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CVP > Unit 3 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac output it determined mainly by ___________

A

Venous return

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2
Q

What are the factors that influence Venous return?

A

Body metabolism (local flow and autoregulation)

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3
Q

______ is a slow process of plaque formation where large quantities of cholesterol become deposited beneath the endothelium, scar tissue forms (fibrosis) and then calcifies (plaque)

A

Atherosclerosis

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4
Q

Partial or total blockage of coronary arteries leads to _______

A

Ischemia (lack of blood flow)

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5
Q

________ is a sudden process which occurs due to a thrombus or an embolus

A

Acute coronary occlusion

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6
Q

______ is a penetrating atherosclerotic plaque can cause a blood clot to form which quickly occludes an artery

A

Thrombus

** when this breaks away, it is then called an embolus

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7
Q

_______ is a thrombus that has broken loose for th site of origin and flows to another site where it lodges

A

Embolus

***leads to acute coronary occlusion

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8
Q

_________ is an attempt by the body to restore blood supply to ischemic tissue

A

Collateral circulation

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9
Q

During plaque formation, _______ may occur during plaque development

A

Angiogenesis

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10
Q

After _______ angiogenesis is too slow to restore blood flow acutely, however _______ of collateral vessels may resent some cardiac muscle death

A

After acute occlusion; vasodilation

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11
Q

Ischemic heart disease includes what 4 forms?

A

Angina pectoris
Coronary artery disease
Myocardial infarction
Sudden cardiac death

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12
Q

What does angina pectoris mean?

A

Chest pain

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13
Q

What are the types of angina pectoris?

A

Chronic stable angina

Unstable angina

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14
Q

______ is often a prelude to MI if not treated

A

Angina

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15
Q

_________ angina is where pain comes along during activity and is released at rest

A

Chronic stable angina

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16
Q

______ angina where chest pain comes and goes and doesnt seem to be related to anything

A

Unstable angina

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17
Q

Myocardial infarction results from an _________

A

Acute coronary occlusion

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18
Q

The muscle has ________ blood flow and the area affected ceases to function and may die during myocardial infarction SP’s

A

Little or no blood flow

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19
Q

Myocardial infarction most commonly affects the __________

A

Left ventricle

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20
Q

What are the causes of death due to MI

A
  • decreased cardiac output
  • pulmonary edema and kidney failure
  • fibrillation
  • cardiac rupture (rare)
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21
Q

Decreased CO can cause death due to MI when more than ______ of the left ventricle is infarcted (no blood flow) OR when _________ exacerbates the decrease in CO

A

40% of the left ventricle is infarcted

Systolic stretch exacerbates the decrease in CO

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22
Q

Pulmonary edema and kidney failure results from_____________ and can clean to death from an MI?

A

Result from the backlog of blood in the body’s venous system

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23
Q

______ is a chaotic pattern of contraction in the ventricles

A

Fibrillation

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24
Q

Fibrillation may result from:

  • leakage of ______ from infarcted area
  • formation of an _______
  • _______ reflexes
  • bulging weka muscle sets up __________
A

K+; injury current; sympathetic reflexes; circus movement

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25
Q

The anatomy of an infarcted is made up of a _____ area and a ____ area

A

Central area and peripheral area

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26
Q

Central area made up of _______
Peripheral area made up of ______

**anatomy of an infarct

A

Dead cardiac myocytes

Non-functional but living myocytes

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27
Q

Recovery from MI:
Dead fibers are replaced by _______
Nonfunctional fibers either ____ or ______ depending on if the color is dissolved or collateral circulation is adequate
Normal tissue ______ overtime to compensate for tissue loss

A

Scar tissue; die or recover; hypertrophies

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28
Q

What are some life style modifications for treatment for ischemic heart diseases?

A

Lose weight
eat a diet low in Saturated fat and cholesterol
Exercise

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29
Q

What are other treatments for ischemic heart diseases?

A 
Nitroglycerin 
Beta blockers
TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) 
Bypass surgery 
Angioplasty
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30
Q

What is the definition of congestive heart failure?

A

Failure of the heart to pump enough blood to satisfy the needs of the body

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31
Q

Heart failure is characterized by ________ and ______

A

Reduced cardiac output and damming up of the venous circulation

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32
Q

Heart failure is due to either ______ dysfunction or a _______ dysfunction

A

Systolic; diastolic

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33
Q

Which dysfunction is more common in congestive heart failure, systolic or diastolic?

A

Systolic dysfunction

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34
Q

________ is progressive loss of contractile funciton of the heart muscle

A

Systolic dysfunction

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35
Q

_________ is the inability of heart to expand to fil the ventricles properly

A

Diastolic dysfunction

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36
Q

Heart failure can also be classified as R or L sided. What are the 4 causes of left heart failure?

A

Ischemic heart disease
Hypertension
Valve diseases
Myocardial diseases

** these diseases cause left ventricle to hypertrophy and/ or dilate

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37
Q

What does left sided CHF lead to?

A

Pulmonary congestion and edema

Decreased renal perfusion leading to water and salt retention

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38
Q

What are the symptoms of a left sided CHF?

A

Dyspnea, orthopnea and cough

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39
Q

What are the causes of R heart failure?

A 
Left sided heart failure 
Cor pulmonale (heart problem likely secondary to a lung problem, ex: cystic fibrosis)
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40
Q

Pure R sided heart failure leads to what 4 things?

A

Systemic and portal vein congestion
Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
Peripheral edema
Kidney congestion leading to alter and salt retention

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41
Q

If the heart is not too damaged, the exces fluid retention actually helps CO by __________ (________ heart failure)

A

Increasing venous return

Compensated heart failure

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42
Q

If the heart is severely damaged, the excess fluid retention can overwhelm the heart and lead to __________

A

Severe edema and death

***decompensated heart

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43
Q

What are the characteristics of compensated heart failure?

A

CO will be normal
RA pressure is elevated
No further Na and H2O retention occurs
Over the ensuing weeks and months, Heath may recover

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44
Q

What are characteristics of decompensated Heart failure?

A

Excessive fluid retention
Overstretching of the heart (weakens it further)
Pulmoary edema
Renal failure

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45
Q

Renal contribution to progressive decompensated heart failure due to what 3 things?

A

The kidney need a minimum CO of 5 L/min for normal fluid balance

Decreased glomerular flatiron

ANH (atrial natiruretic hormone

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46
Q

________ hormone may slow the progression of heart failure

A

Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH)

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47
Q

First heart sound of S! Is due to _______. Duration of _____ and more of a ___pitch

A

Closure of AV valves
Duration fo .14 sec
Lower pitch

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48
Q

2nd heart sound of S2 is due to closer of the ________ for a duration of _______ and _____ pitch

A

Closure of semilunar valves
1.1 seconds
Higher pitch

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49
Q

Third heart sound is during _______ and caused by _______. ______ frequency

A

During middle third of diastole
Caused by inrushing of bloo into ventricles

Low (may be audible

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50
Q

Fourth heart sound is during _______ and caused by ______. _______ frequency

A

During atrial systole
Caused by inrushing of blood
Very flow frequency

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51
Q

Aortic area - ______ intercostal space
Pulmonic area -_______ intercostal space
Erbs point -________ intercostal space
Tricuspid area - ______ intercostal space
Mitral area - _____ intercostal space at mid clavicular line

A 
Aortic area- 2nd right
Pulmonic area -2nd left 
Erbs point- 3rd left 
Tricuspid area- 5th left 
Mitral area- 5th intercostal space at mid clavicular line
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52
Q

What heart murmurs are heard during systole? (2)

A

Aortic stenosis

Mitral regurgitation

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53
Q

What heart murmurs are heard during diastole

A

Aortic regurgitation

Mitral stenosis

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54
Q

What heart murmur is heard throughout (continuous) diastole and systole?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

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55
Q

________ is generalized inadequacy of blood flow throughout the body to the extent that the body tissues are damaged

A

Circulatory shock

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56
Q

What are the two cardinal features of circulatory shock?

A

Decrease in cardiac output

Decreased blood pressure

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57
Q

______ is self-perpetuating

A

Circulatory shock

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58
Q

What are the factors that affect Venous return?

A

Diminished blood volume
Decreased vascular tone
Venous obstruction

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59
Q

What causes lead to cardiogenic shock?

A

MI
Toxicity
Valve dysfunction
Arrhythmias

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60
Q

What are the three stages of shock?

A

Non-progressive stage (compensated stage)
Progressve stage
Irreversible stage

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61
Q

__________ stage of circulatory shock, the body’s own compensatory mechanisms will lead to recovery without outside help

A

Non-progressive (compensated stage)

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62
Q

________ stage of circulatory shock where shock becomes self-perpetuating until death; is reversible with treatment

A

Progressive stage

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63
Q

_______ stage of circulatory shock that is severe shock that is refractory to treatment

A

Irreversible stage

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64
Q

_________ shock is characterize by decreased systemic filling pressure and decreased venous return.
CO ad BP then also decrease

A

Hypovolumic/hemorrhagic shock

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65
Q

Non-progressive/compensated stage

  • within 30 seconds: _________
  • within 20min to 1 hr: ____, ____, _____
  • within 1-48 hours: ______, _____
A

Within 30 sec: baraoreceptor reflex (SNS response)

Within 10 min to 1 hr: reverse stress-relaxation response, Renin-angiotensin system activation, ADH

Within 1-48 hrs: absorption of water from interstitial tissues, increased thirst

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66
Q

What is hallmark of progressive stage of circulatory shock?

A

Hallmarked by progressive deterioration of the cardiovascular system (positive feedback loops)

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67
Q

What are the features of the progressive stage of hypovolumic/ hemorrhagic shock?

A 
Cardiac depression 
Vasomotor failure (CNS depression)
Blockage of small vessels “slugged blood”
Increased capillary permeability (late)
Release of toxins 
Cellular deterioration
Acidosis (carbonic and lactic acid)
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68
Q

Describe the irreversible stage of hypovolumic/ hemorrhagic shock

A

Too much tissue damage
Too many destructive enzymes and toxins have been released
Too much acidosis
Depletion of high-energy phosphates in the body (creatine phosphate, ATP)

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69
Q

What are other forms of hypovolumic shock OTHER than hemorrhagic shock?

A

Intestinal obstruction
Severe burns
Dehydration (sweating, diarrhea, vomiting, nephrotic kidney disease)

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70
Q

What is the hallmark of neurogenic shock?

A

Hallmaked by an increased vascular capacity ( loss of vasomotor tone)

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71
Q

What are the causes of neurogenic shock?

A

Deep general anesthesia
Spinal anesthesia
Brain damage

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72
Q

_______ shock is an allergic response to an Ag in the circulation

(Due to a severe type 1 hypersensitivity reaction)

A

Anaphylactic

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73
Q

In ______ shock, basophils and mast cells release histamine which causes ______, _____ and _____

A

Anaphylactic

Venous dilation, arteriole dilation, increased capillary permeability

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74
Q

______ shock AKA blood poisoning that is causes by BLOOD BORNE bacterial infection in which the bacteria has been disseminated throughout the body

A

Septic shock

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75
Q

Damage during ______ shock is due to infection itself or due to bacterial ENDOTOXINS release

A

Septic shock

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76
Q

_______ shock has nothing to do with IgE, while ______ shock does

A

Septic shock; anaphylactic shock

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77
Q

______ shock features high fever, vasodilation, sludging of blood, disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

Septic

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78
Q

What are the treatments of shock? (5)

A 
Blood or plasma transfusion 
Dextran
Sympathomimetic drugs (epipen)
Oxygen therapy 
Glucocorticoids
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79
Q

What are general characteristics of RBCs?

A

Lack nucleus, ER and mitochondria
Biconcave discs
Contains Hb
Contains carbonic anhydrase

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80
Q

Regulation of RBC is controlled by

A

Erythropoietin

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81
Q

Where is erythropoietin secreted from?

82
Q

The kidneys secreted ________ in response to low oxygen levels in the blood

A

Erythropoietin

83
Q

What are the factors that decrease oxygenation?

A

Low blood volume
Low Hb
Anemia
Poor blood flow pulmonary disease

84
Q

______ carries oxygen and some CO2 in the blood

85
Q

What is Hb composed of?

A

Heme and globin
Heme: iron containing protoporphyrin ring structure
Globin: polypeptide (alpha, beta or gamma delta

86
Q

What are the most common type of Hb?

A

HbA-adult Hb- alpha2/Beta2

HbF- fetal Hb- alpha2/gamma2

87
Q

Iron is absorbed from ______

88
Q

Iron binds to _______ to form transferrin

A

Aportrasnferrin

89
Q

What is the function f transferin?

A

Carries iron in the blood

90
Q

Iron is released to tissue which then bind to _____ to form ferritin

91
Q

______ is the storage form of iron in cells

92
Q

When ferritin stores are maximized, a insoluble form of iron storage is ______

A

Hemosiderin

93
Q

Iron is incorporated into ______

94
Q

Iron loss occurs in what 3 things?

A

In feces
Bleeding
Menstrual loss

95
Q

What is the average life span of RBCs?

96
Q 
Metabolism of RNC weakens so that:
Cell membrane becomes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Membrane transport of ions \_\_\_\_
Heme iron goes into the\_\_\_\_\_\_ form
\_\_\_\_\_\_ of proteins
A

Cell memabnr becomes less pliable
Membrane transport of ion decreases
Heme iron goes into the ferric form
Oxidation of proteins

97
Q

RBCs rupture in the ______ or _______

A

Peripheral circulation

Especially in the spleen

98
Q

Hb is broken down into _____ and ______ which then break down into _____ and ______

A

Heme and globin

Bilirubin and amino acids

99
Q

What is the definition of anemia?

A

Deficiency of Hb

100
Q

Classification based on RBC size. What are the different sizes?

A

Microcytic (MCV 80)
Macrocytic (MCV >100)
Normocytic (MCV 80-100)

101
Q

Classifications based on Hb content: ______ and _____

A

Normochromic

Hypochromic

102
Q

Low ______, _____ and _______ all indicate anemia

A

Red blood cell count
Hematocrit
Hemoglobin

103
Q

________ indicates average cell size (microcytic, normocytic, macrocytic)

A

Mean corpuscular volume

104
Q

______ and _______ indicates Hb content per cell (hypochromic, normochromic)

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin

mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

105
Q

The completel blood count is useful but it cannot do what?

A

Detect abnormalities in shape of cells

106
Q

What are the characteristics of cells in hemorrhagic anemia?

A

Normocytic

Normochromic

107
Q

What are the characteristics in aplastic anemia

A

Generally normocytic

Normochromic

108
Q

What are the characteristics of megaloblastic anemia’s?

A

Macrocytic, normochromic

109
Q

What anemia is anemia of folate deficiency?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

110
Q

What anemia is characteristic of anemia of B12 deficiency?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

111
Q

What is characteristic of pernicious anemia?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

112
Q

What are the characteristics of hemolytic anemia’s?

A

Normochromic, normocytic
Hereditary sperocytosis
Sickle cell anemia
Eyrthroblastosis

113
Q

What are the characteristics of anemia of iron defiency?

A

Microcytic, hypochromic

114
Q

What are symptoms common to anemia in general?

A

Fatigue
Weakness
Dizziness
Paleness of skin

115
Q

In severe anemia what are the symptoms?

A

Fainting
Angina
Chest pain
Heart attack

116
Q

_________ is high RBC count

A

Polycythemia

117
Q

What is relative polycythemia?

A

Loss of fluid concentrates blood cells (intravascular volume depletion)

118
Q

What is an absolute polycythemia?

A

Actual increase in RBC production

119
Q

What is absolute primary polycythemia?

A

Defect involving bone marrow results in increase in red cell production
(Genetic)

Polycythemia Vera, primary congenital and familial polycythemia

120
Q

What is secondary absolute polycythemia?

A

Consequence of hypoxia or other problem which leads to an actual increase in RBC production

121
Q

______= prevention of blood loss

A

Hemostasis

122
Q

What are the steps of hemostasis?

A

Vascular spasm
Platelet plug formation
Fibrin clot (coagulation)
Retraction

123
Q

________ - constriction of blood vessels reduces the rate of blood loss

A

Vascular spasm

124
Q

_______ is due to pain, vascular wall damage or thromboxane A2

125
Q

_________- activated platelets form a weak plug

A

Platelet plug formation

126
Q

__________ - a series of clotting factors are involved in forming the clot

A

Fibrin clot formation (coagulation)

127
Q

________- shrinking of the clot material to approximate edges of clot together

A

Retraction

128
Q

Where are platelets formed and from what?

A

Formed in bone marrow

From megakaryocytes

129
Q

Platelets contain _____ and ______ and store _____

A

Contain actin and myosin

Store calcium

130
Q

What do platelets synthesize?

A 
ATP, ADP
Prostaglandins 
Fibrin stabilizing factor 
Thromboxane A2 
Growth factors
131
Q

Platelets have surface _____ that stick to exposed collagen

A

Glycoproteins

132
Q

Primary hemostasis - ____________

A

Platelet plug formation

133
Q

What are the events that occur when platelets encounter damaged blood vessel wall?

A
  • Platelets swell and send out pseudopods that stick out to the vessel wall
  • Contractile proteins contract to cause release of factors including ADP and thromboxane A2
  • Newly activated platelets stick to the growing plug
134
Q

______ and _______ activate other platelets and promote vascular spasm

A

ADP and thromboxane A2

135
Q

Secondary hemostasis (_____, _____) platelet plugs are strengthened by the _________

A

Coagulation, clot formation

Clotting process

136
Q 
Clotting factors:
I: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
II:\_\_\_\_\_\_
III:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
IV:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
VIII:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
XIII:\_\_\_\_\_\_
A 
I: fibrinogen 
II: prothrombin 
III: tissue factor 
IV: calcium 
VIII: antihemophilia factor
XIII: Fibrin stabilizing factor
137
Q

The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of the clotting cascade both end with ______

A

Prothrombin (factor 1) common pathway

138
Q

What starts the extrinsic clotting cascade?

A

Tissue trauma leads to tissue factor production

139
Q

How does the intrinsic clotting cascade begin?

A

Blood trauma or contact with collagen

140
Q

The lower the concentration of clotting factors such as _______ the longer it takes for the blood to clot

A

Prothrombin

141
Q

___________ is a test used to help detect and diagnose a bleeding disorder

A

Prothrombin time test

142
Q

_________ can be used to monitor how well an anticoagulant medication is working to prevent blood clots

A

Prothrombin time test

143
Q

___________- contraction of platelets tighten the clot and pull the edges of the wound together

A

Clot retraction

144
Q

What are the preventions of unwanted clotting?

A

Intact blood vessel wall
Glycocalyx- repels platelet s and clotting factors
Thombomodulin

145
Q

_______ inhibits thrombin and activates anticoagulant protein C which inturn inactivates factors ____ and ____

A

Thrombomodulin; V and VIII

146
Q

________ purpose is to limit the size of the clot

A

Anticoagulant

147
Q

What are examples of anticoagulants

A

Heparin

Antithrombin

148
Q

______ binds with _______ which binds to thrombin

A

Heparin; antithrombin

149
Q

__________ is released by damaged tissues over time as they heal

A

Plasminogen activator (tissue plasminogen activator, TPA)

150
Q

________ converts plasminogen to plasmin when the concentraiton of the activator is great enough

A

TPA (plasminogen activator

151
Q

_________ digests away the fibrin clot

152
Q

_________ can be used o digest thrombi (abnormal clots)

A

Plasminogen activator

153
Q

What clotting factors are affected by vitamin K deficiency?

A

Factors II, VII, IX and X

*** require within K for their synthesis by the liver

154
Q

_______ is the source of many clotting factors

155
Q

___________ is caused by inheritance of a faulty factor 8 gene. It is an ___ -linked trait

A

Hemophilia; X-linked trait

156
Q

________ is a lack of platelets (______ rash= red sports visible on the skin)

A

Thrombocytopenia

Petechial rash

157
Q

What are the 4 bleeding disorders?

A

Vitamin K deficiency
Liver damage/ disease
Hemophilia
Thrombocytopenia

158
Q

_______ are abnormal clots that form on roughed endothelial surfaces (arteriosclerosis, infection, trauma)

159
Q

_______ are thrombi that have broken loose from their attachment and may age lodge elsewhere in circulation

160
Q

Unwanted clots may be dissolved clinically by administering _________

A

Plasminogen activator

161
Q

What are the factors affecting heart rate?

A

Autonomic innervation
Hormones
Fitness levels
Age

162
Q

What are the factors affecting stroke volume?

A 
Heart size
Gender
Contractility 
Duration of contraction 
Preload (EDV) 
Afterload (resistance)
163
Q

CO will match VR via what 3 mechanisms?

A 
Frank starling’s mechanism (effects force of contraction)
Brainbridge reflex (effects rate of contraction)
SA node stretch (effects rate of contraction)
164
Q

The heart has a limit to the maximum CO it can achieve.
Normal (at rest) ________
Maximum _________

A

5 L/min

13 L/min

165
Q

_______ demonstrates the effectiveness of cardiac function at different levels of RA pressure (which reflects _____)

A

Caridac output curve

VR

166
Q

What causes a hypereffective heart?

A

Sympathetic sitmulation

Hypertrophy

167
Q

What causes a hypo-effective heart?

A

Hypertension
Sympathetic inhibition
Any heart pathology

168
Q

Pathologically LOW cardiac output can be due to ______ or _______ factors

A

Cardiac

Peripheral

169
Q

What are the 4 cardiac factors that can lead to pathologically low caridac output?

A

Myocardial infarction
Severe valve disease
Myocarditis
Cardiac tamponade

170
Q

What are the 4 peripheral factors that can lead to pathologically low CO?

A

Decreased blood volume (hypovolemia)
Acute venous dilation (SNS suppression)
Large vein obstruction
Decreased metabolic rate of tissues (hypothyroidism)

171
Q

When cardiac output falls too low, it is called _________

A

Circulatory shock

172
Q

In the venous return curve, that is the plateau due to?

A

Low atrial pressures leading to vein collapse

173
Q

___________- the venous return becomes zero when the RA pressure rises to __________

A

Mean systemic filling pressure (both answers)

174
Q

The steady ______ with changes in amount of sympathetic activity

A

RA pressure

175
Q

_________ can be used to calculate CO

A

Flicks principle

176
Q

Applying _______ by measuring oxygen uptake from the lungs and blood gas measurements

A

Ficks principle

177
Q

In circulation during exercise, it is regulated locally via _______

A

Autoregulation

178
Q

In circulation during exercise, regulation via the NS is controlled by ______ and ______

A

Sympathetic (norepinephrine) and adrenal (epinephrine)

179
Q

Norepinephrine works via ______ receptors

Epinephrine works via ___ receptors

A

Alpha

Beta

180
Q

Exercise results in mass __________

A

Sympathetic discharge

181
Q

Mass sympathetic discharge during exercise results in what 3 things?

A

Increases HR and cardiac contractility
Arterioles are contracted all over the body (except coronary blood vessels and cerebral vessels)

Capacitance vessels and reservoirs contract to increase mean systemic filling pressure

182
Q

Increase in arterial pressure during exercise is a result of what?

A

Mass sympathetic discharge

183
Q

What are the 3 results of mass sympathetic discharge?

A

Increases HR and cardiac contractility

Arterioles are contracted all over the body except muscles that are working, coronary blood vessels and cerebral blood vessels

Capacitance vessels and reservoirs contract to increase mean systemic filling pressure

184
Q

Who is more likely to have higher blood pressure, a stress induced individual or one in whole body exercise?

A

Stress induced individual would end up with higher blood pressure than whole body exercise because whole body exercise would result in vasodilation and stress induced will not compensate with vasodilation

185
Q

What is the effect of rhythmic muscle contraction on blood flow?

A

When muscles are contracted you have less flow and when they are released you have more flow

186
Q

Left coronary artery and branches- supplies the ______ and ________ portions of the left ventricle

A

Anterior and left lateral

187
Q

Right coronary artery and branches- supplies most of the ___________ and _________ of the left ventricle

A

RV and posterior part of the left ventricle

188
Q

Local autoregulation as determined by local muscle cells metabolism; most likely by _________ secretion in presence of low O2

189
Q

Sympathetic coronary arteries contain mostly ________ receptors; therefore general tendency is ________

A

Beta androgenic

Vasodilation

190
Q

Some pericardial arteries also contain _______ receptors, it is a thought that this helps to prevent backflow during heart exercise in the epicardial arteries

A

a1 (vasoconstrictor) receptors

191
Q

What helps to prevent backflow during heavy exercise in the epicardial arteries?

A

Some epicardial arteries also contain a1 (vasoconstrictor) receptors

192
Q

________- very little DIRECT innervation to coronary vessels

A

Parasympathetic

193
Q

________ slows heart rate and contractility, autoregulation leads to ____________

A

Ach

Decreased blood flow

194
Q

What is the structure of blood brain barrier?

A

Continuous capillaries
Astrocytes foot processes
Pericytes

195
Q

__________ - endothelial cells have tight junctions and lack fenestrae, low amount of vesicular transport

A

Continuous capillaries

196
Q

What is the function of blood brain barrier

A

Low permeability to most water soluble substances

Need special carrier systems to transport glucose, amino acids, etc.

197
Q

_______ of the hearts energy is derived from fatty acids at rest

198
Q

Under anaerobic or ischemic conditions, the heart must rely more on _______.

A

Glucose/ glycolysis

199
Q

ATP degrades to ADP-> AMP-> adenosine. ________ diffuses out of the caridac muscle cell and is a potent vasodilator

200
Q

Excessive loss of adenosine can lead to _______

A

Cardiac muscle death

201
Q

About ______ of the hearts adenosine can be lost in 30 min of ischemia

CVP (3 decks)

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