Unit-2 Talent Planning & Acquisition Flashcards
1
Q
Section 1981 (Early Civil Rights Act of 1866) applies to …
A
Employment contracts (union or nonunion) and guarantees all employees the right to non discrimination in creation, performance, modification, and termination of contracts + all benefits, privileges,terms and conditions of contractural relationship
2
Q
Title VII - employers can discriminate on basis of what…when its bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQ)
A
Religion,sex,or national origin (3)
3
Q
True or False: Opportunities for training must be provided without discrimination
A
True (3)
4
Q
A job applicant identifies an unnecessary qualification that minorities tend to lack
A
Particularity (4)
5
Q
True or False: U.S. companies are expected to follow U.S. laws in foreign countries even if they conflict with local laws
A
False - Foreign Practices (4)
6
Q
A black male employee is passed up for promotion based on poor performance and his behavior did not fit stereotypes of black males.
A
Motivating Factors (4)
7
Q
An employee is awarded $100,000 in damages due to intentional discrimination.
A
Remedies (5)
8
Q
True or False: tradition or customer service are sufficient BFOQ’s
A
False (5)
9
Q
Business practices with discriminatory effects are only justified when…
A
Showing it is necessary to the safe and efficient operation of the business
Effectively fulfills the intended purpose
There are no alternative policies/practices (5)
10
Q
Someone is Treated differently because of their race,sex,or national origin.
A
Disparate treatment (6)
11
Q
A statement saying all members of an ethnic group are ineligible for employment
A
Direct evidence of discrimination (6)
12
Q
An employer shows that all similarly situated employees were also laid off
A
Cohort analysis (6)
13
Q
Human resource activity is shown to significantly reduce numbers of minorities or females employed
A
Disparate impact (6)
14
Q
Prima fascie case - McDonnell Douglas v. Green (‘73)
A
- Protected minority
- Applied and qualified for advertised job
- Rejected despite qualifications
- Position stayed open seeking applicants w/ similar qualifications
15
Q
Griggs v. Duke Power (‘71)
A
Selection procedures that exclude disproportionate number of minority employees(7)
16
Q
Protects against racial harassment – epithets, derogatory comments,verbal harassment, etc
A
Title VII Civil Rights Act of 1964 (7)
17
Q
Use of the word “boy” might show racial animus in context of tone,inflection,historical usage
A
Ash v. Tyson Foods 2006 (8)
18
Q
Subtle forms of discrimination that limit career advancement
A
Glass ceiling (8)
19
Q
True or False: Employers can fire or refuse to hire pregnant women
A
True - so long as they treat them The same as menin comparable situations (8)
20
Q
Price Waterhouse v. Hopkins - Female is perceived as acting too masculine
A
Discrimination based upon NOT conforming to sex based stereotypes is prohibited sex discrimination. (9)
21
Q
If an employee has a legitimate request for time off for religious observances such as the Sabbath or holidays…
A
Employer should try to accommodate the employees request absent and undue hardship (10)
22
Q
What are examples of religious accommodations employers are expected to make?
A
Allowing a Muslim woman to wear a hijab
A Sikh to wear a turban
A Christian to wear across Exline a fundamentalist Christian or orthodox Jewish woman to wear a long skirt rather than pants or a short skirt
(10)
23
Q
What is an example of de minimus action?
A
And employer having to pay overtime for another worker or for replacement worker(10)
24
Q
The statute of limitations for filing a title VII claim is?
A
180 days, but can be extended to 300 days if there is an applicable state agency that also has a law prohibiting the same type of discrimination(13)
25
What is tolling?
The extension of the statute of limitations for title VII claims in which there is an ongoing pattern of discrimination occurring over an extended period (13)
26
What are examples of the types of information that may be requested in an EEOC investigation?
A complete census of each job category by race and sex
A record of all promotions and transfers over the past several years
Record of all disciplinary actions and the basis for them over the past several years (13)
27
What is A common reason an employer would not agree to participate in the EEOC's mediation program?
They think the EEOC will fail to find "reasonable cause" that discrimination has occurred
Because they think mediation require them to offer a monetary settlement
Because they doubt the quality of the mediators (13)
28
What does it mean when a victim of discrimination is entitled to be made whole and to be restored to their "rightful place"?
The job, seniority level, and salary level that they would otherwise have held absent the discrimination.
This can include an award of the position the event a visual is wrongfully denied, backpay with interest, retroactive seniority (14)
29
Avoiding retaliation, maintaining confidentiality, and preparing a position statement are all good examples of what?
Properly handling EEOC complaints.(15-16)
30
What are examples of systemic discrimination?
Discriminatory barriers in recruitment and hiring
Restricted access to management trainee programs and executive positions
Exclusion of qualified women from traditionally male dominated jobs
Disability discrimination in preemployment inquiries
Age discrimination in reductions – in – force and retirement benefits
Discriminatory practices that cater to customer preferences (16)
31
What three events must occur for someone to be an applicant?
1. The employer has acted to fill a particular position
2. The individual has followed the employer standard procedures for submitting an application
3. The individual has indicated an interest in the particular position (17)
32
True or false: employers are not legally required to reply in writing to all individuals who expressed an interest in employment?
True (17)
33
What are the types of data an employer should maintain on each applicant?
Applicants name,sex, race, job title applied for, the date of the application, the EEO category of the job, and the hiring decision (17)
34
What does adverse action refer to?
Action taken to try and keep someone from opposing a discriminatory practice (18)
35
Refusing to promote or firing an employee for filing a complaint of discrimination is an example of what?
Retaliation-- Adverse action (18)
36
People who opposed unlawful practices, participated in proceedings,or requested accommodation related to employment discrimination are?
Covered individuals (18)
37
True or False: a colleague who is closely associated with someone engaging in protected activity is also a covered individual?
True (18)
38
What are three types of protected activity?
Opposition to a practice believed to be unlawful discrimination
Participation in an employment discrimination proceeding
Requesting reasonable accommodation based on religion or disability (18)
39
Complaining about discrimination,filing a discrimination charge, or refusing to obey an order believed to be discriminatory are examples of what?
Protected activity (18)
40
Filing a charge of discrimination, cooperating with an internal discrimination investigation, or serving as a witness in an EEO investigation are examples of what?
Protected activity (18)
41
The following situation is an example of what: the termination of a military reservist who's supervisors had strong anti-– military biases that influence the termination decision.
Cats Paw – since the court held the employer liable for the enemas of a supervisor who is not charged with making the ultimate employment decision but was never the less able to influence the decision (18)
42
Private employers w/ 100+ employees and federal contractors w/ 50+ employees are required to submit which EEO-1 form?
Standard form 100 (20)
43
In what case did the Supreme Court determine that retaliation applies to more than just employment actions of hiring and firing; it entails the totality of how employees are treated?
Northern & Santa Fe Railway Co. V. White
44
Mixed motives analysis applies to violations of what?
Title VII, ADEA, FMLA, and ADA
45
If an employee can show that discrimination was one of the motivating factors in adverse action, what was the employer them prove?
Employer must prove that it would have taken the same action despite the supposed discriminatory animus (19)
46
In fiscal year 2017 what percentage of discrimination claims submitted to the EEOC were retaliation claims?
48.8% (19)
47
True or false: self – identification is the preferred method of obtaining ethnic and racial information on the EEOC form?
True (20)
48
What is the alternative to self identification on an EEOC form for an employer?
Employers may use the visual identification procedure and maintain a record of which method of identification was used (20)
49
Which executive orders are examples of affirmative action?
```
Executive order 8802
Executive order 11246
Executive order 11246
Executive order 11478
(21)
```
50
Executive order 8802 established what committee?
The committee on fair employment practices within the office of production management (20)
51
Which executive order establishes a nationwide 7% utilization goal for disabled employees?
Order 11246 (21)
52
Which federal office was created by executive order 11246?
The office of federal contract compliance programs OFCCP (21)
53
What is an affirmative action program (AAP)?
Defines the good faith efforts an employer is expected to make to hire and promote minorities, women, Vietnam era veterans, disabled veterans, and people with disabilities. (22)
54
What characteristics define a first-tier subcontractor?
Have 50 or more employees and $50,000 or more in contracts. These subcontractors must develop a written affirmative action program and establish equal employment opportunity goals(22)
55
What are the factors that determine whether or not a business unit is autonomous?
Has its own managing official
Is listed separately on an organizational chart
And/or operates under separate cost centers
(22)
56
A contractor may request permission to prepare this if the unit is autonomous and they are a multi Dash establishment company and service contractor?
Functional affirmative action program --FAAP (22)
57
If a company interested in becoming a federal contractor is found to be in compliance, it may be placed on what registry?
National pre-award registry (22)
58
Organizational display and workforce analysis are part of what?
Organizational profile (22)
59
What is an organizational display?
A detail chart of the organization structure that shows each organizational unit, the relationships between units, and the gender, race, and admissory of all employees within each unit. (23)
60
What is a workforce analysis?
A listing of each job title as it appears in payroll records rank from the lowest paid to the highest paid with in each organizational unit, along with the gender, race, and it necessity of incumbents within each job title. (22)
61
The job group analysis must include what information?
A list of the job titles that comprise each job group (23)
62
Comparing the percentage of minorities and women in each job group with the availability for those job groups is what?
Utilization analysis (23)
63
Underutilization happens when?
The percentage of minorities or women employed in a particular job group as last then would reasonably be expected given their availability percentage (23)
64
How does a contractor address underutilization?
Placement goals – targets to measure progress towards achieving equal employment opportunity
65
The loss of a company's federal contracts
Debarment (24)
66
How the OFCCP notifies Contractor of preliminary finding of a pattern or practice of discrimination
Predetermination notice – PDN (25)
67
What is a right of response?
A contractors ability to refute and OFCCP's officers finding by producing a legitimate, non-discriminatory reasons for his actions (25)
68
This notice from the OFCCP indicates that sufficient evidence exists that discrimination occurred
Notice of violation - NOV (25)
69
When a contractor violates the terms of a conciliation agreement
They will receive a notice of alleged noncompliance 15 – day notice (25)
70
Contractor has 30 days to come into compliance or there will be institution for enforcement proceedings
Show cause notice (25)
71
Statute of limitations for employees to file a complaint with the OFCCP
180 days (26)
72
Statute of limitations for filing a complaint with the OFCCP can be extended when?
Good cause it is shown (26)
73
Contractors must retain employment records for how long?
Two years (26)
74
Two-year employment record retention provision applies to contractors with how many employees and how many dollars in contracts?
At least 150 employees and $150,000 or more in contracts (26)
75
The 2019 minimum wage for federal contractors with construction, service and concession contracts
$10.60 (26)
76
The supreme court irder that a medical school accept a white male applicant who had higher interest test scores and some minorities who had been admitted
Regents of the University of California V Bakke, 1978 (27)
77
The supreme court ruling against a white male who was trying to get into a training program that has been jointly designed by the company and the union to help achieve its affirmative action goals
United steel workers versus Weber, 1979 (27)
78
Third circuit court ruling that the firing of a white teacher violated title VII since there was no manifest in balance caused by prior discrimination that the board's action was intended to correct
Sharon taxman v. Board of Education of the Township of Piscataway 1996 (27)
79
Action programs and minority hiring programs violate title VII when?
There is no manifest in balance caused by prior discrimination (27)
80
Adarand Constructors, Inc. v. Pena, 93 –1841
Establishing racial classifications must be analyzed under strict scrutiny test – – racial classifications are constitutional only if they are narrowly tailored measures further compelling governmental interest
81
The age discrimination in employment act protects employees starting at what age?
40 (28)
82
The age discrimination in employment act - ADEA – excludes who from coverage?
Executives and high policy–making employees. These employees can be forced into retirement at age 65 (28)
83
What are the stipulations for an executive to be forced into retirement at age 65?
Held the position for two years or more immediately preceding retirement and
Be entitled to a retirement income of at least $44,000 per year exclusive of Social Security benefits (28-29)
84
True or false: employers are allowed to provide different health or medical benefits to older workers than younger workers?
False (29)
85
True or false: early retirement programs are allowed under ADEA?
True (29)
86
When can employer make adverse decisions against workers over age 40?
Age is a bona fide occupational qualification for performing the job
The decision is based on a valid seniority system
Disciplinary action or discharge is based on "good cause "
The action is based on "reasonable factors other than age"
87
What is "but for "causation?
In age discrimination claims, the employer must prove that H bias was the reason and only reason for the employer taking adverse action. (29)
88
The lawful reduction of life insurance coverage for older workers due to higher premiums to the employer is an example of what?
"Equal benefit or equal cost principle " – provided by the older workers benefit protection act - OWBPA (29)
89
The ADEA applies to all private employers with how many employees?
20 or more employees (29)
90
The ADEA applies to government employers, employment agencies, and labor unions with how many members?
25 or more members (29)
91
And employee can claim age discrimination if what conditions exist?
The employee is at least 40 years of age
The employer was fired, demoted, or adversely affected
The employee had been performing the job well enough to meet the employer's legitimate expectations (30)
92
Supreme court decision O'Connor v. consolidated coin caterers corporation
Older workers are not required to show they were replaced by someone under the age of 40
93
True or false: older workers can be treated more favorably than younger workers without fear of reverse discrimination violations ?
True (30)
94
And employee 40 or older can only be forced to retirement when?
There are job-related deficiencies in their performance (30)
95
Early retirement programs should follow what four guidelines?
ERISA coordination - summary plan description
Eligibility requirements that are clear and rational
Incentive that is fair and sufficient
Employee acceptance – participation must be knowing and voluntary, and employees must have a clear understanding of the early retirement offer, to consideration for excepting, and ample time for consideration (31)
96
Hallmarks of a good early retirement program (Wendy)
Understandable language
Can waive ADEA rights cannot waive EEOC
Claims after date signed
Cannot include things already being given (paid time off)
consult with attorney
21 days to consider, or 45 days of part of group-7 days to revoke
If part of group must be notified of class affected
97
Requiring performance of difficult, degrading, or boring jobs to force older workers to quit
Constructive discharge - age harassment (31) think uncle kens job or big John
98
What is the Ellerth/Faragher defense?
Clearly defined complaint system - well known to all employees
Charges of harassment are quickly investigated and resolved 32
99
Vocational rehabilitation act 1973
Prevents employment discrimination against people with disabilities. Applies to government contractors/subcontractors w/>$15k contracts. Additionally, government contractors/subcontractors w/>50 EEs & >$50k in contracts must develop written affirmative action programs for hiring and promoting the disabled.
100
Vietnam era veterans readjustment assistance act 1974
Prevents discrimination against all disabled veterans and specifically Vietnam veterans (whether disabled or not). Applies to government contractors/subcontractors w/>$25k contracts. Additionally, government contractors/subcontractors w/>50 EEs & >$100k in contracts must take affirmative action for hiring and promoting disabled veterans and Vietnam era veterans.
101
What is the job posting requirement specified by the Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act (1974)?
Employers must list all job openings with the appropriate local state employment office nearest the facility – except executive and top management jobs, positions filled by promotion from within, and jobs last name three days or less.
102
Vocational rehabilitation act as amended applies to federal government contracts or subcontracts of what dollar amount
$15,000 (33)
103
Contractors and subcontractors with $50,000 or more in contracts and 50 or more employees are required to develop what type of written programs?
They are required to develop a written affirmative action programs for hiring and promoting the disabled
104
Vietnam. Era veterans Readjustment assistance act prohibits discrimination against disabled veterans generally and Vietnam era veterans (whether disabled or not) by federal contractors with...
$25000 or more in federal contracts. (33)
105
Requires employers with $150,000+ in contracts/subcontracts and 50+ employees to take affirmative action in employing and advancing disabled and qualified vets from Vietnam Era.
Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act
106
Vietnam era veterans readjustment assistance act – specific affirmative action requirement regarding job listings
All job openings listed with local state employment office--
Except executive and top management jobs, positions filled by promotion from within, and jobs last in three days or less (34)
107
According to the ADA all employers with how many or more employees are required to avoid discrimination based on disability status and make reasonable accommodations to hire disabled people?
15+ employees (34)
108
Person with a disability is defined as an individual who:
Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities such as caring for oneself, performing manual task, scene, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, communicating, and working
Has a record of such an impairment, such as cancer or heart disease
Is regarded as having such an impairment, such as being a former drug addict or alcoholic (34)
109
True or false: HR managers can often simply and safely assume the employee with common medical conditions are in fact disabled.
True (35)
110
True or false: employers have the right to request medical verification for conditions which are not obvious.
True-a failure on the part of the employee to provide verification may relieve the employer of the duty to accommodate (35)
111
What is Direct Threat?
Significant risk or substantial harm to health or safety of the individual or others that cannot be eliminated or educed by reasonable accommodation. (36)
112
How is direct threat determined?
Individualized assessment of individual's present ability to safely perform essential functions of the job. (36)
Must pose a significant,specific,and current risk of substantial harm -- not a speculative or remote concern
113
Arline v. School Board of Nassau County
Assessment of risk cannot be based on myths and fears about disability and disease (e.g. AIDS) (36)
114
In the hiring process, who's responsibility is it to inquire about an accommodation, the employer or the applicant?
If an otherwise qualified person needs an accommodation, it is that person's responsibility to request it, and the employer decides whether it is reasonable (38)
115
When can an employer ask an applicant how they would perform essential functions of a job?
When the applicant has an obvious disability. (38)
116
Applicant discloses they have a chronically ill child they care for, can the employer safely assume they are not qualified as they will need too much time away from work to care for their child?
No, under ADA and FMLA (83)
117
Damages for violations of title VII and Americans With Disabilities Act are available only for acts of what kind of discrimination?
Damages are available only for acts of intentional discrimination and are not available in cases of disparate impact or for failure to make a reasonable accommodation where the employer shows good faith (38)
118
What are the monetary caps for punitive damages awarded for violations of title seven and ADA?
$50,000 per person for employers with 15 to 100 employees, $100,000 for employers with 101 to 200 employees, $200,000 for employers with 201 to 500 employees, and $300,000 for employers with more than 500 employees. (39)
119
When an employee provides genetic information while documenting a request for a reasonable accommodation, is an example of what kind of acquisition of genetic information by an employer?
Inadvertent acquisition (39)
120
When an employer requests lawful medical information and the employee includes genetic information – is in example of what kind of acquisition of genetic information?
Inadvertent acquisition (39)
121
When the employer provides genetic information to support a request for leave – is an example of what kind of acquisition of genetic information?
Inadvertent acquisition (39)
122
The manager asks their employee how they are doing, and employee reveals genetic information – this is an example of what kind of acquisition of genetic information?
Inadvertent acquisition (39)
123
Under GINA, genetic information is defined to include what?
Employees genetic tests
The tests of a family member
A manifestation of disease or genetic disorder and an employee's family – such as a history of cancer or heart disease (39)
124
Under GINA, genetic information about a person or a family member cannot be used to…
Deny enrollment in an insured or self-insured healthcare plan or to you change the persons premiums or contribution rates (39)
125
Uniformed services employment and reemployment rights act USERRA 1994
Covers both voluntary or involuntary service and includes time spent in active duty, inactive duty training, full time National Guard duty, and physical exams to determine fitness for duty.
The law applies to virtually all employers and there is no minimum number of employees or other limiting threshold (40)
126
Under USERRA, employees who are absent from work due to uniform service are entitled to re-employment if…
They have given either written or oral advance notice of service to the employer (unless prevented by military necessity or otherwise impossible)
And, the cumulative length of all absences because of service does not exceed five years (unless required or ordered to remain in service beyond five years)
127
True or false: those who are separated from service for other than honorable conditions are not protected by USERRA.
True (40)
128
Under USERRA how soon do employees have to report to their employer upon returning Home safely?
Employees absent less than 31 days equals within eight hours
Absent between 31 and 180 days, must submit application for reemployment within 14 days
Absent 181 days or more, have 90 days to submit an application for reemployment. (40)
129
While on a military tour of duty, the employee's company closes the office in which they were employed. Is the employer required to re-employee employee?
No (41)
130
An employee is hired as extra seasonal and is then deployed overseas, is the employer required to re-employ the employee when they return?
No (41)
131
While deployed, employee receives a service-related disability and is no longer qualified for their original position. How is their employer required to accommodate them?
The employee must be placed in a position of equivalent seniority, status, and pay if they cannot perform the duties of the position. (41)
132
If vacations are determined by years of service, the time spent in uniform service would count in determining the number of vacation days employees should receive. This is an example of what?
Escalator principle (41)
133
True or false: employees may choose and are required, to use accrued vacation or similar leave with pay during a period of uniformed service?
False (41)
134
how long are healthcare plans required to provide COBRA type coverage during a period of uniformed service?
24 months (41)
135
During uniform service contributions to defined contribution plans are based upon what?
The rate of pay that employees would have received for that period, OR
For the employees average compensation during the 12 months preceding the period of service.
136
After returning from uniformed service, Employees have how long to make a elective deferral's and required employee contributions?
Three times the length of their service, with a maximum of five years (41)
137
Under USERRA, employees who served more than_____days cannot be terminated, except for just cause, within one year of re-employment.
180 days (41)
138
Under USERRA, employees who served_____days cannot be terminated, except for cause, within 180 days after re-employment.
30-181 days
139
An I-9 form must be completed within how many days of employment?
3 days - if the job last less than three days, the form must be completed before work is started (42)
140
How long are employers required to retain I-9 forms?
Three years, or for one year past the employment of the individual, whichever is longer (42)
141
The law prohibits employers with how many employees from discriminating against applicants based on citizenship or national origin?
4 or more (43)
142
Job analysis – the study of jobs within an organization – consists of analyzing what details of a job?
The activities that an employee performs; the tools, equipment, and work aids that the employee uses; and the working conditions under which the activities are performed. (77)
143
The difference between job analysis and job evaluation
Job analysis – focuses on what the job holder does and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to do it
Job evaluation – focuses on how much money the job holder should be paid for performing the job (77)
144
Job analyses are performed on what three occasions?
When the organization is first started and the job analysis program is initiated for the first time
When a new job is created
When a job is changed significantly as a result of new methods, new procedures, or new technology. (77)
145
What are the two products that result from the job analysis?
```
Job description
Job specification (77)
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146
What is competency modeling?
Process of determining specific competencies associated with being a high performer in a particular occupation or industry (77)
147
Some of the major uses of job analysis information include…
```
Human resource planning
Recruiting
Selection
Orientation
Evaluation
Compensation
Training
Discipline
Safety
Job redesign
Legal protection (77-78)
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148
Competency models facilitate the following objectives…
Communicate industry needs, career exploration end guidance, career paths, ladders, and lattices, workforce planning, curriculum development and evaluation, HR services to business, and certification and licensure. (78)
149
The job description identifies essential functions of a job and provides information concerning duties and responsibilities contained in job. What are the major items that should be included in the job description?
Identification, job summary, duties and responsibilities – essential functions, job specification. (79)
150
Difference between a essential and nonessential functions?
Essential functions include major tasks duties and responsibilities performed, and are the reason the job exist, and cannot be modified or eliminated without substantial change in the nature of the job.
Nonessential functions include tasks that can be modified or reassigned to others without changing the core nature of the job. (79)
151
Job specifications identify the minimum acceptable qualifications required for an employee to perform job adequately. What three categories does the information contained in a job certification fall into?
General qualification requirements
Educational and professional requirements
Knowledge skills and abilities (80)
152
Describe the building blocks competency model template.
At lower levels there are three foundational tiers of competencies relevant to all employees, followed by two tiers of competencies relevant to a unique industry, and followed by two upper tiers of competencies relevant to a specific occupation.
153
Describe the six tiers of the building blocks competency model template.
Tier 1: personal effectiveness competencies
tier 2: academic competencies
Tier 3: workplace competencies
Tier 4: industrywide competencies
Tier 5: sector or industry specific competencies
Tiers 6 and 7: occupation specific competencies (in specific industries) (80)
154
What are the three major steps in developing a competency model?
Formulate a first draft that lists knowledge, skills, and abilities that are important to job performance.
Systematically survey the opinions of content experts, especially those who currently work in this occupation.
Conduct a criterion-related validation study to demonstrate it's statistical relationship between the competencies and measures of individual and organizational performance. (81)
155
What are the four methods used to gather job analysis information?
Observations,interviews,questionnaires, employee recordings (82)
156
What is then best method for gathering job analysis information?
An integrated job analysis using a combo of methods (82)
157
PAQ - Position Analysis Questionnaire
| Checklist of 195 job elements - what six categories of each job does it measure?
```
Information input
Mental processes
Work output
Relationships
Context
Other characteristics (83)
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158
Criticisms of PAQ?
Not useful on some unique jobs
| Naive raters are not reliable (84)
159
Functional job analysis assumes all jobs involves basic activities associated with what?
Data - mental requirements
People - interpersonal skills
Things- physical skill requirements (84)
160
FJA includes what two sections?
1. Performance standard and training requirements
2. Extent to which four dimensions are necessary -- job instructions, reasoning and judgement,mathematical ability,language abilities (85)
161
What is job analysis information used for?
Recruitment, training, and compensation (77)
162
Describe the common metric questionnaire (CMQ)
283 item questionnaire design to analyze exempt and nonexempt jobs.
Contains five sections: background, contacts with people, decision-making, physical and mechanical activities, and work setting (85)
163
Describe the occupational analysis inventory (OAI)
617 work elements that are used to measure five major job dimensions: information received, mental activities, work behavior, work goals, and work context (86)
Evaluators rate each job element on one of four rating scales: part of the job, extent, applicability, or a special scale designed for the element
164
Describe Multipurpose occupational systems analysis inventory-closed ended (MOSAIC)
Structured questionnaires for analyzing government occupations developed by the office of personnel management (86)
165
Describe the Fleishman Job Analysis Survey (FJAS)
A taxonomy of abilities derived from extensive research that uses scales to rate the level of ability required to perform 52 cognitive, physical, psycho motor, and sensory abilities (86)
166
How are employee recordings used for job analysis?
Employees will maintain time logs or daily diaries to help analyze how time is actually spent and which activities are performed each day (86)
167
What does Recruiting refer to?
Attracting potential job applicants from the external labor force (87)
168
What does employment branding refer to?
Projecting an image that makes people want to work for the company (87)
169
The image of a company used in employment branding comes from what?
Employee value proposition (EVP) (87)
170
What is an employee value proposition?
Describes what the company has to offer to its employees relative to the rewards offered by other places of employment
Answers the question "what would make the needed employees want to join the organization, be motivated to do their best work, and want to stay? " (87)
171
What are some of the details included in an employee value proposition (EVP)?
Compensation, benefits, work content, work environment, training opportunities and career development, organization's reputation and culture (87)
172
What are the three things a company's employment brand and EVP should do?
Communicate the company's culture, values, and objectives, and build the public's image of the organization
Provide an honest picture of the company's work environment
Tie the company's employment brand to its product brand (87)
173
Where are some of the places/platforms a company can convey its culture, values, and objectives, while building the public image of the organization? (EVP)
Corporate website; attending conventions, job fairs, and on campus recruiting events; advertising on television, radio, and print media; participating in public, community, and charitable events; Garnering notice on "best employer " lists (87)
174
In an effort to provide an honest picture of a company's work environment, and affective value proposition should highlight what two things?
It should highlight both the company's strengths as an employer and explain strategies for improving unfavorable circumstances (87)
175
What are some of the positive affects of effective employment branding?
Improve an organization's reputation and exposure, increase the number and quality of applicants for available jobs, reduce turnover rate, and increase overall workforce productivity (88)
176
The recruitment process consists of what four steps?
Formulating a recruiting strategy, searching for job applicants, screening out those who are obviously unfit, and maintaining an applicant pool (88)
177
Recruiting activities in an organization are mainly controlled by what?
Employee requisitions sent to the HR department (88)
178
What are employee requisitions?
Formal authorizations to fill positions - managers are responsible for submitting employee requisitions as the final step in the human resource planning process (88)
179
An employee requisition should specify what two critical details about the job?
Job description and job specification (88)
180
What is one of the least expensive methods for advertising an open position in a company?
Posting on the company's website (88)
181
What are yield ratios and how are they used in recruiting?
They help organizations decide how many candidates to recruit for each job opening
Express the relationship between number of people at one step of the recruiting process relative to number of people who will move onto the next step. (89)
182
A company with a campus recruiting effort has a yield ratio of campus interviews to on site invitations of 6 to 1; the yield ratio of on-site invitations to job offers is 5 to 1; and the yield ratio of job offers to acceptances is 2 to 1.
Based on these ratios what is the calculated overall yield ratio?
60:1
| 60 college students are interviewed for every person who accepts a position (89)
183
If a company reports that they have an overall yield ratio of 100:1, how many applicants are being interviewed to fill one position?
100 (89)
184
What does quality of hire refer to in recruiting?
A metric used by organizations to help them evaluate the effectiveness of their hiring process (90)
185
What are examples of some of the measures commonly used in determining quality of hire in recruiting?
On the job performance, retention rate, performance appraisal score, relationship between interview and performance, customer service score, 360° feedback score, talent score card, rate of salary increase, performance error rates, inclusion in succession plan, promotion rate, promotion frequency, average bonus (90)
186
Describe a job posting system for the purposes of internal recruiting.
the organization notifies present employees about job openings through bulletin boards, company publications, or personal letters (90)
187
What does job bidding do?
Allows individuals who believe they have the required qualifications to apply for available jobs in a company (90)
188
What are guidelines for an effective job posting and bidding system for internal recruiting?
Jobs should be posted in prominent places or advertised in a way that interested employees are likely to see them
All full-time positions and transfer opportunities should be posted
Job openings should be posted for at least one week prior to recruiting from outside
Job specifications should be included with the listing
Eligibility rules and criteria for deciding how the job will be filled should be clarified
All applicants should be informed about the decision (91)
189
An effective promotion from within policy requires companies to hire what level of employees who might be overqualified for their initial job but capable of being trained for more responsible positions?
Entry-level employees (91)
190
What is the advantage of hiring former employees who have been laid off or have quit?
They are already trained and familiar with company policies (92)
191
What are some examples of how companies stay connected with former employees?
Social media, alumni newsletter, referral bonuses, access to training and career development tools, product discounts (92)
192
What does nepotism refer to?
Favoritism shown to friends and relatives. (93)
193
True or False: relying on contacts and referrals for finding new employees can adversely impact equal employment opportunity and affirmative action goals?
True: friends and relatives tend to be of the same race and gender as present employees. (93)
194
What are three recommendations for successfully hiring family members and preventing nepotism?
Avoid playing favorites - family members required to achieve same competence levels of other candidates
Require family members obtain outside experience
Provide management support for following correct procedures (93)
195
True or false: offering only web-based options for job applications may have an adverse impact on minorities?
True: minorities may be less likely to have convenient or reliable access to the Internet. (94)
A study of minority and non-minority groups revealed that non-minority groups were much more likely to apply using the web 80.9%, then minority groups 58.7%
196
High schools are excellent sources of employees for what types of jobs?
Jobs that require very little skill, such as blue-collar jobs, clerical jobs, and jobs in the retail industry. (94)
197
Vocational schools are generally excellent sources of applicants for what kind of jobs?
Skilled trades and technical positions (94)
198
Colleges and universities are good sources of employees for what types of jobs?
Supervisory, managerial, and professional positions (94)
199
Describe what an internship is
An arrangement between an organization and an educational institution to provide specialized training for students. (94)
For example: as part of their educational curriculum, students work for an organization and obtain educational credit for their work
200
What are examples of the labor union hiring hall abuses as an employment service for members?
Creating artificial labor shortages to inflate wage levels, manipulating referral list to provide preferential hiring, withholding services to out of town employers to help local employers maintain in monopoly. (95)
201
How does the labor union work as an employment service for its members?
It acts as an intermediary between the employer and the labor force through a union hiring hall (95)
202
The US Army is PAYS program is an example of what kind of resource for Recruiting and potential employees?
Trade and professional associations (95)
203
What did the Wagner-Peyser act of 1933 create in relation to employment?
Public employment agencies or job service offices (95)
204
Who is responsible for operation of public employment agencies?
Each public employment agency is operated by each state under general direction of USTES (95)
205
What are the benefits to job seekers that job service offices provide?
Job placement, unemployment insurance, labor market information, testing, employer consultation, training programs, and individual counseling (96)
206
What is the typical fee or cost for using private employment agencies?
Between 10 to 20% of the employees first years salary, which is normally assessed to the party that is being served. (96)
207
What is a common fee for using an executive search firm?
30 to 40% of an executive's annual salary (97)
208
What types of positions are executive search firm's or Headhunters brought into place?
Top level executives and experienced professionals (97)
209
When would an organization want to use a private employment agency to fill open positions?
For specialty positions in areas such as engineering, human resources, or computer programming (97)
210
What are some examples of traditional media used for advertising job openings?
Newspaper, help wanted signs, spot announcements on radio and television (97)
211
In order to avoid discrimination, job advertisements using traditional media should not indicate preferences in what areas?
Age, race, religion, national origin, or sex (97)
212
The number of unsolicited applications that an organization receives is largely determined by what?
It's reputation as a good place to work.
Companies perceived as model employers often receive hundreds of unsolicited applications each week (98)
213
What are the typical mark ups for temporary workers? Are
For temporary workers for temp to permanent placements, typical range of the mark up is 40 to 60% (98)
214
Organizations who hire temporary employees in high-volume what kind of computer software program can They use to facilitate this?
Procurement software: Integrator Staffing needs and communicates information to temporary staffing agencies (98)
215
What are the advantages of using procurement software for staffing?
Avoids competition for scarce supply of temp talent, reduces time and expense of matching staffing needs, and reduces administrative burden – – verifying timesheets, compensation, and billing (99)
216
What is a gig worker?
An employee located via a digital marketplace for a single project that could take anywhere from a few minutes to a number of months to complete (99)
217
According to the bureau of labor statistics what are the five categories of occupations that are best suited for gig work?
Arts and design, computer and information technology, construction, media and communications, transportation and material moving (99)
218
What is the primary purpose for a resume referral network?
To get more people into the selection process for companies to consider and a more efficient outlet for candidates (100)
Resume sharing reduces recruiting costs and makes the process more convenient for all parties
219
True or false: promotion from within has a negative effect upon employee motivation in a company?
False: knowing there are opportunities to be promoted tends to motivate better performance, increase employee satisfaction, and solidify feelings of loyalty toward the company (100)
220
What are disadvantages of promoting from within?
Narrow thinking and stale ideas, political infighting, requires strong management development program, creates homogeneous workforce
221
What are the advantages of external hiring?
New ideas and new insights, making changes without pleasing constituent groups, no change to present organizational hierarchy, greater diversity and achieving EEO goals (100-101)
222
What are disadvantages of external hiring?
Loss of time for adjustment, minimizes incentive for present employees to strive for promotion, unsure if the new individual will fit with the rest of the organization, potential lawsuit if non-compete agreement is in place with a competitor (101)
223
What particular issues should be examined when evaluating a company's recruiting process?
Average cost per hire, average fill time, employee tenure and average turnover, yield ratios, recruiting advertisement effectiveness, recruiting efforts consistent with EEO and affirmative action goals, procedures for collecting and storing applicant information, criteria used for screening applicants, organizations current image and ability to entice people for employment (102)
224
What does fill time refer to?
How long it takes to replace a departing employee (101)
225
Advertisements or notices for employment are generally illegal if they indicate a preference for what types of applicants?
A particular race, color, religion, gender, national origin, citizenship, age, disability, or veteran status (102)
226
The process of making an informed hiring decision depends on what to basic principles ?
Past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior
Collect as much reliable and valid data as economically feasible and then use it to select the best applicants (105)
227
What type of analysis should determine the order of steps in an application process?
Cost benefit analysis: the most costly and subjective steps should be placed at the end of the process with your applicants remain in the pool (105)
228
What are the typical steps in the candidate selection process?
Preliminary screening, application blanks, interviews, employee testing, reference and background checks, drug testing, final interview, selection decision and offer, post offer medical exam, placement on the job (106)
229
What does reliability refer to in regards to selection information in hiring?
The consistency of measurement or repeatability
For example: and achievement test is said to be reliable if individuals obtain essentially the same scores each time they take the test (106)
230
Reliability in employee selection with correlation coefficients below .70 are generally considered acceptable or unacceptable?
Unacceptable (107)
231
What are some of the common reasons for selection information to be considered unreliable?
Selection instrument may be ambiguous and unclear
Person using the measuring instrument may not have a clear perception of the behavior being measured or well defined standard
Behavior being evaluated may be an unstable phenomenon that changes from time to time (107)
232
True or false: reliability is not the same as accuracy
True: a measuring instrument may be reliable and still not be accurate (107)
233
What are operational definitions?
The tests used to estimate the reliability of a measuring instrument (107)
234
What are the four operational definitions of reliability?
Test- retest reliability, alternate – forms reliability, split – halves reliability, and interrater reliability
Each produces a correlation coefficient which can range between +1.00 and -1.00 (107)
235
What is test-retest reliability?
Using the same measure twice on the same sample of people in determining if the second measures are similar to the first. (107-8)
236
In test-retest reliability what is a useful rule to apply when determining enough time between the initial test and the second retest?
Enough time should pass so that individuals do not remember the responses they made the first time, but not so much time that the characteristic being measured has an opportunity to change (108)
One week interval is sufficient for testing the reliability of application blanks, interviews, personality test.
237
When test publishers develop two or more forms of the same test, and then compare the scores of test takers for similarity – this is an example of what kind of reliability testing?
Alternate forms reliability (coefficient of equivalence) - if the scores are highly correlated, the test is said to be a reliable instrument (108)
238
What is the time advantage of using alternate forms reliability versus test retest reliability?
Alternate forms reliability avoids the problem of having to decide how long to wait to administer the second form (108)
239
What is split halves reliability (coefficient of internal consistency)?
When a measuring instrument is split in half, forming two separate scores, and then correlating the scores for each individual to determine if comparable scores have been obtained (108)
240
What is the only condition in which split halves reliability can be used?
When the test is measuring a single dimension. The two halves must theoretically measure the same personal characteristic (108)
241
The degree of consistency between the scores assigned by two different observers is referred to as what type of reliability?
Interrater reliability or conspect reliability (108)
Particularly important in assessing reliability of interviews and performance evaluations
242
If two interviewers talk with a group of individuals and independently evaluate them, their evaluations are said to have high or low interrater reliability if they agree?
High inter-rater reliability (109)
Interrater reliability's of interviews and performance evaluations are often low
243
The extent to which a predictor variable is correlated with a criterion variable is referred to as what?
Validity (109)
244
The difference between a predictor variable and a criterion variable?
Predictor: all kinds of information collected as part of the employment process, such as application blank data, interview data, test scores.
Criterion: a measure of job performance such as productivity, absenteeism, tardiness, supervisory evaluations (109)
245
What are the five methods for evaluating validity of a selection procedure?
Predictive validity, concurrent validity, content validity, construct validity, synthetic validity (110)
246
Describe the procedure used for determining predictive validity
Gathering predictor information on job applicants when they apply for employment without using the information in the hiring decision. Afternoon employees have been hired, on boarded and trained, criteria data such as performance measures are obtained, and a correlation coefficient is computed between predictor data and criteria data. (110)
247
What is concurrent validity?
collection of predictor and criteria data on a sample of present employees, and then correlating them to determine if a relationship exists (110)
248
When would a company want to pick concurrent validity over predictive validity?
When a company is not conducting a high volume of new hiring And needs to wait a long period of time before a sample size is large enough to conduct a predictive validity study. (110)
249
In The uniform guidelines on employee selection procedures, employers are asked by the EEOC to provide evidence of what kind of validity?
Criterion related validity: guidelines call for empirical data demonstrating selection procedures are predictive of or significantly correlated with important elements of job performance (110)
250
What is content validity?
Face validity-Perceived similarity between predictor information and nature of the job.
Ex. A typing test for a typist
251
Under what condition is the EEOC willing to except a content validity study?
When the employer can show that content of selection procedure represents important aspects of performance on the job for which candidates are evaluated (111)
252
According to the EEOC when is content validity strategy not appropriate?
For demonstrating validity of selection procedures that measure traits, or constructs, such as intelligence, attitude, personality, common sense, judgment, and leadership. (111)
253
What are examples of prominent psychological constructs?
Intelligence, aggressiveness, need for achievement, and honesty (112)
254
Whether an instrument that purports to measure a psychological construct is actually measuring what it claims to be measuring refers to what type of validity?
Construct validity: example – If IQ test has construct validity, people with high scores should be able to solve more puzzles and do other things requiring intelligence than people with low scores.
255
True or false: construct validity is accepted by the EEOC
True: if there is sufficient research evidence to show the test is a valid measure of a construct and if a job analysis determines this construct is a crucial job duty or essential for successful performance. Ex. Use of honesty tests in the retail industry (112)
256
Synthetic validity involves what three steps?
Developing a battery of tests measuring various aptitudes, conducting a job analysis to identify which jobs require which attitudes, and validating each test in the battery by combining jobs that require that aptitude. (112)
257
What type of validation would be ideal for small organizations with two or three people in a job?
Synthetic validity or validation by parts (112)
258
What is validity generalization?
Tests which consistently predict success for a few jobs of similar complexity can be used to predict success in related occupations within the same job family (112)
259
What is the purpose of the uniform guidelines on employee selection procedures?
The guidelines remove ambiguities and inconsistencies of previous guidelines, and establish a uniform position concerning employment discrimination and procedures required to eliminate discrimination (113)
260
What do the uniform guidelines on employee selection procedures apply to?
Tests and other selection procedures that are used as a basis for any employment decision (113)
261
What are the three major strategies used by the uniform guidelines to validate a selection process?
Criterion related validity, content validity, construct validity (113)
262
What is the level of statistical significance adopted by the EEOC for demonstrating validity?
.05 = there are only five chances in 100 of obtaining a correlation this high when there is no relationship (113)
263
What is the primary purpose of an application blank?
Provide meaningful employment information that helps ,are accurate hiring decisions (113)
264
How can an application blank be used to prepare an interviewer for the interview?
Identify time lapses ,discrepancies in dates, and significant contributions and experiences of the applicant (113)
265
What an information on an application bank can aid with reference checks?
Names,dates,and places (114)
266
What information does an application blank provide for personnel records?
Vital statistics, social security number,addresses,emergency contacts. (114)
267
What four types of information are typically requested in an application blank?
Vital statistics, educational background, work history, background experiences (114)
268
The test retest reliability of application blanks tends to be high or low?
Extraordinarily high: since applicants can easily report the same kinds of information both times. (114)
269
What are examples of application blanks with higher validity?
Weighted application blanks, bio data forms, or biographical information blanks (115)
270
What is graphology?
A form of handwriting analysis used to study personality. (115)
High reliability, but Questionable validity
271
What is the best method for evaluating an employment application?
A weighted application blank procedure - these reduce the degree of subjectivity by substituting a weighted composite score for a clinical judgment (115)
272
How valid are weighted application blanks in predicting performance and length of service?
Highly valid - one of the most valid selection devices. (117)
273
The EOC prohibits use a recruiting methods that have what kind of affect on members of minority groups unless they are valid predictors of successful job performance or can be justified by business necessity?
Recruiting methods that disproportionately eliminate members of minority groups (117)
274
The EEOC does recognize that some entry-level's have a _____ that require hiring applicants who have KSA's that are not needed immediately but required later for higher level positions?
Line of progression (120)
275
True or false: discrimination is a function of how people are treated, not what they are asked
True: a recruiter who is prejudiced has countless ways to determine age, race, and sex without asking (120)
276
True or false: Employment interviews are generally very reliable and, provide enough valid information about an applicant?
False: interviews are generally unreliable and therefore do not provide valid information (120)
277
What are four legitimate reasons for conducting employment interviews?
To obtain information about the applicant, sell the company, provide information about the organization, and establish friendship (120-21)
278
What are three common types of interviews?
Stress interviews, group interviews, and board interviews (121)
279
This type of interview is highly structured and considered very restrictive, allow a little opportunity for either the interviewer or the applicant to qualify or elaborate on information being exchanged?
Patterned or structured interview (121)
280
What is an advantage of a patterned type of interview?
The interview is less biased and more reliable than less structured interviews (122)
281
And what type of interview are major questions prepared in advance to guide the interview, yet allow for the interviewer to probe into areas that merit further investigation?
Semi structured interview (122)
282
The following questions are used in what type of interview:
Why did you choose your particular field of work?
What courses in school did you like best and least, why?
What do you hope to be doing 10 years from now?
Semi structured interview (122)
283
What are two types of interviews that are trying to make semi structured interviews more reliable?
Situational interviewing and targeted selection interviews (122)
284
Situational interviewing and targeted selection interviews are also known as what?
Behavioral interviews: they focus on how applicants describe past or anticipated future behaviors (122)
285
Describe what a situational interview is?
Asking job candidates to respond to a series of hypothetical situations by deciding how they would solve certain problems and what actions and solutions they would actually perform on the job (122)
286
Situational interviewing has proven effective in predicting immediate and future potential of what to job types?
Sales associates and public relations agents (122)
287
Describe what a targeted selection interview is?
Target interviews assume past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior, and questions focus on what the person has done in previous situations (122)
288
The ideal response to a behavioral interview question should contain what three components?
The situation or task the applicant faced, action the applicant took in the situation, and the result that occurred as a result of the action (122-23)
289
True or false: targeted selection interviews are more reliable and valid than semi structured interviews?
True (122)
