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Nursing Fundamentals > Unit 3 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Aerobic bacteria

A

microorganisms that require oxygen to live

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2
Q

Anaerobic bacteria

A

microorganisms that exist without oxygen

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3
Q

Antimicrobial agents

A

are chemicals that destroy or suppress the growth of infectious microorganisms

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4
Q

Antiseptics

A

chemicals such as alcohol that inhibit the growth of, but do not kill, microorganisms

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5
Q

Asepsis

A

practices that decrease or eliminate infectious agents, their reservoirs, and vehicles for transmission

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6
Q

aseptic techniques

A

measures that reduce or eliminate microorganisms

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7
Q

biologic defense mechanisms

A

anatomic or physiologic methods that stop microorganisms from causing an infectious disorder

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8
Q

broad-spectrum antibiotics

A

those prescribed to eliminate a wide range of bacteria

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9
Q

Carriers

A

asymptomatic clients or animals who harbor pathogens but do not show evidence of an infectious disease

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10
Q

chain of infection

A

the sequence that enables the spread of disease-producing microorganisms

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11
Q

communicable diseases

A

diseases that can be transmitted to other people

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12
Q

Community-acquired infections

A

infections that are not present or incubating prior to care provided by health care

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13
Q

Concurrent disinfection

A

measures that keep the client environment clean on a daily basis

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14
Q

Contagious diseases

A

diseases that can spread rapidly among individuals in close proximity to each other

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15
Q

Disinfectants

A

chemicals that destroy active microorganisms but not spores

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16
Q

exit route

A

is how microorganisms escape from the original reservoir

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17
Q

fomites.

A

Nonliving reservoirs are called…

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18
Q

Hand antisepsis

A

means the removal and destruction of transient microorganisms without soap and water. It involves products such as alcohol-based liquids, thick gels, and foams

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19
Q

Hand hygiene

A

refers to removing surface contaminants on the skin by either hand washing or hand antisepsis

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20
Q

Hand washing

A

is a medical aseptic practice that involves cleaning the hands with soap, water, and friction to mechanically remove dirt and organic substances

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21
Q

health care–associated infections

A

infections acquired while a person is receiving care in a health care agency

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22
Q

means of transmission

A

is how infectious microorganisms move to other locations.
contact, droplet, airborne, vehicle, and vector

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23
Q

Medical asepsis

A

practices that confine or reduce the numbers of microorganisms

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24
Q

Microorganisms

A

living animals or plants visible only through a microscope, are commonly called “microbes” or “germs

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25
Q

Nonpathogens

A

normal flora (harmless, beneficial microorganisms

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26
Q

opportunistic infections

A

infectious disorders among people with compromised health

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27
Q

pathogens

A

microorganisms that cause illness

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28
Q

portal of entry

A

is where microorganisms find their way onto or into a new host

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29
Q

reservoir

A

is a place where microbes grow and reproduce, providing a haven for their survival

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30
Q

resident microorganisms

A

generally, nonpathogens constantly present on the skin

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31
Q

spore

A

is a temporarily inactive microbial life form that can resist heat and destructive chemicals and can survive without moisture

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32
Q

Sterile field

A

work area free of microorganisms

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33
Q

Sterile techniques

A

include practices that avoid contaminating microbe-free items

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34
Q

Sterilization

A

consists of physical and chemical techniques that destroy all microorganisms, including spores

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35
Q

Surgical asepsis

A

refers to those measures that render supplies and equipment totally free of microorganisms

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36
Q

Surgical hand antisepsis

A

previously referred to as a surgical scrub, is a medically aseptic hand hygiene procedure that is performed before donning sterile gloves and garments when the nurse is actively involved in an operative or obstetric procedure

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37
Q

susceptible host

A

the last link in the chain of infection, is one whose biologic defense mechanisms are weakened in some way

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38
Q

Terminal disinfection

A

is more thorough than concurrent disinfection and consists of measures used to clean a client’s environment after discharge

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39
Q

transient microorganisms

A

pathogens picked up during brief contact with contaminated reservoirs

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40
Q

viral load

A

the number of viral copies

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41
Q

Viral replication

A

multiplication or copying of viruses

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42
Q

virulence

A

the ability to overcome the immune system

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43
Q

Airborne precautions

A

infection control measures that reduce the risk for transmitting pathogens that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air

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44
Q

colonization

A

a condition in which microorganisms are present, but the host does not manifest any signs or symptoms of infection

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45
Q

communicable diseases

A

when they are transmitted from one source to another by infectious bacteria or viral organisms

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46
Q

community-acquired infections

A

those that are not present or incubating prior to care provided by health care providers

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47
Q

Contact precautions

A

are measures used to block the transmission of pathogens by direct or indirect contact

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48
Q

Contagious diseases

A

are communicable diseases that can spread rapidly among individuals in close proximity to each other

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49
Q

Double bagging

A

is an infection control measure in which one bag of contaminated items, such as trash or laundry, is placed within another

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50
Q

Droplet precautions

A

measures that block transmission of infectious pathogens within moist droplets larger than 5 microns that are present in respiratory secretions or mucous membranes

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51
Q

health care–associated infections (HCAIs)

A

that are acquired within a health care facility

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52
Q

hyperendemic infections

A

infections that are highly infectious in all age groups

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53
Q

Infection

A

is a condition that results when microorganisms cause injury to a host

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54
Q

Infection control precautions

A

are physical measures designed to curtail the spread of infectious diseases

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55
Q

Infectious diseases

A

are spread by pathogens or toxins among susceptible individuals

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56
Q

N95 respirator

A

which is individually fitted for each caregiver, can filter particles 1 micron (smaller than a millimeter) with an efficiency of 95% or more, provided the device fits the face snugly

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57
Q

personal protective equipment (PPE)

A

like garments that block the transfer of pathogens from one person, place, or object to oneself or others; and safe injection practices

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58
Q

powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)

A

is an alternative if a caregiver has not been fitted with an N95 respirator or has facial hair or a facial deformity that prevents a tight seal with an N95 respirator

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59
Q

Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette

A

refers to infection control measures used at the first point of an encounter with clients, family, or friends of persons with signs of illness suggesting an undiagnosed transmissible respiratory infection

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60
Q

Safe injection practices

A

infection control measures that prevent the transmission of blood-borne pathogens through the use of aseptic techniques involving the preparation and administration of parenteral medications

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61
Q

Standard precautions

A

infection control measures for reducing the risk of transmission among all clients, regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status

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62
Q

Transmission-based precautions

A

measures for controlling the spread of highly transmissible or epidemiologically important infectious agents from clients when the known or suspected route(s) of transmission is (are) not completely interrupted using standard precautions alone

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63
Q

24-hour specimen

A

a collection of all urine produced in a full 24-hour period

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64
Q

Anuria

A

means the absence of urine or a volume of 100 mL or less in 24 hours

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65
Q

bedpan

A

a seat-like container for elimination

66
Q

Catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)

A

infections acquired by those with indwelling urinary catheters, especially with those that are in place for a prolonged period of time

67
Q

Catheter care

A

hygiene measures used to keep the meatus and adjacent area of the catheter clean

68
Q

Catheter irrigation

A

flushing the lumen of a catheter

69
Q

Catheterization

A

the act of applying or inserting a hollow tube

70
Q

clean-catch specimen

A

is a voided sample of urine considered sterile and is sometimes called a midstream specimen because of the way it is collected

71
Q

closed drainage system

A

a device used to collect urine from a catheter

72
Q

commode

A

a chair with an opening in the seat under which a receptacle is placed

73
Q

Continence training

A

to restore the control of urination involves teaching the client to refrain from urinating until an appropriate time and place

74
Q

Continuous irrigation

A

the ongoing instillation of solution

75
Q

Credé maneuver

A

act of bending forward and applying hand pressure over the bladder to stimulate urination

76
Q

Cutaneous triggering

A

the act of lightly massaging or tapping the skin above the pubic area to stimulate urination

77
Q

Dysuria

A

is difficult or uncomfortable voiding and a common symptom of trauma to the urethra or a bladder infection

78
Q

external catheter

A

also known as a condom catheter (a urine-collecting device applied to the skin

79
Q

Fenestrated drape

A

one with an open circle at its center

80
Q

Frequency

A

the need to urinate often

81
Q

Incontinence

A

is the inability to control either urinary or bowel elimination and is abnormal after a person has achieved earlier continence

82
Q

Nocturia

A

nighttime urination

83
Q

Oliguria

A

urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours, indicates the inadequate elimination of urine

84
Q

pelvic floor muscle exercises

A

(Kegel exercises), which are isometric exercises to improve the ability to retain urine within the bladder; Pelvic floor muscle exercises strengthen and tone the pubococcygeal and levator ani muscles used voluntarily to hold back urine and intestinal gas or stool

85
Q

peristomal skin

A

the skin around the stoma

86
Q

Polyuria

A

means greater-than-normal urinary elimination and may accompany minor dietary variations

87
Q

Residual urine

A

or more than 50 mL of urine that remains in the bladder after voiding, can support the growth of microorganisms, leading to infection

88
Q

stasis

A

a lack of movement

89
Q

straight catheter

A

is a urine drainage tube inserted but not left in place. It drains urine temporarily or provides a sterile urine specimen

90
Q

urgency

A

a strong feeling that urine must be eliminated quickly

91
Q

urinal

A

is a cylindrical container for collecting urine. It is more easily used by males

92
Q

urinary diversion

A

one or both ureters are surgically implanted elsewhere

93
Q

Urinary elimination

A

the process of releasing excess fluid and metabolic wastes

94
Q

urinary retention

A

in which the client produces urine but does not release it from the bladder

95
Q

urine

A

fluid within the bladder

96
Q

urostomy

A

a urinary diversion that discharges urine from an opening on the abdomen

97
Q

voided specimen

A

is a sample of fresh urine collected in a clean container

98
Q

voiding reflex

A

the spontaneous relaxation of the urinary sphincter in response to physical stimulation

99
Q

cystectomy

A

surgical removal of part of the bladder

100
Q

Cystitis

A

inflammation of the bladder

101
Q

cystolitholapaxy

A

Procedure by which bladder stones are removed through the transurethral route using a stone-crushing instrument (lithotrite). This procedure is suitable for small and soft stones and is performed under general anesthesia

102
Q

cystostomy

A

temporary or permanent creation of an opening into the bladder to allow drainage of urine

103
Q

diverticulum

A

weakening and outpouching of the bladder wall

104
Q

fulguration

A

removal of small, superficial bladder tumors through coagulation with a transurethral resectoscope

105
Q

incontinence

A

Involuntary loss of urine

106
Q

interstitial cystitis

A

painful bladder syndrome (PBS) is a chronic inflammation of the bladder mucosa, causing pain in the bladder and surrounding pelvic region

107
Q

neurogenic bladder

A

a bladder that does not receive adequate nerve stimulation

108
Q

residual urine

A

urine retained in the bladder after the client voids

109
Q

retention

A

is the inability to urinate or effectively empty the bladder

110
Q

stricture

A

narrowing

111
Q

suprapubic cystostomy tube

A

a catheter inserted through the abdominal wall directly into the bladder

112
Q

urethritis

A

inflammation of the urethra

113
Q

urethroplasty

A

surgical repair of the urethra

114
Q

urinary diversion

A

redirection of urine either to an external or an internal collecting system

115
Q

Urosepsis

A

serious systemic infection from microorganisms in the urinary tract that invade the bloodstream

116
Q

Acupressure

A

is a technique that involves tissue compression rather than needles to reduce pain

117
Q

Acupuncture

A

is a pain management technique in which long, thin needles are inserted into the skin at precise points

118
Q

Acute pain

A

discomfort that has a short duration

119
Q

adjuvants

A

drugs that assist in accomplishing the desired effect of a primary drug

120
Q

analgesic

A

a pain-relieving drug

121
Q

biofeedback

A

a client learns to control or alter a physiologic phenomenon as an adjunct to traditional pain management

122
Q

bolus or loading dose

A

a larger dose of drug administered initially or when pain is exceptionally intense

123
Q

chronic pain

A

discomfort that lasts longer than 6 months

124
Q

complementary and alternative medical (CAM) therapy

A

methods used in addition to conventional medical treatment, known as integrative medicine

125
Q

controlled substances

A

drugs that have prescription and dispensing that are regulated by federal law because they have the potential for being abused

126
Q

Cordotomy

A

refers to the interruption of pain pathways in the spinal cord. The surgical procedure in which bundles of nerves are severed has all but been replaced by a percutaneous approach in the area of cervical vertebrae

127
Q

Cutaneous pain

A

discomfort that originates at the skin level, is a commonly experienced sensation resulting from some form of trauma

128
Q

Distraction

A

is the intentional diversion of attention to switch the person’s focus from an unpleasant sensory experience to one that is neutral or more pleasant

129
Q

endogenous opioids

A

endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins (or exogenous opioids like morphine)—that modulate pain. can bind with neurotransmitters

130
Q

equianalgesic dose

A

an oral dose that provides the same level of pain relief as a parenteral dose

131
Q

fifth vital sign

A

check and document the client’s pain every time he or she assesses the client’s other vital signs

132
Q

Hypnosis

A

is a therapeutic technique in which a person enters a trance-like state resulting in an alteration in perception and memory

133
Q

Imagery

A

means using the mind to visualize an experience and sometimes is referred to as intentional daydreaming

134
Q

Intractable pain

A

pain unresponsive to other methods of pain management

135
Q

Intraspinal analgesia

A

is a method of relieving pain by instilling an opioid or local anesthetic through a catheter into the subarachnoid or epidural space of the spinal cord

136
Q

lockout

A

Once a dose is delivered, the client cannot administer another dose for a specified amount of time; this period, known as a lockout

137
Q

malingerer

A

someone who pretends to be sick or in pain

138
Q

Meditation

A

involves concentrating on a word or idea that promotes tranquility or often the breath

139
Q

Modulation

A

is the last phase of pain impulse transmission during which the brain interacts with the spinal nerves in a downward fashion to subsequently alter the pain experience

140
Q

Neuropathic pain

A

is often described as a shooting or burning pain. Phantom limb

141
Q

neuropeptides

A

noxious chemicals released from damaged tissue, such as substance P, serotonin, histamine, and arachidonic acid, which is metabolized into prostaglandin, acetylcholine, and others

142
Q

nociceptors

A

sensory nerve receptors activated by around 20 neuropeptides. Nociceptors are located throughout the skin, bones, joints, muscles, and internal organs

143
Q

Nonopioids

A

nonnarcotic drugs

144
Q

Opioids

A

narcotic drugs; synthetic narcotics

145
Q

Pain

A

is an unpleasant sensation usually associated with disease or injury

146
Q

Pain management

A

techniques for preventing, reducing, or relieving pain

147
Q

pain threshold

A

the point at which sufficient pain-transmitting stimuli reach the brain

148
Q

Pain tolerance

A

the amount of pain a person endures

149
Q

Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)

A

is an intervention that allows clients to self-administer opioid pain medication through use of an infusion device

150
Q

Perception

A

the conscious experience of discomfort

151
Q

percutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (PENS)

A

a pain management technique involving a combination of acupuncture needles and Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

152
Q

placebo

A

is an inactive substance or treatment used as a substitute for an analgesic drug or conventional therapeutic measure

153
Q

Referred pain

A

discomfort perceived in a general area of the body, usually away from the site of stimulation

154
Q

Relaxation

A

is a technique for releasing muscle tension and quieting the mind, which helps reduce pain, relieve anxiety,
and promote a sense of well-being.

155
Q

Rhizotomy

A

refers to the surgical sectioning of a nerve root close to the spinal cord. This prevents sensory impulses from entering the spinal cord and traveling to the brain

156
Q

Somatic pain

A

discomfort generated from deeper connective tissue) develops from injury to structures such as muscles, tendons, and joints

157
Q

suffering

A

which is the emotional component of pain

158
Q

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

A

a medically prescribed pain management technique that delivers bursts of electricity to the skin and underlying nerves, is an intervention nurses can implement

159
Q

Transduction

A

refers to the conversion of chemical information at the cellular level into electrical impulses that move toward the spinal cord

160
Q

Transmission

A

is the phase during which stimuli move from the peripheral nervous system toward the brain

161
Q

Visceral pain

A

discomfort arising from internal organs

Nursing Fundamentals (3 decks)

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