It can be used preoperatively to shrink a tumor, making it operable, while preventing further spread of the disease

46
Q

Which class of chemotherapy agents disrupts cellular mitosis by inhibiting microtubule assembly or disassembly?

A

Microtubule targeting agents

47
Q

Bevacizumab (Avastin) is approved by the FDA to treat cancer. It binds and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) to prevent the formation of new blood vessels, thus impairing cancer growth by starving the tissue of oxygen and nutrients. What drug class is Bevacizumab (Avastin)?

A

Angiogenesis inhibitor

48
Q

Which of the following is true for myelosuppression after chemotherapy?

A

Patient may easily get infected due to fewer white blood cells

49
Q

Which of the following is an adverse effect of chemotherapy?

A

-fatigue
-pulmonary toxicity
-renal toxicity (nephrotoxicity)

(all of the above)

50
Q

What can be the cause of cancer related fatigue?

A

Emotional distress

51
Q

When tumors produce signs + symptoms at a site distant from the tumor or its metastasized sites, these remote effects of malignancy are collectively referred to as _______.

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes

52
Q

Which of the following are large granular lymphocyte cells that do not express antigen-specific receptors?

A

Natural Killer cells

53
Q

Which of the following membrane proteins function to present antigenetic peptides for recognition by T cells?

A

Major histocompatibility complex molecules

54
Q

What type of immunity used by the body adapts to recognize, eliminate, and establish long-term memory against a threat?

A

Acquired immunity

55
Q

Which of the following is an example of active artificial acquired immunity?

A

Vaccination

56
Q

Which of the following cells live the longest?

A

Monocytes

57
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the predominant immunoglobulin on mucus membrane surfaces and is found in secretions such as saliva, breast milk, urine, and tears?

A

IgA

58
Q

What type of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule combines fragments of proteins that have been phagocytized, pinocytosed, or endocytosed from the extracellular environment?

A

MHC class II

59
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the humoral immune response?

A

Urine

60
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for antibodies?

A

The fragment antigen-binding (Fab fragment) is the portion of an antibody that binds to antigens.

61
Q

Which of the following is called CD8+ T cells?

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

62
Q

Which phase of the immune response is characterized by the removal of antigens by many different mechanisms?

A

Effector phase

63
Q

After intense exercise of long duration, the concentration of natural killer cells and natural cytolytic activity decline below preexercise values. Maximal reduction in natural killer cell concentrations and lower natural killer cell activity occur _____ hours after exercise.

A

2 to 4 hours

64
Q

When HIV enters the body, what cells serve as receptors for the HIV retrovirus, allowing direct passage of the infection into other target cells?

A

CD4 cells and macrophages

65
Q

At what stage will an individual with HIV disease develop Kaposi sarcoma?

A

Advanced HIV disease

66
Q

Which of the following is true when describing the factors affecting the immunocompromised person?

A

Reusable equipment can be one of the common reservoirs

67
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is characterized by a delayed response to the allergen?

A

Type IV (Cell-Mediated Immunity) Hypersensitivity

68
Q

What type of immunologic hypersensitivity would cause the symptoms of seasonal allergic rhinitis?

A

Type I (IgE-mediated or Immediate Type) Hypersensitivity

69
Q

Which of following is true for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

A

Mild symptoms can be managed with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs to relieve muscle and joint pain while reducing tissue inflammation

70
Q

Which of the following is the avenue for HIV transmission?

A

-Sexual activity (anal, vaginal, very rarely oral)
-Maternal to child (either through pregnancy, during delivery, or breastfeeding)
-Contaminated blood
All the above

71
Q

CD4+ T cells produce different cytokines that modulate the immune system and help it to mount effective responses against foreign invaders. Which of the following is NOT the primary functions of CD4+ T cells?

A

Producing antibodies

72
Q

In human defense mechanisms, which of the following acts as the body’s first line of defense?

A

Neutrophils

73
Q

What type of cell development begins with a progenitor cell from the bone marrow and migrates to the thymus gland, which is a primary lymphoid organ?

A

T Cell

74
Q

Which phase of the immune response is characterized by generation of long-lived T and B lymphocytes?

A

Memory phase

75
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the first secreted antibody and is predominant in a primary or initial immune response?

A

IgM

76
Q

What type of immunologic hypersensitivity is characterized by releasing histamine?

A

Type I (IgE-mediated or Immediate Type) Hypersensitive

77
Q

What type of immunologic hypersensitivity would cause systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

Type III (Immune complex mediated) Hypersensitivity

78
Q

Which of the following is true when describing the factors affecting the immunocompromised person?

A

Invasive devices are reservoirs

79
Q

In immunology, the term _____ refers to a lack of recognition and responsiveness to one’s own tissue antigens

A

Self-tolerance

80
Q

Which of the following is called CD4+ T cells?

A

Helper T Lymphocytes

81
Q

Which of the following symptoms will be affected by HIV?

A

-Integumentary
-Cardiopulmonary
-Neuromuscular
(all of the above)

82
Q

Which of the following belongs to the second line of defense?

A

inflammatory response

83
Q

________ refers to the emergence of HIV antibodies in the bloodstream (i.e. the person becomes positive for HIV antibodies) and usually takes place 3 to 6 weeks after infection.

A

seroconversion

84
Q

-azole

A

Azole antifungals

Used for fungal infections

85
Q

-avir

A

HIV Protease inhibitors

Used for HIV infections

86
Q

-cillin

A

Penicillin antibiotics

Used for bacterial infections

87
Q

-cycline

A

Tetracycline antibiotics

Used for bacterial infection

88
Q

-micin or -mycin

A

Various other antibacterials

89
Q

What is the term for the period of time between when the pathogen enters the host and the appearance of clinical symptoms?

A

Incubation period

90
Q

____ are primarily animal pathogens that generally produce disease in humans through the bite of an insect vector

A

Rickettsiae

91
Q

Which of the following is an example of an airborne disease?

A

Measles

92
Q

______ are unusual self-replicating bacteria that have no cell wall components and very small genomes.

A

Mycoplasmas

93
Q

What size of disease-causing organism would be most likely to be transmitted through the air?

A

4 um (micrometers)

94
Q

Which of the following precautions do not require a patient to have a private room?

A

Standard precautions

95
Q

What vaccine is recommended for all adults with a booster every 10 years?

A

Tetanus and diphtheria

96
Q

What is the recommendation for work restrictions in an individual who has active measles?

A

Exclude from duty

97
Q

What is the duration of an uncomplicated case of influenza type A or B?

A

3 to 7 days

98
Q

Antibacterial drugs work by all of the following mechanisms except inhibition of _____

A

bacterial intracellular calcium release

99
Q

Penicillin, cephalosporins, and several other commonly used antibacterial drugs exert their antibacterial effects by inhibiting the function of ______, which results in impaired production of ______ that are essential for normal membrane structure and function.

A

penicillin-binding proteins; peptidoglycans

100
Q

Aminoglycosides, erythromycin, the tetracyclines, and several other antibacterial drugs affect the function of the bacterial _______, thereby impairing______ in the bacterial cell.

A

ribosome; messenger RNA translation

101
Q

Certain antibacterial drugs such as trimethoprim and the sulfonamide drugs (e.g., sulfadiazine, sulfamethoxazole) selectively inhibit the synthesis and function of nucleic acids and certain essential amino acids by impairing the production of ______ in bacterial cells.

A

folic acid

102
Q

Bacteria can become resistant to antibacterial drugs by ____

A

-developing enzymes that destroy the drug
-modifying or masking the site where the antibacterial drug typically binds on or within the bacterial cell
-modifying the bacterial enzymes normally targeted by the drug
-developing drug efflux pumps that expel the drug from the bacterial cell

(all the above are true)

103
Q

Viral infections are often more difficult to treat than other types of infections because ____

A

viruses penetrate into human cells, and cannot be easily killed without harming the human cell

104
Q

Certain anti-HIV drugs (e.g., zidovudine, didanosine, and zalcitabine) are known as reverse transcriptase inhibitors because they ______

A

inhibit transcription of viral RNA to viral DNA

105
Q

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine, didanosine, and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as ____

A

-peripheral neuropathy
-myopathy
-joint pain

(all the above are true)

106
Q

Interferons are small proteins that

A

-exert nonspecific antiviral activity
-control cell differentiation
-limit excessive cell proliferation
-modify certain immune processes

(all the above are true)

107
Q

Which of the following medications is an antibiotic?

A

Ampicillin

108
Q

What is the drug class of Doxycycline?

A

Tetracycline antibiotics

Internal Medicine (3 decks)

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