Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

critical care > unit 3 > Flashcards

unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

med to help convert out of afib

A

amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Transcutaneous pacing uses _____ milliamperes than transvenous or epicardial pacing

A

higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

normal QRS interval

A

.04-.12 second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

10 symptoms of decreased cardiac output

A 
LOC change
Chest discomfort
Hypotension
Shortness of breath; respiratory distress
Pulmonary congestion; crackles 
Rapid, slow, or weak pulse
Dizziness
Syncope
Fatigue
Restlessness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ECG where:

Rate: greater than 150

Rhythm: regular

P-wave: P waves and T waves are fused together

PR interval: indeterminate

QRS: narrow and normal

A

supraventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ECG where:

Rate:100-150 beats/minute

Rhythm:Regular

P-wave:Upright, rounded, smooth, 1 for each QRS complex, all look similar in size and shape

PR interval: 0.12-0.20 seconds

QRS:0.04-0.12 seconds
All QRS complexes look similar in size and shape

A

Sinus Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 medications for Anticoagulants

A

Heparin

Coumadin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

let patient with pacemaker know that these 4 things could be complications

A

hiccuping
dizziness
fatigue
low radial pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ECG where:

Rate: not discernible.

Rhythm: not discernible.

P-wave: none

PR interval: none

QRS: none

A

Ventricular Fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

for treatment of asystole what 2 things would you do

A

CPR
epinephrine

(dfib will not work)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ECG where:

Rate: absent.

Rhythm: absent.

P-wave: absent

PR interval: absent

QRS: absent.

A

Asystole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

for treatment of V tach with NO PULSE and V fib what 3 things would you do

A

CPR
defibrilator
epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Strong Current indicated for Pulseless Rhythms

A

External Defibrillators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

for treatment of V tach with a pulse

first you would give ____________

if that doesnt work, next you would do _________

A

amiodarone IVP
lidocane IVP

cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

3 things before Cardioversion

A

Obtain consent
Give sedation
Anticoagulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

4 complications after Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)

A

Dysrhythmias
Sudden death
Heart failure
Cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Includes stable angina, unstable angina or acute myocardial infarction

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

irregular, QRS wider than normal and no Pwave

A

PVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

every big box is ____ of a second on a ECG

A

.2 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ST depressed is a sign of

A

cardiac ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

– obtain a 6-second strip and count the R waves; then multiply by 10

to determine _____

A

HR

Ventricular Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery

Minimally invasive direct coronary artery bypass (MIDCAB) surgery

Transmyocardial revascularization (TMR)

3 surgical treatments for ___

A

3 surgical treatments for Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Recommended HDL for males >__; for females, > __

A

40

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

4 causes of Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)

A

Blunt trauma
Emboli
Atherosclerosis
Spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

4 medical management for Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)

A

Morphiene (pain & anxiety)
Oxygen
Nitroglycerin
Asprin / clopiderol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

the mode for a pace maker is either _____ or _____

A

demand – only when needed
fixed- asynchronous

(most patients on demand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

may be too high risk for some patients that are very elderly or have many co-morbidities such as poorly controlled DM or renal disease.

A

CABG Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Chronic stable angina occurs with exertion, more likely to resolve with______& _______

A

rest and nitrates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

the ability of the pacemaker to recognize the body’s intrinsic or native electrical activity.

It is measured in millivolts

A

sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

one major problem that can happen from AFIB is

A

CLOTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

after a CABG Surgery, which 3 things to monitor for

A

infection
bleeding
hemodynamic instability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

for decreased cardiac output, the first step would be to use ______

the second step would be to use ____

A

atropine IVP

external pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

normal PR interval

A

.12 - .20 seconds

3-5 little boxes in length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

2 pre cardiac catheterization care

A

Metformin held

NPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ST elevation is a sign of

A

infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

no consistency in the PR inerval and more P waves than QRS is a good indication of

A

3rd degree block

av diassociation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ECG where:

Rate: matches the underlying rhythm

Rhythm: irregular

P-wave: not present

PR interval: none

QRS: greater than 0.12 second (wide)

A

Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)

Intracoronary stenting

2 non surgical treatment for _____

A

2 non surgical treatment for Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ECG where:

Rate: greater than 100 bpm

Rhythm: regular unless capture beats occur and momentarily interrupt

P-wave: none

PR interval: none

QRS: consistent in shape but appear wide and bizarre

A

Ventricular Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ischemic heart disease, acute myocardial infarction, and conduction system disease are possible causes of _______

A

third-degree heart block.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ECG where:

Rate: 40-60

Rhythm: regular

P-wave: more p waves than QRS

PR interval: varies

QRS: greater than 0.12 second

P& Q work seperatly

A

Third-Degree Block

42
Q

7 symptoms of Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)

A

Pale and diaphoretic
Hypotension
Dyspnea/tachypnea

Midsternal chest pain
Impending doom
Nausea and vomiting
Dysrhythmias
Syncope
43
Q

should you use defibrilation with asystole

A

no, wont work

44
Q

6 Post cardiac catheterization care;

A

Monitor puncture site

vs

distal CMS frequently

Bedrest for 4-6 hours

fluids

Keep leg extended (straight)

45
Q

initial dose of adenosine is ___ mg if you need an additional dose you will ____

A

6mg

double dose (12mg)

46
Q

Hypoxemia, acid-base imbalance, exacerbation of heart failure, ischemic heart disease, cardiomyopathy, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, valvular heart disease, genetic abnormalities, and QT prolongation are all possible causes of ______

A

Ventricular Tachycardia

47
Q

digitalis toxicity, electrolyte imbalance, lung disease, ischemic heart disease, valvular abnormalities, can also occur in normal hearts may be possible causes of _____

A

Supraventricular Tachycardia

48
Q

every small box is ____ of a second on a ECG

A

.04 seconds

49
Q

3 medications to treat bradycardia

A

Atropine
Epinephrine
Dopamine

50
Q

Recommended LDL

A

100

51
Q

30 horizontal big boxes are ___ seconds in time

A

6 seconds in time

52
Q

Delivers electricity to the heart to stimulate depolarization (contraction)

A

Pacemakers

53
Q

2 things to remember after internal pacemaker

A

arm adjacent to the surgical site should not be lifted

Incision monitored for infection

54
Q

chest pain that is

Severe, crushing, and squeezing pressure
May radiate
Unrelieved with nitrates

is a sign of

A

Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)

55
Q

For patients at risk for lethal cardiac rhythms or sudden cardiac death

Will recognize lethal rhythm and shock patient if necessary

May have pacing capabilities

A 
Automatic Implantable 
Cardioverter Defibrillator (AICD)
56
Q

3 things that help diagnose a Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)

A

Signs and symptoms
12-lead:
Elevated serum troponin (ordered every 3-6 hrs #3)

57
Q

8 nursing intervenions for Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)

A 
Stay with the patient
Apply oxygen
EKG monitoring and VS
Give SL Nitroglycerin, morphine
Targeted history and Focused exam
At least 2 IV sites
Draw blood for troponin levels
CXR
58
Q

prolonged PR interval (>.20) but consistent is an indication of ____

A

first degree AV block

59
Q

HR is 150 or higher and you can not distinguish the p & T wave

this is a sign of

A

supraventricular tachycardia

atrial tachycardia

60
Q

3rd degree block almost always needs to be ______

A

externally pacemaker

61
Q

stress, CAD,CHF,COPD, myocarditis, rheumatic heart disease, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, acid-base imbalances, and increased catecholamine levels can cause ______

A

PVCs.

62
Q

Hyperthyroidism, hypovolemia, heart failure, anemia, exercise, use of stimulants, fever, and sympathetic response to fear or pain and anxiety may cause________

A

sinus tachycardia.

63
Q

can be caused by caffiene, alcohol, smoking, aging, MI, Hypoxia, Hypokalemia, hypomagnesium

A

PVC

64
Q

Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) should be performed within __ minutes of arrival to the emergency department, with a target of less than __ minutes (door to balloon time).

A

90

60

65
Q

ECG where:

Rate: 60-100 beats/minute

Rhythm:Regular

P-wave:Upright, rounded, smooth,1 for each QRS complex, all look similar in size and shape

PR interval: 0.12-0.20 seconds

QRS:0.04-0.12 seconds
All QRS complexes look similar in size and shape

A

Normal Sinus Rhythm

66
Q

the Electrical Output for a pacemaker is

A

milliamps

67
Q

ECG where:

Rate: greater than 100

Rhythm: irregular

P-wave: indeterminate

PR interval: indeterminate

QRS: generally narrow and normal unless underlying disease present

A

Atrial Fibrillation

68
Q

8 signs and symptoms of

SVT
VTACH
VFIB
AFIB
1st degree block 
3rd degree block
A 
Chestpain
Oxygen low 
Lethargy
Anxiety
Palpations
Shortness of breath
Elevated HR
Dizziness
69
Q

Progressive narrowing of coronary arteries by atherosclerosis

hardening or arteries

A

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

70
Q

3 medications for rate control

A

Amiodarone
Beta blockers
Calcium channel blockers

71
Q

Vasovagal response; medications such as digoxin or AV nodal blocking agents, including calcium channel blockers and beta blockers; myocardial infarction; normal physiologic variant in the athlete; disease of the sinus node; increased intracranial pressure; hypoxemia; and hypothermia may cause ________

A

sinus bradycardia

72
Q

ECG where:

Rate: 60-100 (unless bradycardic)

Rhythm: regular

P-wave: upright, smooth, and round

PR interval: longer than normal (>0.20)

QRS:narrow and normal

A

First Degree Heart Block

73
Q

the rate for a pacemaker is ____

A

60-100

usually 60

74
Q

5 big boxes is ______ seconds

A

1 second

75
Q

2 things to make sure of before 12 lead EKG

A

dry and lying still

76
Q

representing ventricular depolarization which comes before ventricular contraction

A

QRS interval

77
Q

3 types of medications used if patient is afib and HR over 100 to slow down HR as well as _____

A

calcium channel blocker (diltiazam)

beta blocker (metopralol)

digoxin

anticoagulants (heparin, warfarin)

78
Q

Depolarizes the cardiac cells so that the sinoatrial node can take over as the primary pacemaker of the heart

Indicated for fast rhythms with a pulse

A

Cardioversion

79
Q

3 treatments for - 3rd Degree Block – Lethal rhythm

A

Atropine
Epinephrine
If meds don’t work → Pace

80
Q

with supraventricular tachycardia, 3 interventions are __

A

bear down

adenosine (IVP fast/ 6mg) flush after

cardioversion

81
Q

4 medications for Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI) after MONA

A

Anticoagulants: Heparin, enoxaparin

Fibrinolytic therapy: Alteplase

Beta blockers

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

82
Q

Ischemic heart disease, valvular heart disease, hyperthyroidism, lung disease, heart failure, and aging may cause ____________

A

atrial fibrillation.

83
Q

SVT, VTACH, VFIB, AFIB all have the same signs and symptoms because they are problems of _______

A

low oxygen

84
Q

starts at the begining of the P wave ends with the QRS

measures the time it takes for the SA node to fire and travel to the AV node.

A

PR interval

85
Q

signs of Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI) are often ______ in women

A

asymptomatic

86
Q

Medications after stents include what 3 things

A

ASA, clopidogrel, anti-hypertensives,

87
Q

impulse starts at SA node (atrial depolarization) which comes before atrial contraction

should be uniform, round smooth and upright.

A

p wave

88
Q

are fast heart rates with narrow QRS complexes.

A

Atrial dysrhythmias

89
Q

have wide QRS complexes.

A

Ventricular dysrhythmias

90
Q

any sinus rhythems are ______

A

regular rhythem

91
Q

peaked T waves is usually a sign of

A

hyperkalemia

92
Q

Ischemia with myocardial cell death

Imbalance of oxygen supply and demand

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)

93
Q

ECG where:

Rate:Less than 60 beats/minute

Rhythm:Regular

P-wave:Upright, rounded, smooth,1 for each QRS, all look similar in size and shape

PR interval:0.12-0.20 seconds

QRS: 0.04-0.12 seconds
All QRS complexes look similar in size and shape

A

Sinus Bradycardia

94
Q 
elective procedure 
client is awake & frequently sedated 
schnronized with QRS
50- 200 joules 
consent form 
EKG monitoir

would all indicate the use of _____

A

cardioversion

95
Q

up right and one after every QRS

represents ventricular repolarization or ventricular relaxation.

A

T wave

96
Q

cardiac injury
med toxicity
electrical imbalances

may cause

A

V fib

97
Q

6 risk factors for Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

A

Smoking
Hypertension
Inactivity

Overweight
Cholesterol(High LDL/Low levels of HDL)
Diabetes

98
Q

2 non modifiable risk factors for Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

A

age
Men > 45 years
Women > 55 years

family history

99
Q 
emergency
v-fib/v-tach
no cardiac output 
200 joules up to 360 
client unconscious
EKG monitor

would all indicate the use of _____

A

defibrillation

100
Q

Starts where QRS ends and ends where T wave beings

should be flat.

A

ST segment

critical care (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions