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Bio 240 > Unit 3 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the functions of the Muscular System?

A
  • move the body
  • maintain posture
  • protect and support
  • secrete cell signals
  • regulate elimination of materials
  • produce heat
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2
Q

How does the muscular system move the body?

A
  • move bones
  • make facial expressions
  • speak
  • breathe
  • swallow
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3
Q

How does the muscular system maintain posture?

A
  • stabilizes joints to maintain posture
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4
Q

How does the muscular system provide protection and support?

A
  • package internal organs and hold them in place
  • ex. diaphragm is separated from abdominal cavities
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5
Q

How does the muscular system secrete cell signals?

A
  • myokines have autocrine, paracrine, and endocrine functions
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6
Q

How does the muscular system regulate the elimination of materials?

A
  • circular sphincters control the passage of materials at orifices and sphincters
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7
Q

How does the muscular system produce heat?

A
  • muscle contractions produce heat and regulate body temp
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8
Q

What do myokines in the bone do?

A

-leads to osteogenesis

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9
Q

What do myokines in the brain and nerves do?

A
  • leads to cognitive function
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10
Q

What do myokines in adipose tissue do?

A
  • leads to lipolysis browning
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11
Q

What do myokines in the liver and pancreas do?

A
  • leads to glycogen and fat metabolism, insulin secretion
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12
Q

What do myokines in the intestines do?

A
  • leads to anti-tumorigenesis, gut hormone secretion
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13
Q

What do myokines in the skeletal muscle do?

A

-leads to glucose, fat, protein metabolism, muscle development and proliferation

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14
Q

What is excitability?

A
  • ability to respond to a stimulus by changing electrical membrane potential (sarcolemma potential)
  • ach released from major neurons, some contain AP
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15
Q

What is conductivity?

A
  • involves sending an electrical change down the length of the cell membrane
  • carrying of an AP which requires v-gated NaK channels
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16
Q

What is contractility?

A
  • exhibited when filaments slide past each other enabling muscles to cause movements
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17
Q

What is concentric contractility?

A

shorter muscles with more overlap in between

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18
Q

What is extensibiity?

A
  • ability to be stretched
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19
Q

What is elasticity?

A
  • ability to return to the original length after a lengthening or shortening
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20
Q

How are muscle fibers developed?

A
  • multiple myoblasts fuse to form each multi-nucleated skeletal muscle fiber
  • myoblasts to satellite cells with 2 mini muscle fibers to a satellite cell with one muscle fiber
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21
Q

Why do some muscle fibers have satellite cells ?

A
  • for support and repair of muscle fibers
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22
Q

What is the muscle heirarchy?

A
  • muscle (organ) to muscle (tissue) to muscle fiber (cell)
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23
Q

What tissue is a muscle made out of?

A

-Nervous Tissue
- Blood vessels
- Connective tissue

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24
Q

What is the epimysium?

A
  • dense CT layer that surrounds the outer surface of the whole muscle
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25
Q

What is the perimysium?

A
  • dense CT layer around and between fascicles that house many blood vessels and somatic nerves
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26
Q

What is the endomysium?

A
  • a delicate layer of loose CT that provides electrical insulation, capillary support, and binding of neighboring cells between muscle fibers
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27
Q

What is a tendon?

A
  • fusion of the epimysium, perimysium, endomysium, which extends through the entire muscle and then connects to bone
  • cordlike/ rope-like structure of dense regular CT
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28
Q

What is an aponeurosis?

A
  • thin sheet of dense irregular tissue that goes in all different directions
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29
Q

What is the deep fascia and what does it do?

A
  • dense irregular CT, just superficial to the epimysium
  • separates individual muscles and binds muscles with similar functions
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30
Q

What is the superficial fascia and what does it do?

A
  • areolar and adipose connective tissue layer superficial to the deep fascia
  • separation of muscles from skin
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31
Q

What is a motor unit?

A
  • a lower motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it controls
  • fibers of a motor unit are dispersed, not just a clustered compartment
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32
Q

Is the numver of fibers a neuron innervates set?

A

no

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33
Q

Describe small motor units?

A

-less fibers (less than 5)
- performs small but accurate movements (eye movement)

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34
Q

Describe big motor units?

A
  • allows for the production of a large amount of force
  • has 100-1000s of fibers
  • postural muscles and limbs
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35
Q

What is the sarcolemma?

A
  • outer plasma membrane of muscle fibers
  • where AP are carried, has v-gated channels
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36
Q

What is the sarcoplasm?

A
  • contains mitochondria and multiple nuclei
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37
Q

What are myofibrils?

A
  • densely packed into muscle fibers, containing contractile proteins
  • organelle, not cell
  • has sarcoplasm
  • takes up the majority of space
  • has high ATP usage
    -uses actin and myosin proteins
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38
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A
  • covers entire myofibril (mesh-like)
  • raps around each myofibril using t-tubule
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39
Q

What do t-tubules do?

A
  • takes AP from the outside of fiber into the inside
  • has terminal cisterna of SR on each end of it like a sandwich (also called a triad)
  • changes electrical signal to chemical signal (AP- Ca2+)
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40
Q

Where do motor neurons innervate muscles?

A

-neuromuscular junction
- usually located in the mid-region of the muscle fiber

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41
Q

What are the parts of the neuromuscular junction?

A
  • synaptic knob
  • synaptic cleft
  • motor end plate
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42
Q

Why is the end plate highly folded?

A

to increase Surface area and increase the number of membranes and receptors

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43
Q

Describe how EPP is reached and ACH is released?

A
  • An AP is conducted down the MN axon results in an influx of Ca2+ through the opening of v-gated Ca2+ channels at the synaptic knob
  • Ca2+ binds to ACH-filled synaptic vesicles triggering exocytosis and the release of ACH into the synaptic knob
  • ACH diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to ACH Receptors (chemically gated cation channels) found on the motor end plate region of the sarcolemma
  • opening of cation channels causes and EPP (depolarization)
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44
Q

What is Excitation Contraction coupiling

A
  • An AP is conducted down the sarcolemma surrounding the muscle fiber and moves into the cell through the t-tubules (with NaK+ v-gated channels)
  • AP is conducted down the sarcolemma surrounding muscle fiber and moves into cell through t-tubules (through NaK+ v-gated channels)
  • DHP receptors within t-tubules stimulate the opening of Ca2+ receptors at SR resulting in the movement of Ca2+ from SR into the sarcoplasm
  • An AP initiated at the motor end plate travels along the sarcolemma and down t-tubules surrounding myofibrils (NaK v-gated)
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45
Q

What is the sarcolemma AP graph?

A
  • RMP -90
  • Threshold: End plate potential -90 - -65
  • Depol: Na+ V-gated channels open - 65 - +30
  • Repol: Na+ v-gated channels close K v-gated open, K+ efflux, +30 - -90
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46
Q

What is a sarcomere?

A
  • smallest contratile unit?
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47
Q

Where is a sarcomere located?

A

along microfile, along entire length

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48
Q

What is a sarcomere made of?

A

thin and thick filaments

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49
Q

What are thick filaments made of?

A

myosin

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50
Q

what is a thick filament?

A
  • extends from z- disks to m-line through myosin (centered at M-line)
  • binds ATP one it detaches from actin
  • uses ATP to reset, gets in ready position to be able to bind actin
  • bound to ATP and PI
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51
Q

What are thin filaments?

A
  • has actin and regulatory proteins (troponin and tropomyosin)
  • actin contains myosin binding site
  • troponin (attached to tropomyosin) contains binding site for Ca2+
  • topomyosin directly covers myosin binding sites on actin
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52
Q

What happens if there is no calcium in the thin filaments?

A

no binding of filaments

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53
Q

What happens when there is calcium in the thin filaments?

A
  • binding sites available for myosin to bind
  • confirmation change is regulatory protein resulting in removal of tropomysin from binding sites on actin
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54
Q

What does troponin do?

A

contains binding site for calcium

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55
Q

What does tropomyosin do?

A

directly covers myosin binding site on actin

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56
Q

What is the sarcomere doing when the muscle is relaxed?

A

sarcomere relaxed

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57
Q

What happens to the sarcomere when the muscle is contracted?

A

sarcomere contracted
- z disks move towards m line
- I band gets smaller/ disappears
- H zone gets smaller/ disappears

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58
Q

What is the m-line?

A
  • cross-section of sarcomere
  • thick filaments and accessory points
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59
Q

What is the h-zone?

A
  • cross-section of sarcomere
  • thick filaments only
  • subset of A band
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60
Q

What is the A-band?

A
  • cross-section of sarcomere
  • thick and thin filaments
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61
Q

What is the I band?

A
  • cross-section of sarcomere
  • thin filaments and connectin
  • no thick filaments
  • half on one sarcomere half on the other
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62
Q

What is the z-disk?

A
  • cross-section of sarcomere
  • thin filaments, connectin, accessory proteins
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63
Q

What does connectin do?

A
  • provides stability and elasticity to sarcomere
  • connects z-disks and helps maintain the placement of thick filaments in btwn the thin filaments
  • compressed during contraction of the sarcomere but its elasticity allows it to uncoil during relaxation
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64
Q

Where is dystrophin located?

A
  • primarily in muscles used for movements (skeletal muscle) and cardiac muscle
  • small amounts are present in nerve cells of brain
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65
Q

What does dystrophin do?

A
  • provides structural link btwn muscle cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix while maintaining muscle integrity
  • key in maintaining the mechanical stability of skeletal muscle by liking actin filaments in sarcomeres to the sarcolemma
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66
Q

What does a lack of dystrophin do?

A
  • causes these cells to be increasingly fragile and prone to damage
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67
Q

What is the sliding filament model of muscle contraction?

A
  • z disks move towards m line
  • I band gets smaller/ disappears
  • H zone gets smaller/ disappears
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68
Q

Where is the myosin head and where does it face?

A
  • head at end of A-band
  • facing towards z-disk
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69
Q

What is the cross-bridge cycle

A
  1. Ca2+ binding (if no Ca2+ it’s just relaxed)
  2. Crossbridge formation (has ADP and phosphate
  3. Power stroke (ATP goes to m-line)
  4. Myosin Release/ detachment (ATP must bind)
  5. Myosin reset
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70
Q

What is exposure of myosin to the binding site on actin?

A
  • Ca2+ binds troponin, inducing a conformation change in regulatory protein complex (troponin and myosin)
  • tropomyosin rotates exposing binding sites on actin
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71
Q

What is crossbridge formation?

A
  • myosin heads binds to exposed binding site on actin
  • ADP and Pi are bound to myosin when binding occurs
  • a-band stays the same, H-band disappears because z-disks move closer, I-band gets smaller
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72
Q

What is a power stroke?

A

-myosin heads swivels toward the center of the sarcomere, pulling along attached thin filament, moving it towards m-line
- ADP and Pi release

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73
Q

What is myosin release?

A

-cross-bridge detachment
- ATP binds to the ATP binding site on myosin head as myosin head releases from binding site on actin

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74
Q

What are the steps in skeletal muscle relaxation?

A
  • termination of nerve signal and ACH release from motor neuron
  • closure of ACH receptor causes cessation of EPP
  • return of muscle to original position due to its elasticity which is largely a contribution of connectin
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75
Q

What does the termination of a nerve signal and ACH release from a motor neuron do?

A
  • hydrolysis of ACH by ACHE (ACH removed and stops signal)
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76
Q

What does the closure of ACH receptor and cessation of EPP do?

A
  • no further AP generated
  • no excitation
  • no Ca2+
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77
Q

What are the metabolic processes for generating ATP?

A
  • available atp and phosphate transfer to adp
  • glycolysis
  • aerobic cellular respiration
  • myosin kinase
  • creatine phosphate
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78
Q

Is O2 required for available atp and phosphate transfer to adp?

A

no

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79
Q

Is O2 required for glycolysis?

A

no

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80
Q

Is O2 required for aerobic cellular respiration?

A

yes

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81
Q

Describe available atp and phosphate transfer to adp?

A
  • o2 not required
  • limited ATP available
  • ATP produced from creatine P in limited amounts
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82
Q

Describe glycolysis?

A

-no O2 required
- more rapid production of ATP than aerobically
- lesser amounts of ATP are made than aerobically
- fuel is glucose typically from glycogen breakdown and blood

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83
Q

What is the fuel for glycolysis?

A
  • glucose typically from glycogen break down and blood
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84
Q

Describe aerobic cellular respiration?

A
  • O2 required
  • slower production of ATP than glycolysis
  • greater amount of ATP made than glycolysis
  • fuel: pyruvate (glycolysis product), fatty acids, amino acids with NH2 removed
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85
Q

What is the fuel for aerobic cellular respiration?

A
  • pyruvate ( a glycolysis product), fatty acids, amino acids with NH2 removed
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86
Q

What is the myosin kinase metabolic process for generating ATP?

A
  • ATP releases energy when least phosphate is removed, resulting in a surplus of ADP within the muscle fiber
    -ATP to ADP + P
  • enzymes in muscle catalyze production of ATP by phosphate transfer
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87
Q

What does myosin kinase do?

A
  • catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate from 1 ADP to another ADP forming ATP and AMP
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88
Q

What is the creatine phosphate metabolic process for generating ATP?

A
  • like a phosphate savings account
  • requires muscle to resynthesize energy from other sources including high energy creatine phosphate
  • reaction is reversible using ATP to replenish the creatine phosphate supply in resting muscle
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89
Q

How long do stored ATPs last?

A
  • in muscle cell the stored ATPs spent after a few seconds of intense exertion
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90
Q

What does creatine kinase do?

A
  • catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate from creatine to phosphate to ADP to ATP in active muscle
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91
Q

How does glycolysis work/ what is the goal?

A
  • No O2, happens in cytosol
  • glucose from muscles (glycogen) or through blood is converted to 2 pyruvate molecules releasing 2 ATP per glucose molecule
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92
Q

How does glycolysis work in a high O2 environment?

A
  • in a high O2 environment, pyruvate moves into the mitochondria to continue to make ATP through Aerobic cellular respiration
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93
Q

How does glycolysis work in a low O2 environment?

A
  • pyruvates are converted into lactate by lactate dehydrogenase
  • in the presence of O2 lactate can be converted back to pyruvate within the mitochondria of skeletal or cardiac muscle fibers to continue with aerobic cellular respiration
  • lactic acid cycle
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94
Q

What is the lactic acid cycle?

A
  • occurs as lactate is transported back to the muscles
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95
Q

How does aerobic cellular respiration occur?

A
  • requires energy source (glucose or triglycerides) and O2
  • myoglobin is present in sarcoplasm binds to O2
  • pyruvate (produced by glycolysis) enters the mitochondria where oxidative phosphorylation occurs, producing large amounts of ATP
  • works slower than glycolysis but produces more ATP
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96
Q

What is the byproduct of aerobic cellular respiration?

A

CO2

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97
Q

What are the types of muscle fibers categories?

A
  • based on type of contraction (power or speed + duration)
  • or the primary means of supplying ATP (oxidative or glycolytic
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98
Q

What is the power muscle fiber group?

A
  • related to the diameter of muscle fiber
  • larger= more powerful
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99
Q

What is the speed and duration muscle fiber group?

A
  • speed and duration related to the type of myosin ATPase, quickness of AP prorogation and Ca2+ release and reuptake by SR
    -has fast twitch fibers
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100
Q

What are fast twitch fibers?

A
  • more powerful and have quicker and briefer contractions than slow twitch fibers
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101
Q

What is the oxidative muscle fiber group?

A
  • fatigue-resistant red fibers
  • have extensive capillaries many mitochondria and a large supply of myoglobin to support aerobic cellular respiration
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102
Q

What is the glycolytic muscle fiber grou[?

A
  • fatigueable white fibers
  • have fewer capillaries and mitochondria
  • smaller supply of myoglobin and large glycogen reserves to support aerobic cellular respiration
103
Q

What are the skeletal mucsle fiber types?

A
  • slow oxidative (type 1)
  • fast oxidative (type 2a)- intermediate
  • fast glycolytic (type 2b)- fast anaerobic
104
Q

What is the slow oxidative muscle fiber group?

A
  • contractions are slower and less powerful
  • high endurance since ATP is supplied aerobically
  • about 1/2 the diameter of other fibers
  • red due to myoglobin
105
Q

What is the fast oxidative muscle fiber group?

A
  • fast and powerful contractions
  • primarily aerobic respiration, but lower O2 delivery
  • intermediate size
  • light red
106
Q

What is fast glycolytic/ fast anaerobic muscle fiber gorup?

A
  • fast and powerful contractions
  • brief contractions as ATP is produce anaerobically
  • largest size
  • white in color due to a lack of myoglobin
107
Q

Is a muscle fiber the same cell type?

A

no a mixture of cell types make up a muscle fasicle

108
Q

How do muscle fibers vary?

A
  • proportions of fiber types in differnt muscle groups
  • relative amount of fiber type
109
Q

What is an example of varying proporitons of muscle fibers containing different muscle groups?

A
  • hand muscles have high percent of fast glycolytic fibers for quickness
  • back muscles have a high percent of slow oxidative fibers to continually maintain postural support
110
Q

How is the amount of muscle fiber types determined?

A
  • mostly genetic but can be altered through training
111
Q

What is an example of muscle fiber types varying?

A
  • long distance runners have a higher proportion of slow oxidative fibers in legs
  • trained sprinters have a high percent of fast glycolytic fibers
112
Q

What is a twitch?

A

-brief contraction due to a single stimulus
- The minimum voltage that triggers a twitch is a threshold

113
Q

What are the twitch periods?

A

-latent
- contraction period
-relxation period

114
Q

What is the latent twitch period?

A
  • time after stimulus, but berfore contraction
  • no change in tension
115
Q

What is the contraction period of muscle twitchs?

A
  • time when tension is increasing
  • begins as power stroke pulls thin filaments
116
Q

What is the relaxation period of muscle twitches ?

A
  • time when tension is decreasing to baseline
  • begins with crossbridge release
  • generally lasts longer than contraction period
117
Q

What are we measuring when we look at muscle twitches?

A
  • tension, NOT VOLTAGE
118
Q

What is motor unit recruitment/ summation?

A
  • muscle is repeatedly stimmulated
119
Q

What happens as voltage increases?

A

more units are recruited to contract

120
Q

How do muscles exhibit varying degrees of force?

A
  • varying degrees of muscle units recruited
  • few to lift pencil
  • many to lift suitcase
121
Q

What is motor unit recruitment order based on?

A
  • size of the motor unit
  • small first and large last
122
Q

What is wave summation?

A

-relaxation between twitches is incomplete
- contractile forces add up to produce higher tensions
-20-40 stmulli per second

123
Q

How many stimuli occur per second in wave summation?

A

-20-40

124
Q

How many stimuli occur per second in tetany?

A

-40-50

125
Q

What is incomplete tetany?

A
  • each twitch reaches maximum peak
  • tension increases at twitches partially fuse
126
Q

When does incomplete tetany become tetany?

A
  • if frequency is further increased
  • straight line without relaxaiton
127
Q

What does a high frequency stimuli lead to?

A

fatigue

128
Q

What is muscle tnesion?

A

-resting tension of a muscle
- background tension

129
Q

When does muscle tone decrease?

A

during sleep

130
Q

What causes muscle tone?

A
  • generated by random involuntary nervous system stimmulation of a muscle
  • motor unit changes so the unit is not fatigued
131
Q

What is isometric contraction?

A
  • tension is increased but its insufficient to over come resistance
  • muscle length stays the same
132
Q

what does a sustained isometric contraction cause?

A
  • higher blood pressure
133
Q

What is an isotonic contraction?

A

-muscle tension overcomes resistance resulting in movement
- tone stays constant, lenth changes

134
Q

What are the types of isotonic contractions?

A
  • concentric
  • eccentric
135
Q

What is a concentric contraction?

A
  • muscle shortens as it contacts
  • sliding filament theory
136
Q

What is the tension a muscle produces dependent on?

A
  • its length at the time of stimmulation
136
Q

What is a eccentric contraction?

A

-muscle lengthens as it contracts
- calf lengthens when going up hill

136
Q

What type of length generates the max contractile force?

A
  • resting length
137
Q

Why does a fiber at resting length generate a max contractile force?

A
  • optimal overlap of thick and thin filaments
  • actin and myosin heads have a good grip
138
Q

Why do fibers at a shortened length generate a weaker force?

A
  • filament movement is limited
  • already close to z-disk
139
Q

Why do fibers at an extended length generate a weaker force?

A
  • minimal thick and thin filament overlap for crossbridge formation
  • actin and myosin don’t have a good grip
140
Q

What are the functions of the digestive system?

A
  • ingestion
  • motility
  • secretion
  • digestion
  • absorption
  • elimination
141
Q

What is ingestion?

A
  • introduction of solid and liquid nutrients through the oral cavity
142
Q

What is motility?

A
  • movement of materials due to muscle contractions throughout the gi tract
143
Q

What is secretion?

A
  • production and release of materials associated with digestion
  • pancreas has digestive enzymes
  • live has bile
144
Q

What is digestion?

A
  • breakdown of ingested materials to facilitate absorption
  • mechanical and chemical
145
Q

What is mechanical digestion?

A
  • mastication, occurs in oral cavity
146
Q

What is chemical digestion?

A
  • uses enzymes to change chemical strucutre
147
Q

What is absorbtion?

A
  • transport of digested material across a membrane and into the blood/ lymph and small intestine
148
Q

What is elimination?

A
  • expulsion of ingestible materials from rectum and anus
149
Q

What is the accessory digestive system?

A
  • assists in the digestion of food
  • some produce secretions that empty in to GI tract
150
Q

What is the Gi tract?

A
  • the continuous tube that transports food through the body while breaking it down into smaller, absorbable components
151
Q

What is the GI tract made of?

A
  • tissue layers called tunics
152
Q

What happens in the oral cavity?

A
  • mastication begins mechanical digestion
  • saliva has salivary amylase which initiates the digestion of starches
  • food is mixed with saliva to form a bolus
153
Q

What does the pharynx do?

A
  • bolus moves from the oral cavity to the pharynx during swallowing which is facilitated by mucus secretion s
154
Q

What does the esophagus do?

A
  • transports bolus from pharynx to stomach
  • lubricated by mucous secretions
155
Q

What happens in the stomach?

A
  • primarily storage
  • bolus mixed with gastric secretions by smooth muscle contractions
  • secretions from epithelial cells of the stomach
  • chyme is formed from mixing
156
Q

What is the secum?

A

where material moves from small intestine
- contains appendix
- part of large intestine

157
Q

What are the layers of the GI tract from the inside out?

A
  • lumen
  • mucosa,
  • epitheleal tissue
  • connective tissue,
  • smooth muscle
158
Q

What is the submucosa layer?

A
  • vascularized layer of CT found below the mucosa
  • contains submucosal nerve plexus and mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) helps with immunity
159
Q

What are the layers of the muscalaris?

A
  • inner circular layer
  • outer longitudinal layer
  • sphincters
  • also has myenteric nerve plexus
160
Q

What does the muscularis control?

A

-mixing
- propulsion

161
Q

What is the inner circular layer of muscle?

A
  • constricts tube lumen
162
Q

What does the outer longitudinal layer of muscle do?

A
  • contractions shorten tube
163
Q

What do sphincters do?

A
  • thichkened regions control the movement of materials through GI tract
164
Q

What is mixing?

A
  • back and foward motion that lacks directional movement
  • blends ingested material with secretions
165
Q

What is propulsion?

A
  • directional movement of materials through the GI tract
  • occurs by peristalsis
166
Q

What is peristalsis?

A
  • sequential contraction of muscularis
  • gi tract moves like a wave
167
Q

What is the adventitia?

A
  • areolar CT
  • found outside the peritoneal cavity
168
Q

What is the serosa?

A
  • areolar CT
  • covered by visceral peritoneum
  • found within peritoneal cavity
169
Q

What is the mesentery?

A

-double layer of visceral peritoneum that supports, suspends, stabilizes, intraperitoneal gi tract organs
- contains blood and lymph vessels, nerves between folds

170
Q

What is the peritoneum?

A
  • serous membrane associated with abdominal pelvic cavtiy
171
Q

What is the parietal peritoneum?

A
  • lines inside surgace of abdominal wall, outer layer
172
Q

What is the visceral peritoneum?

A
  • serous membrane reflecting over and covering internal organ surface
  • double layer forms mesentery
173
Q

What is the peritoneal cavity?

A
  • potential space between two layers
  • lubricating serous fluid secreted from both layers
  • allows organs to move freely
174
Q

What is the intraperitoneal organs?

A
  • organs completely surrounded by visceral peritoneum
  • includes stomach, small intestine, lare intestine
175
Q

What are the retroperitoneal organs?

A
  • lies directly against the posterior abdominal wall
  • only anterolateral portions covered the peritoneum
  • includes most of the duodenum, pancreas, ascending colon, descending colon, rectum
176
Q

What is the enteric nervous system?

A
  • sensory and motor nuerons within submucosal plexus and mesenteric plexus
  • innervates smooth muscle and glands of GI tract
  • coordinates mixing and propulsion reflexes
177
Q

What is the autonomic NS of the gi tract?

A
  • parasympathetic innervation promotes gi tract activity
  • sympathetic innervation opposes gi tract activity
178
Q

What are baroreceptors?

A
  • detects stretch in gi tract wall
179
Q

What are chemoreceptors?

A
  • monitor chemical contents in lumen
180
Q

What are reflexes in the ANS or ENS initiated by?

A
  • in response to receptor input
181
Q

What is a short reflex?

A
  • local reflex only involves ENS coordinates small segments of gi tract
182
Q

What is long reflex?

A
  • involves sensory input to CNS and autonomic motor output and coordinates gi tract motility, secretions, accessory digestive organs
183
Q

What is hormonal control of the digestive system?

A
  • several hormones participate in regulation of digestive which will be addressed with the organs that secreted them
184
Q

Where does mechanical digestion begin?

A
  • oral cavity with the tongue and teeth
185
Q

How many teeth do we have?

A
  • 20 denticious/ baby teeth
  • 32 permanent teeth
186
Q

What does saliva do?

A
  • moistens ingested food to form a bolus
  • is secreted from salivary glands in response to food
  • contains antibacterial substances that inhibit bacterial growth in oral cavity
187
Q

What do lysozyme and antibodies do?

A
  • inhibit bacterial growth in oral cavity
188
Q

What glands help secrete saliva?

A
  • parotoid
  • submandibular
  • sublingual
189
Q

What is the pharynx?

A
  • shared patway for air and food
  • contains nasopharynx and laryngopharynx
  • mucous secreted here facilitates swallowing of bolus
190
Q

What does teh laryngopharynx play a part in?

A

digestion

191
Q

What does the nasopharynx play a part in?

A
  • respiratory
192
Q

What does the esophagus do?

A
  • normally collapsed passageway connecting pharynx and stomach
  • ## passes through esophogeal hiatus
193
Q

What is the esophageal hiatus?

A
  • opening in diaphragm
194
Q

What do peristaltic contractions do?

A
  • help with swallowing
195
Q

What is the superior esophageal sphincter?

A
  • connected ring of circular skeletal muscle at the superior end where esophagus and pharynx meet
  • closed during air inhalation
196
Q

What is the inferior esophageal sphincter?

A
  • connected ring of circular skeletal muscle at inferior end
  • not strong enough by itself to stop stomach contents from regurgitating, diaphragm muscles assist
197
Q

What are the phases of swallowing?

A
  • voluntary
  • pharyngeal
  • esophogeal
198
Q

What is the voluntary phase of swallowing?

A
  • bolus is pushed by toungue against hard palate and then goes to oropharynx
199
Q

What is the pharyngeal phase of swallowing?

A
  • involuntary
  • soft palate and uvula elevate and close of nasopharynx
  • bolus moves into oropharynx
  • epiglottis closes over laryngeal opening
200
Q

What is the esophogeal phase of swallowing?

A
  • involuntary
  • soft palate, uvula, epiglottis return to the pre-swallowing position
  • superior esophageal sphincter closes
  • peristaltic contractions of the esophageal muscle push bolus toward the stomach
  • inferior esophogeal sphincter opens
  • bolus passes through esophagus and enters stomach
201
Q

What does the stomach do?

A
  • receives bolus from esophagus
  • mixes materials stored with gastric secretions and digestive enzymes forming chyme
  • pressure gradient moves contents toward pylorus opening pyloric sphincter
202
Q

Where does chyme go?

A
  • from the stomach to the duodenum
  • smal volumes of chyme enter the duodenum before the sphincter closes
203
Q

What controls chyme movement?

A
  • movement into the duodenum is controlled by pyloric sphincter
  • pressure gradient moves it towards the pylorus
204
Q

How does food move through the stomach?

A
  1. contractions of smooth muscle in stomach wall mix bolus with gastic secretions to form chyme
  2. peristaltic waves result in pressure gradients that move stomach contents and pyloric sphincter
  3. pressure gradient increasese force in pyloric sphincter
  4. pyloric sphincter opens and a small volume of chyme enters duodenum
  5. pyloric sphincter closes and retropulsion occurs
205
Q

What cells are in the gastric pit?

A
  • surface mucous cells
  • mucous neck cells
206
Q

What do surface mucous cells do?

A
  • continuolsy secrete alkaline product containing mucin that helps prevent ulceration of the stomach lining
  • protects stomach lining
207
Q

What do gastric glands do?

A
  • expells gastric secretions into stomach thorugh gastric pit
208
Q

What are the chief cells of the gastric glands?

A
  • gastric lipase
  • zymogen granules
209
Q

What does gastric lipase do?

A
  • plays limited role in fat digestion
210
Q

What are zygmogen graules?

A
  • primarily contain pepsinogen which is activated by HCL to form pepsin
211
Q

What does pepsin do?

A
  • chemically digest denatured proteins into oligopeptides
212
Q

What are g-cells?

A
  • gastrin
213
Q

What does gastrin do?

A
  • hormone that stimulates stomach secretions and motility
214
Q

What is the intrinsic factor of parietal cells?

A
  • required for absorption of B12 in the illeum
  • necessary for production of normal erythrocytes
215
Q

What does hcl do for parietal cells?

A
  • responsible for stomach PH
  • converts inactive pepsinogen to active pepsin
  • kills most microorganisms entering stomach and helps break down mmaterials
216
Q

What initiates the cephalic reflex?

A

-initiated by thought, smell, sight and tast of food

217
Q

What is the effect of the gastric reflex?

A
  • presence of food in stomach causes releases of gastrin which targets stomach to increase the force of contraction and release of secretions
  • enhances what was started at cephalic phase
218
Q

What is the effect of the cephalic reflex?

A
  • stomach stimulated to increase its force of contraction and release of secretions
219
Q

What initiates the intestinal reflex?

A
  • chyme in duodenum
220
Q

What does the intestinal reflex cause?

A
  • also causes release of cholecystokinin(CCK) which decreases secretions and contractions in stomach
  • acidic chyme causes release of secretin from duodenum and inibiting release of secretions
221
Q

What does the liver do?

A
  • produces bile
  • cotains water, bicarbonate ions, nak pigments, cholesterol. lechitin, mycin
222
Q

What do bile salts and lecithin do?

A
  • helps manually digest lipids
223
Q

What is hepcidin?

A

hormone released from liver that inhibits iron absorbtion

224
Q

What does the gallbladder do?

A
  • stores, concentrates, releases bile
  • bile is transported through duct system into duodenum
225
Q

What does the pancreas do?

A
  • pancreatic juice released into duodenum through hepatopancreatic ampulla
  • exocrine (acinar) cells release digestive enzymes
  • biocaronate released from duct cells neutralizes ph of chyme entering the duodenum
226
Q

What are the enzymes of the pancreas?

A
  • amylase
  • lipase
  • inactive protases
  • nucleases
227
Q

What does amylase do?

A

-breaks down carbs

228
Q

What does lipase do?

A
  • breaks down fats
229
Q

What does inactive protases do?

A
  • breaks down proteins
230
Q

What does nucleases do?

A

-breaks down rna and dna

231
Q

What are the steps of amalyse?

A
  • amylas formed by pancreas and decreted into small intestine
  • amylase continuos digestion of starch by brush border enzymes embedded within the epitheleal lining of small intestine resulting in production of glucose
  • molecules absorb into blood
232
Q

Is a brushborder enzyme needed for lipase?

A

no

233
Q

How does lipase work?

A

-bile salts take big lipids and break them down through micells
- tryglycerides are broken down into monglyceride and tree fatty acids
- must be like this to enter intestinal cells but in intestinal cells it reforms into tryglyceride
- needs to be repackaged into chylomicrons which can move out of cell and into lymph

234
Q

What are the triglyceride molecules?

A
  • gastric lipase
  • lingual lipase
  • pancreatic lipase
235
Q

Where does trypsin come from and what does it do?

A

tripsinogen
- activates chemotrypsinogin and procarboxypeptidase

236
Q

What do trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carbozypeptidase do?

A

breaks down polypeptides and peptide fragments

237
Q

When is inactive proteases active?

A

-inactive in pancrease
- active in small intestin

238
Q

Where do the trypsons move to after doing their thing?

A
  • not into blood
  • brush border enzymes still have to make it absorbable
239
Q

What are the types of colon?

A
  • ascending
  • transverse
  • descending
  • sigmoidal
  • tenae coli
  • cecum
240
Q

Whaere does the sigmoidal colon lead?

A
  • leads to the rectum and anus
  • contains haustra
241
Q

What is the rectum?

A
  • muscular tube that expands and stores feces and has transeverse folds called rectal valves
242
Q

What is the function of the large intestine?

A
  • absorb water
  • little bacterial farm different to everyone that helps breakdown materials to form feces and vitamins b and k
243
Q

What are the steps in feces formation and regulation?

A
  1. as we fill the rectum it stretches stimulating baroreceptors
  2. sensory info is sent to spinal cord
  3. nerve signals along parasympathetic axons increaed to internal sphincter
  4. increased pressure on internal sphincter causes it to open
  5. external anal sphincter is voluntary and stays contracted until we say
244
Q

What is the resting state of the internal and external anal sphincters?

A

contracted and closed

245
Q

What is a lactile?

A

-lymphatic capillary within the small intestine

246
Q

What is the surface of the small intestine like?

A
  • highly folded with villi containing supramucidial cells surrounded by capillaries
247
Q

What do intestinal cells produce?

A
  • brush border cells
248
Q

What do emicellular cells do?

A
  • make enteropeptidase which takes trysinogen and activates it into tryposin
249
Q

What do enteroendocrine cells do?

A

-release cck and secretin

250
Q

What are the water soluble vitamines?

A
  • B and C
  • not stored in body and need to be replenidshed
251
Q

What are the fat soluble vitamins?

A
  • ADEK
  • absorbed in small intestine and stored in liver

Bio 240 (5 decks)

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