Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Bio Final > Unit 3-4 > Flashcards

Unit 3-4 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

An organism with two identical alleles for a trait is said to be _____________ for the trait.

A

homozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Differentiate a gene from an allele.

A

allele is a variation of a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is not a condition for a population to be Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A

The population is infinitely small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A person who is heterozygous for a recessive genetic disease, such as Tay-Sachs, is said to be

A

carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A dihybrid cross involving two traits at the same time will typically produce which of the following phenotypic ratios in the F₂ generation?

A

9:3:3:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The _________ of an organism can be homozygous or heterozygous.

A

genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mendel started with ____________ crosses and studied F₁ and F₂ generation of these crosses. Based on his results, Mendel designated alleles as either dominant alleles or recessive alleles.

A

monohybrid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Codominance

A

The allele that is present will be expressed irrespective of the other alleles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Polygenic inheritance

A

traits resulting from the combined additive effects of multiple genes with multiple genes with multiple alleles. Ex height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hybrid vigor

A

The phenomenon of hybrids between inbred homozygous strains being more robust and productive than either parent is commonly called hybrid vigor or heterosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Genotype

A

The genetic makeup of an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Phenotype

A

the physical makeup of an organism that specific alleles of genes influence

Phenotype ratio for dominant and recessive traits: 9:3:3:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If an organism is diploid and has 64 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will its gametes have?

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In a diploid organism with 56 chromosomes, what term describes a cell that has 55 chromosomes?

A

monosomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A female carrier of an X-linked recessive trait plans to have a child with an affected male. What is the probability that a male child will have the trait?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

___________, such as human body cells, contain two sets of chromosomes (2n)

A

Diploid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_________, such as gametes, contain one set of chromosomes (n).

A

Haploid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes align and exchange genetic information, a process called

A

crossing over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

All chromosomes, other than the sex chromosomes, are ____________ chromosomes

A

autosomal chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

involves genes that are located on the sex chromosomes.

A

sex-linked inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pedigree:

A

A genealogical chart that identifies individuals with a specific trait.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nondisjunction

A

The erroneous movement of two homologous chromosomes to the same pole during meiosis, resulting in one gamete with two homologues and one gamete with none.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Karyotype

A

A picture of a cell’s complete set of chromosomes that are organized by size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Autosomal recessive trait

A

a genetic condition occurs when the child inherits one mutated copy of a gene from each parent. The parents usually do not have the condition. The parents are called carriers because they each carry one copy of the mutated gene and can pass it to their children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Autosomal dominant trait

A

a way a genetic trait or condition can be passed down from parent to child. One copy of a mutated (changed) gene from one parent can cause the genetic condition. A child who has a parent with the mutated gene has a 50% chance of inheriting that mutated gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Sex-linked recessive trait:

A

A female carrying a mutation in one gene, with a normal gene on the other X chromosome, is generally unaffected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The transfer of information from DNA to RNA is called

A

transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Meiosis

A

a type of cell division that results in four daughter cells each with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell, as in the production of gametes and plant spores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where does RNA polymerase bind?

A

the promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of these is not a component of RNA?

A

Thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of these RNA modifications occurs last?

A

A poly-A tail is added to the end of the RNA strand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the function of a chaperonin?

A

to guide the folding of a polypeptide molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The lac operon is an example of __________ in prokaryotes.

A

gene regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Three RNA types are involved in protein synthesis

A

mRNA,tRNA,rRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

During _______________, the double helix is unwound, and RNA polymerase adds complementary nucleotides to the DNA template strand to form RNA.

A

transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

_________ are removed from the transcript, and__________ are spliced together.

A

Introns ,exons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The ___________is the set of rules that determine which mRNA codons code for which amino acids.

A

genetic code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Translation:

A

the process of translating the sequence of a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule to a sequence of amino acids during protein synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Anticodon:

A

a three-nucleotide sequence on a tRNA molecule that is complementary to the codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Biotechnology

A

The use of living organisms and biological processes to meet human needs and wants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Restriction enzymes

A

an enzyme, usually produced by bacteria, that can cut a DNA strand at a specific sequence of nucleotide base pair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Polymerase chain reaction

A

A technology that allows scientists to make many copies of DNA sequences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Recombinant DNA

A

A sequence of DNA that has been artificially formed by combining DNA from two different organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Genetically modified organisms

A

an organism that expresses a trait acquired through genetic engineering.

43
Q

DNA fingerprinting:

A

A method of comparing DNA from individuals to an unknown DNA sample by looking for sequences unique to that individual.

44
Q
  1. How many parts does a scientific name have?
A

two

45
Q

Which of the following lists the taxa from the most specific to the most general?

A

species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom

46
Q

Which word describes a group of organisms and their most recent common ancestor?

A

monophyletic clade

47
Q

What are the three domains?

A

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

48
Q

Head shape is which type of character?

A

morphological

49
Q

__________________ is the process of placing living things into groupings according to the characteristics they share.

A

Classification

50
Q

_____________ is the system of naming and classifying organisms based on shared characteristics and a universal set of rules.

A

Taxonomy

51
Q

_____________ are groups into which organisms with shared characteristics are organized. The most specific taxon is the species.

A

Taxa (singular taxon)

52
Q

According to the ____________ concept, a species is a group of organisms of the same type that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring.

A

biological species

53
Q

Linnaeus developed binomial nomenclature. The levels of this classification system are: species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, and kingdom.

A

binomial nomenclature

54
Q

____________characters are unique characteristics differing from the ancestral ones that originate in a clade.

A

Derived

55
Q

Taxonomy

A

The science of classifying living things

56
Q

Taxa

A

a group into which organisms with shared characteristics are organized.

57
Q

Characters:

A

inherited traits shared by a group of organisms.

58
Q

Clade

A

a group of organisms believed to have evolved from a common ancestor.

59
Q

Derived characteristics:

A

a more recent, unique character that originates in a clade.

60
Q

Ancestral characteristics:

A

a relative term describing a trait that is considered to be older than the derived trait.

61
Q

Monophyletic trait

A

groups of organisms, including their most recent common ancestor and the descendants of that most recent common ancestor.

62
Q

Polyphyletic clade

A

a group of organisms that is not monophyletic and does not include the most recent common ancestor, usually because the common ancestor does not have the same characteristics as the group.

63
Q

Homoplasy

A

similarities in organisms that are not due to common ancestry, but rather due to similar adaptations to environmental pressures.

64
Q

Which of the following structures is found in viruses?

A

a protein coat

65
Q

During times of environmental stress, bacteria may form

A

endospores.

66
Q

Prokaryotes include

A

archaea and bacteria.

67
Q

Which structures are used by paramecium for movement and feeding?

A

pseudopodia

68
Q

Kelp belong to which kingdom?

A

Protista

69
Q

_________ are nonliving particles that infect cells by inserting their genetic material into the host cell.

A

Viruses

70
Q

___________ can be helical, polyhedral, spherical, or complex. All viruses are made of either DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat.

A

Viruses

71
Q

Viruses are often _________ and cause disease in other organisms, including humans, plants, and bacteria.

A

pathogens

72
Q

Viruses may replicate through either the ___________ ________, or the lysogenic cycle.

A

lytic cycle

73
Q

Retroviruses must convert their RNA to DNA using _______________ before the DNA can be incorporated into the host cell’s genome.

A

reverse transcriptase

74
Q

____________ are simple, unicellular organisms that lack a nucleus

A

Prokaryotes

74
Q

____________ have close relationships with many other organisms. They form symbiotic partnerships, take part in food webs, and act as decomposers. Some protists cause diseases in humans and other organisms

A

Protists

74
Q

Pathogens:

A

an organism, virus, or infectious protein that causes diseases or illness in another organism.

75
Q

Lytic cycle

A

a form of viral replication in which many copies of viruses are made within the host cell, causing the cell to burst.

76
Q

Lysogenic cycle

A

a form of viral replication in which the viral genes are added to and copied along with the host cell genome without destroying the host cell.

77
Q

Endospores

A

: a protective, dormant cell formed by bacteria during environmental stress.

78
Q

Flagella

A

A long whip-like structure found in some cells that facilitate movement.

79
Q

Conjugation

A

the exchange of genetic material between two bacterial cells.

80
Q

Algae:

A

plant-like protists that make their own food through photosynthesis.

81
Q

Chitin

A

a tough yet flexible carbohydrate found in the cell walls of fungi and in the exoskeleton of some arthropods.

82
Q

Mycorrhizae

A

a mutualistic relationship between fungi and plant roots.

83
Q

. Which of these is only found in angiosperms?
A. vascular bundles

B. seeds

C. gametophytes

D. fruits

A

fruits

84
Q

What is transpiration?

A. the loss of water through stomata

B. the movement of sugar through phloem

C. the absorption of water through root hairs

D. an area of elongation at the tips of stems

A

the loss of water through stomata

85
Q

Which of these is not a function of auxin?

A. maintains apical dominance

B. ripens fruit

C. prevents leaves from falling

D. inhibits branch formation

A

maintains apical dominance

86
Q

Which of the following plant parts is composed of ground tissue?

A. cuticle

B. xylem

C. pith

D. palisade mesophyll

A

xylem

87
Q

What process results in the formation of endosperm?

A. alternation of generations

B. double fertilization

C. germination

D. gravitropism

A

double fertilization

88
Q
  1. What distinguishes invertebrates from other animals?

A. They can reproduce asexually.

B. They do not have a backbone.

C. They have jointed appendages.

D. They have bilateral symmetry

A

They do not have a backbone.

89
Q

What characteristic do sponges share with mollusks and arthropods?

A. They exchange matter with the environment.

B. They have an open circulatory system.

C. They only live in aquatic habitats.

D. They have a coelom.

A

They exchange matter with the environment.

90
Q

Which characteristic is true of cnidarians but not ctenophores?

A. They have a gastrovascular cavity.

B. Their life cycle has both polyp and medusa stages.

C. They have a nerve net.

D. They develop from two germ layers.

A

Their life cycle has both polyp and medusa stages.

91
Q

Which characteristic distinguishes annelid body plans from roundworms?

A. a tough exoskeleton

B. segmentation

C. a gastrovascular cavity

A

segmentation

92
Q

Which organisms have radial symmetry?

A. cnidarians and echinoderms

B. arthropods and annelids

C. rotifers and mollusks

D. mollusks and echinoderms

A

cnidarians and echinoderms

93
Q

Which group of invertebrates is the most numerous on Earth?

A. cnidarians

B. echinoderms

C. arthropods

A

arthropods

94
Q

. Which organisms infect humans as parasites?

A. echinoderms

B. cnidarians

C. porifera

D. roundworms

A

roundworms

95
Q

Vertebrates differ from invertebrates because vertebrates have

A. muscles and nerves.

B. a bony internal skeleton.

C. wings and legs.

A

a bony internal skeleton.

96
Q

Goldfish differ from sharks because goldfish have

A. a bony skeleton.

B. paired fins.

C. gills.

D. a complete digestive system.

A

a bony skeleton.

97
Q

Which is true of all amphibians?

A. They have a tadpole stage.

B. They have four legs.

C. They have a two-chambered heart.

D. They have soft, moist skin.

A

They have soft, moist skin.

98
Q

Which of the following is not a strategy reptiles use to regulate temperature homeostasis?

A. behavioral thermoregulation

B. endothermy

C. ectothermy

D. hibernation

A

endothermy

99
Q

Mammals are the only kind of animals
that have

A. live birth.

B. mammary glands.

C. teeth.

D. a single bone that attaches the leg
to the body.

A

mammary glands.

100
Q

. Which of these describes a trace fossil?

A. a space left in sedimentary rock after an organism is buried

B. a two-dimensional flattened outline within a rock layer

C. the fossilized shell of a marine invertebrate

D. serrated bite marks on a bone

A

a two-dimensional flattened outline within a rock layer

101
Q

How might an entire organism become fossilized?

A. The hard parts of an organism deteriorate slowly.

B. An organism becomes trapped in amber.

C. A cast forms when a mold fills with calcium carbonate.

D. A burrow of an animal is visible within rock layers

A

An organism becomes trapped in amber.

102
Q

The abrupt appearance of many different organisms in the fossil record is an example of

A. stasis.

B. mass extinction.

C. radiation.

D. coprolites.

A

mass extinction.

103
Q

In the fossil record, scientists observe that species increase in number, but phyla decrease. This is an example of which pattern in the fossil record?

A. species increase while higher taxa decrease

B. stasis

C. less familiar to more familiar

D. marine to land

A

a. species increase while higher taxa decrease

104
Q

Which of the following supports the idea that fossils formed millions of years in the past?

A. the presence of macromolecules in fossilized bone

B. radiometric dating of surrounding rock layers

C. rapid burial of organisms

D. mass extinction events

A

radiometric dating of surrounding rock layers

Bio Final (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions