Unit 3: Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards
1
Q
-Supports surrounding tissues by providing a rigid framework within the body
-Assists in body movement by providing the site for muscle attachment
-Protects the vital internal organs and other soft tissues
-Makes the red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC) within the marrow of some of the bones
-Stores mineral salts, especially phosphorous and calcium salts
A
functions of the skeletal system
2
Q
What makes up the axial skeleton?
A
the skull, the hyoid bones (supports the larynx), the sternum, the 12 pairs of ribs, and the vertebrae
3
Q
What makes up the appendicular skeleton?
A
The arms and legs
4
Q
Which bones form the shoulder girdle?
A
The clavicle (collarbone) and the scapula (shoulder blade)
5
Q
What makes the actual connection between a contracting muscle and a moving bone?
A
Tendons
6
Q
Where is yellow marrow found?
A
medullary cavity in the shaft of long bones
7
Q
Where is red bone marrow found?
A
spongy bone of long bones and in the diploë (spongy bone) of flat bones
8
Q
The bone is broken, but does not protrude through the skin. This is
also known as a closed fracture
A
Simple fracture
9
Q
The broken bone does protrude through the skin. This is also
known as an open fracture
A
Compound fracture
10
Q
Exists when many small pieces and bone chips have been created
A
Comminuted fracture
11
Q
Results from tremendous forces that cause the bone to telescope
within itself
A
Compression fracture
12
Q
What is the first major stage in the healing process of a facture?
A
A hematoma (mass of clotting blood) forms at the facture site
13
Q
What is the second major stage in the healing process of a facture?
A
Fibrocartilaginous callus forms
14
Q
What is the third major stage in the healing process of a facture?
A
Bony callus forms
15
Q
What is the fourth major stage in the healing process of a facture?
A
Bone remodeling occurs
16
Q
- Moves the whole body and its appendages
- Moves blood throughout the body
- Moves food through the digestive tract
- Moves urine through the urinary tract.
- Enables us to breathe
A
functions of the muscular system
17
Q
Is the fixed or stationary attachment of the muscle to the skeleton
A
origin
18
Q
Is the large, fleshy prominence that forms the bulk of the muscles
A
belly
19
Q
Is the point on which the action of the muscle is applied, resulting
in motion
A
insertion
20
Q
What is the microscopic method of contraction involving the proteins actin and myosin called?
A
The sliding filament mechanism
21
Q
What causes the darker meat in animals, especially the meat of working muscles?
A
High myoglobin content
22
Q
What is another name for serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase?
A
Aspartate amino transferase
23
Q
What is it called for the process of increasing both the size and number of muscle fibers?
A
hypertrophy
24
Q
Wasting away of the muscle
A
atrophy
25
What are the two causes of muscle atrophy?
Loss of nerve supply to the muscle and lack of use
26
This type of atrophy occurs when the muscle is not used
disuse atrophy
27
What causes trichinosis
eating meat containing infective trichinella cysts
28
A disease affecting muscles of both animals and man
trichinosis
29
Besides transporting gases, hormones, nutrients, and waste products, what is another function of the circulatory system?
To help regulate body temperature
30
The top layer is called ____, which is the least dense component and is made up of 55 percent of whole blood
plasma
31
Is a thin, whitish layer that contains the leukocytes and platelets and makes up of less than one percent of whole blood
buffy coat
32
It is the densest component and makes up about 45 percent of whole blood
erythrocytes
33
what part of the blood has functions including: dissolving food and salts, dissolving waste that cells must get rid of, and dissolving hormones and other regulatory chemicals that help control the cells’ activities
plasma
34
What components make up the formed elements of blood?
platelets
erythrocytes
leukocytes
35
Which type of blood cells make up 99 percent of the total number of cells in the blood?
Red blood cells
36
What are the five different types of leukocytes?
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
37
Are our body’s bacteria slayers; function is to phagocytize (devour) bacteria such as meningitis and appendicitis
Neutrophils
38
Kill parasitic worms, also play a complex role in allergy and asthma related diseases
Eosinophils
39
Release histamines and other mediators of inflammation
Basophils
40
Mount immune response by direct cell attack or via antibodies
Lymphocytes
41
Phagocytic and crucial in the body’s defense against viruses, intracellular bacterial parasites, and chronic infections such as tuberculosis
Monocytes
42
What is the condition of having an insufficient number of RBC called?
Anemia
43
A person having blood containing A antigens and anti-B antibodies has which blood type?
Type A
44
A person having blood containing B antigens and anti-A antibodies has which blood type?
Type B
45
A person having blood containing both A and B antigens
but no antibodies has which blood type?
Type AB
46
A person having blood containing no antigens, but both
anti-A and anti-B antibodies has which blood type?
Type O
47
What is the name of the membranous sac that surrounds the heart?
The pericardium
48
Which portion of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs?
Left atrium
49
Which blood vessel carries blood away from the heart toward the capillaries?
arteries
50
Which blood vessel carries blood toward the heart and away from the capillaries?
ventricles
51
What is the condition called where there is an insufficient volume of blood to meet the needs of the body?
Circulatory shock
52
What are the bones in the nose called that twist and turn the air as it enters?
Turbinates
53
What emergency procedures could be performed in the event of upper airway obstruction?
Cricothyrotomy or tracheotomy
54
What carries air into the chest cavity?
Trachea or windpipe
55
What is the name of the muscle separating the abdominal and thoracic cavities that creates breathing?
Diaphragm
56
What is the condition called where no air goes into or out of the lungs due to a penetrating chest wound?
Pneumothorax
57
What is the medical terminology for “dry-land drowning?”
Pulmonary edema
58
Is caused by a variety of agents including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and chemicals. As WBCs and fluids accumulate in the lungs, gas exchange is impaired
Pneumonia
59
An allergic response causing a narrowing of the small airways making it difficult to move air in and out
Asthma
60
The destruction of lung tissue and the blockage of small bronchioles make less lung tissue available for gas exchange and increase the labor of breathing
Emphysema
61
What are the three functions of the digestive tract?
Breakdown (mechanical and chemical)
Absorption
Elimination of wastes
62
What are the two main elements of the digestive system?
The alimentary canal
The accessory glands
63
How is food moved through the digestive tract to the stomach?
Gravity and muscular contractions
64
What are the finger-like protrusions called that line the small intestine?
Villi
65
Which portion of the digestive tract serves to store fecal material until expelled?
The large intestine
66
What salivary glands are the primary targets for the mumps virus?
The parotid salivary glands
67
Which organ produces blood clotting factors and detoxifies certain chemicals?
The liver
68
Which organ secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine through small ducts, function in the digestion process by breaking down all three major nutrient groups, proteins, carbohydrates, and fats
pancreas
69
Which organ is a small pear-shaped reservoir located between two lobes of the liver, stores concentrated bile and releases it when it is needed to digest a high fat meal
gallbladder
70
High levels of bilirubin in the bloodstream cause what condition?
Jaundice
71
What makes up the urinary system?
two kidneys
two ureters
a bladder
a urethra
72
How much urine leaves the kidney from 125 ml of filtrate production?
1 ml
73
What is indicated when the kidneys are forming very concentrated urine?
The body is dehydrated
74
What is the external pendulous sac that contains the epididymis?
Scrotum
75
A tube-like structure extending from the bladder to the external meatus (opening) of the penis
Urethra
76
The first part of a long duct or tube leaving the testes
Epididymis
77
A gland that secretes nutrients for sperm
Seminal vesicles
78
A doughnut-shaped gland that lies below the bladder
Prostate
79
What is the function of the epididymis?
Final maturation and storage of sperm
80
What is the primary male hormone?
Testosterone
81
What are some examples of secondary male characteristics?
Facial hair
Deepening voice
Increased musculature
82
How many chromosomes do spermatids have?
23
83
A collapsed muscular tube. It is capable of tremendous amount of expansion during the birthing process
Vagina
84
A fibrous tube between the vagina and uterus
Cervix
85
A muscular organ with a glandular inner lining
Nourishes the implanted embryo during pregnancy
Uterus
86
If sperm are present in the ____ ____, fertilization occurs and the fertilized ovum travel into the uterus for implantation
fallopian tubes
87
Which structures produce female hormones estrogen and progesterone?
Ovaries
88
Which female hormone is responsible for repairing the uterine lining after menstruation?
Estrogen
89
Which female hormone is important in preparing the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum and in maintaining pregnancy
Progesterone
90
The maturing of oogonia by a series of cell divisions into a mature ovum
oogenesis
91
How long can the sperm cells survive in the female tract and fertilize the egg?
From 24 to 72 hours
92
A substance that causes physical defects in the developing embryo
Teratogen
93
Disrupt the cell’s DNA resulting in a genetic defect
These defects may be inherited by future generations
Mutagens
94
Which substances is capable of causing cancer
Carcinogens
95
Which substances reduce the number of sperm or ova?
Gametotoxins
96
What term refers to the physical changes that can be measured and occur in a steady and orderly manner
growth
97
What term relates to changes in psychological and social functioning
development
98
During which stage of life does the development of stable sleep patterns occur?
Infant
99
During which stage of life does rapid physical, psychological, and social development occur?
Infant
100
During which infant month can they hold their head up while lying on their stomach?
1
101
During which infant month can they smile and follow objects with their eyes?
2
102
During which infant month can they raise their head and shoulders while lying on their stomachs, sit for a short time, and hold an object in their hand
3
103
During which infant month can they roll over, sit up when supported, and may sleep all night, hold objects with both hands, puts objects in the mouth, and babbles when spoken to
4
104
During which infant month can they grasp objects and play with their toes. Teeth begin to erupt.
5
105
During which infant month can they hold a bottle for feeding and can sit alone for short periods of time, manipulate small objects
and vocalize one syllable sounds
Usually have two lower front teeth and begin to chew finger food
6
106
During which infant month can they respond to their name and begin to show a fear of strangers. Can transfer objects from one hand to another. Begin to imitate simple acts and sounds
Upper teeth begin to erupt
7
107
During which infant month can they stand while holding onto something, respond to the word “no,” and cry when scolded. Can feed themselves finger food and reach with open arms to be picked
up
8
108
During which infant month can they crawl and pull to a standing position. Comply with simple verbal commands and can communicate with hand gestures (such as waving). Show a fear of being left alone, which may be evident when going to bed
9
109
During which infant month can they walk while holding onto objects, will look under objects for a toy, and can pull into a sitting position. Are also aware of their own names by this age
10
110
During which infant month can they stand momentarily and can play interactive games using body language. Can also communicate disapproval by shaking their head “no.”
11
111
During which infant month can they begin to walk with help and can hold a cup for drinking. Demonstrates emotions such as anger and affection, and cling to parents in unfamiliar situations
12
112
During which stage of life does the rate of development increase dramatically
Toddler
113
What ages are included in the toddler stage?
1 to 3 years
114
This stage of life is characterized by less physical growth, both gross and fine motor skills are fairly well developed, shows increased independence and intellectual development
Preschool
115
What ages are included in the preschool stage?
3 to 6 years
116
Physical growth during this stage is rapid. School is the greatest event that takes place during this stage
Middle childhood
117
What ages are included in the middle childhood stage?
6 to 8 years
118
What ages are included in the late childhood stage?
9 to 12 years
119
During late childhood, how many words are children capable of understanding?
50,000
120
What ages are included in the adolescent stage?
12 to 20 years
121
What ages are included in the young adult stage?
20 to 40 years
122
At which stage of life does physical deterioration start?
Young adult, after 30
123
What ages are included in the middle adult stage?
40 to 65 years
124
During which stage of life do people often look back at the goals they have accomplished so far?
Middle adult
125
What ages are included in the late adult stage?
65 years and older
126
What process controls the secretion of hormones?
Negative feedback
127
Which organ produces growth hormone?
The pituitary gland
128
Which hormone controls the secretion of thyroxine from the thyroid gland?
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
129
Which hormone promotes mammary gland development and milk production in the female?
Prolactin
130
Which hormone influences the adrenal glands?
Corticotropin
131
Which hormones both influence the reproductive organs in the male and the female?
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
132
Which hormone controls the amount of water excreted by the kidney into the urine?
Antidiuretic hormone
133
Which hormone promotes milk let down and uterine contractions?
Oxytocin
134
Which hormone causes growth of all body tissues?
Growth hormone
135
What disease is characterized by the swelling of the thyroid gland and can result from a dietary deficiency of iodine?
goiter
136
What is the condition that produces too much thyroxine, where the person becomes excitable, nervous, exhibits a rapid pulse, and in some cases the eyes protrude slightly?
Hyperthyroidism
137
What is the condition that produces too little thyroxine, where the person always feels cold, has no energy, and is mentally sluggish?
Hypothyroidism
138
Which organ produces epinephrine?
Adrenal glands
139
What layer of the adrenal glands is absolutely essential to life? Its
secretions influence salt absorption by the kidneys and the metabolism of sugars
Outer layer (cortex)
140
What layer of the adrenal glands produces epinephrine and norepinephrine?
Inner layer (adrenal medulla)
141
Which hormone in males controls secretion of the male hormone testosterone?
Luteinizing hormone
142
Which hormone in females causes the development of the
secondary sex characteristics at puberty?
Estrogen
143
Which hormone in females is necessary for implantation and to
maintain the state of pregnancy during fetal development?
Progesterone
144
Which hormone secreted from the pancreas enables the tissues of the body to metabolize sugar circulating in the bloodstream; thus lowering blood sugar levels?
Insulin
145
Which hormone secreted from the pancreas increases
blood sugar levels when they are too low?
Glucagon
146
What are the three main functions of the nervous system?
sensory input
integration
motor output
147
Which structure of a neuron carries impulses away from the cell body?
Axons
148
Which structure of a neuron carries impulses toward the the cell body?
Dendrites
149
What are the three types of neurons?
Sensory
Motor
Interneurons
150
What are the two divisions of the nervous system?
Central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system
151
What are the two parts to the central nervous system?
Brain and spinal cord
152
Name the four lobes in the cerebrum
Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Occipital
153
What is a multilayered protective membranous covering around the spinal cord underneath the bony protection?
The meninges
154
Which division of the PNS is responsible to provide input from
the body into the CNS?
Sensory division
155
Which division of the PNS carries impulses to a muscle or gland?
Motor division
156
Which division of the motor division is responsible for conducting impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscles; it is often referred to as the voluntary nervous system?
Somatic nervous system
157
Which division of the motor division is responsible for conducting impulses from the CNS to cardiac and smooth muscles and the glands; it is often referred to as the involuntary nervous system?
Autonomic nervous system
158
The autonomic nervous system is broken down into what two divisions?
sympathetic (fight or flight responses)
parasympathetic nervous system (rest and digest)
159
Which chemical crosses the synapse of a neuron to enable an electrical impulse to move from one neuron to the next?
Acetylcholine
160
Which substance stops the chemical stimulation action in the neuron?
Acetylcholine esterase
161
What are the four main functions of the skin?
(1) Sensation
(2) Protection
(3) Secretion (sebum and sweat)
(4) Temperature regulation.
162
Under very hot conditions, how much sweat can a person lose?
Up to 4 liters per hour
163
What term is used for inflammation of the skin?
Dermatitis
164
What term is used for swelling?
Induration
165
What term is used for reddening of the skin?
erythema
166
What term is used for a blister filled with pus?
Pustule
167
What term is used for an erosion of the skin surface?
Ulcer
168
What term is used for a reddened, flat spot on the skin?
Macule
169
What term is used for a blister or elevation filled with fluid, not pus?
vesicle
170
What term is used when the reddened, solid elevation of the skin occurs?
a papule
171
What term is used to describe a very narrow frequency band within the electromagnetic spectrum?
Visible light
172
What is the white protective layer on the outside of the eyeball called?
The sclera
173
What is the clear protective layer on the front of the eyeball?
The cornea
174
Which portion of the eye contains the receptor cells known as rods and cones?
The retina
175
What is another name for nearsightedness?
Myopia
176
Which type of lens is used to correct nearsightedness?
A biconcave lens
177
What is another name for farsightedness?
Hyperopia
178
Which type of lens is used to correct farsightedness?
A biconvex lens
179
What eye condition consist of a cornea or lens that is not evenly curved?
Astigmatism
180
What can be a corrective action for cataracts?
Removing the clouded lens
181
What term is used for immunity dependent on some special anatomical or physiological property of an animal species rather than a specific antibody
Natural Resistance
182
What are white blood cells called that engulf foreign substances?
Phagocytes
183
Give three examples of anatomic natural defense mechanisms
(1) Physical barrier of the skin
(2) Phagocytes
(3) Sweeping action of the cilia in the respiratory tract
184
Give three examples of chemical natural defense mechanisms
(1) Lysozyme (enzyme)
(2) Interferon (antiviral agent)
(3) High acid content of stomach fluids
185
When does acquired immunity occur?
Develops before birth and throughout the lifetime of the individual
186
In naturally acquired passive immunity, how does the fetus acquire antibodies from its mother?
Across the placental barrier and through the mother’s milk
187
Why is passive immunity especially important to the newborn?
The newborn is incapable of producing antibodies of its own for a few months after birth
188
Why are passive immunizations used in conjunction with active immunizations?
For immediate temporary protection against diseases such as rabies and hepatitis B until the body can produce its own antibodies
189
Which type of immunity is where the body actively produces antibodies in response to an exposure of an agent
active immunity
190
Which type of immunity is the result of a natural infection?
Naturally acquired active immunity
191
Give two examples of diseases that produce a short-lived immunity and two examples of those producing life-long immunity
Influenza and gonorrhea = short-lived immunity
Smallpox, mumps, measles, and chickenpox = life-long immunity
192
Name three diseases that can be diagnosed by serology
Any three of the following:
(1) Syphilis.
(2) Hepatitis A or B.
(3) Rubella.
(4) Rubeola
193
Define antibody titer
It is the antibody level
194
What happens to the antibody titer in response to infection?
The titer rises or reaches a specific level
195
What two patterns of an antibody titer are characteristic of active infection?
An increase in titer over a period of weeks or a single sample that is a very high titer
196
What is an antigen?
Any foreign substance that stimulates the body to produce an immune response
197
What is a synonym for antibody?
Immunoglobulin
198
What are the five identified classes of immunoglobulin?
(1) IgG
(2) IgM
(3) IgA
(4) IgD
(5) IgE
199
Most antibody activity in human serum is due to what three classes of immunoglobulin?
IgG, IgM, and IgA
200
On the first contact with a particular antigen, what antibody is mainly produced?
IgM
201
On a second or subsequent contact with an antigen, what antibody usually predominates?
IgG
202
Which antibody crosses the placenta and is responsible for protection of the newborn?
IgG
203
Which immunoglobulin is the primary responder to entry of pathogens through the respiratory or gastrointestinal tracts?
IgA
204
Which two classes of immunoglobulin are found in minute quantities in the serum?
IgD and IgE
205
Lymphocytes develop into what two types of cells?
B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes (B- and T-cells)
206
The B-lymphocyte can further differentiate into what two types of cells?
Plasma or memory cells
207
What does a B-lymphocyte produce in response to an antigen?
Antibodies
208
Cellular immunity is the basis of which type of cell?
T-cell
209
Which cell is destroyed by the human immunodeficiency virus?
T helper cell
210
Which cell is involved in the tuberculosis skin test positive reaction?
T-cell
211
What are the structures of the lymphatic system?
Lymph capillaries
Lymph vessels
Lymph nodes
Lymphatic ducts
