Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Higher Biology - 2021/2022 > Unit 2 - Physiology and Health > Flashcards

Unit 2 - Physiology and Health Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What causes puberty?

A

The release of releaser hormones from the hippocampus causes the pituitary gland to produced hormones follicle stimulating hormone, luteinising hormone/interstitial cell stimulating hormone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In males, what does follicle stimulating hormone do?

A

Promotes sperm production in the seminiferous tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In males, what does interstitial cell stimulating hormone do?

A

Promotes testosterone production in the seminiferous tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where is sperm produced?

A

Seminiferous tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does testosterone do?

A

Stimulates sperm production by acting on the seminiferous tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In females, what does follicle stimulating hormone do?

A

Stimulates the development of the follicle and the production of oestrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In females, what does luteinising hormone do?

A

Stimulates ovulation and the development of the corpus luteum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the corpus luteum?

A

Structure that forms after ovulation. Secretes progesterone. Forms from empty follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a Graafian follicle?

A

Fully mature follicle with a ready-to-release ovum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does progesterone do?

A

Promotes the vascularisation of the endometrium and inhibits FSH and LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does oestrogen do?

A

Secreted by the growing follicle. Builds the endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does fertilisation take place?

A

Oviduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is vascularisatiom?

A

The growing of blood vessels through the endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is only one ova released at a time?

A

FSH triggers the development of a follicle and that follicle releases oestrogen which inhibits the FSH and prevents another ova being developed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What occurs during the Follicular Phase?

A

FSH is released
FSH stimulates the development of a follicle
Follicle secrets oestrogen
Oestrogen inhibits FSH
Oestrogen builds the endometrium preparing it for implantation
Peak level of oestrogen causes the release of luteinising hormone (LH)
LH trigger ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is phase 1 of the menstrual cycle called?

A

The Follicular Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What occurs during the Luteal Phase?

A

Ovulation occurs
Empty follicle develops in a corpus luteum
Corpus luteum secretes progesterone
Progesterone further develops the endometrium and vascularises it
If fertilisation occurs, corpus luteum does not regenerate and progesterone levels remain high
If fertilisation does not occur, corpus luteum degenerates, progesterone levels drop, menstruation occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is phase 2 of the menstrual cycle called?

A

The luteal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens during ovulation?

A

Ovum is released from follicle in the ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens when oestrogen levels peak?

A

Release of luteinising hormone and ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens at day 14 in the menstrual cycle?

A

LH is released and ovulation begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What inhibits FSH and LH?

A

Oestrogen and Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the negative feedback cycle in male hormones?

A

High levels of testosterone inhibit the production of FSH and ICSH in the pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are contraceptives used for?

A

Avoid unwanted pregnancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Give examples of chemical contraceptives…

A

Morning After Pill - taken after unprotected sex to prevent implantation if fertilisation occurs.
Mini pills - contains synthetic progesterone, causes mucus to thicken reducing sperms ability to reach ovum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the side effects of the mini-pill?

A

Mood swings, must been taken daily, weight gain, breast tenderness. irregular menstrual cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Give examples of physical methods of contraceptives…

A 
Condoms
Diaphragm
Cervical cap
IUD
Vasectomy
Tubal Ligation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What reasons are there for infertility?

A
  • Ovulation Failure
  • Low Sperm Count
  • Uterine Blockages
  • Implantation Failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What treatment is there for ovulation failure?

A

Drugs that prevent the negative feedback effect of oestrogen on FSH and ICSH, causing multiple eggs to mature at once, referred to as ‘super-ovulation’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why is artificial insemination used and how?

A
  • Used when a male has a low sperm count
  • Sperm is collected and processed in a lab
  • Semen are artificially injected into the uterus to increase chances of fertilisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why would sperm be processed in the lab for artificial insemination?

A

To ensure only viable sperm are used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When would a sperm donor be used?

A

When the male is sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When is intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection used, and how does it work?

A
  • Used when a male has a low sperm count or defective sperm

- The head of a sperm is artificially injected into an ovum to achieve fertilisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Intra-Vitro Fertilisation?

A
  • IVF is when the ovum and sperm are fertilised outside outside the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When does menstruation take place and what occurs during it?

A
  • Occurs during days 1-7

- Endometrium breaks down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is Pre-Implantation Genetic Diagnosis?

A
  • Before IVF, 1 or 2 cells are removed and are tested for genetic abnormalities
  • Focus on known chromosomal abnormalities and gene defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is Ante-Natal Screening?

A

Tests which are carried out while the baby is developing to monitor the health of the mother and foetus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Give examples of Ante-natal screening

A
  • Ultrasound imaging
  • Blood and Urine Tests
  • Diagnostic Testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the two types of ultrasound imaging?

A
  • Dating scan

- Anomaly scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When is a dating scan carried out and what does it do?

A
  • 8 to 14 weeks

- used to determine the stage of pregnancy and provide a due date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When is an anomaly scan carried out and what does it do?

A
  • 18 to 20 weeks

- Used to determine presence of serious anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Why are blood and urine carried out?

A
  • Risk assessment for genetic disorders in the foetus

- routine check for marker chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens if a blood or urine test is carried out at the wrong time?

A

can show a false positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is diagnostic testing used to do?

A
  • 100% accurate
  • shows the presence or absence of a specific condition/disorder
  • chronic villus sampling
  • amniocentesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is karyotyping?

A

A visual display of chromosome complement to check for chromosome disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does an ultrasound show?

A

Provides an image of the growing foetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How does an ultrasound work?

A

Bounces high frequency waves against the internal structures of the abdomen and creating an image on a computer screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Give examples of diagnostic tests

A
  • Amniocentesis

- Chronic Villus Sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Why are diagnostic tests carried out?

A

So the mother can make an informed choice about keeping or terminating the child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is amniocentesis carried out and what are the risks?

A
  • Carried out between 16-18 weeks
  • Small risk of miscarriage
  • Allows karyotyping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When is chronic villus sampling carried out and what are the risks?

A
  • Carried out at around 8 weeks
  • more invasive -> greater risk of miscarriage
  • allows karyotyping
52
Q

What advantage does chronic villus sampling have over amniocentesis?

A

Is carried out at an earlier date so mother can make an informed choice earlier

53
Q

When is postnatal screening carried out?

A

After the baby is born

54
Q

What is phenylketonuria and how is it treated?

A
  • when the body can’t metabolise milk
  • treatment is a restricted diet
  • tested for by a heel prick
55
Q

What does autosomal mean?

A

Chromosomes that aren’t sex chromosomes

56
Q

What is a carrier?

A

Someone who has a defective gene but does not display the condition
only occurs when the defective gene is recessive

57
Q

What does sex-linked mean?

A

A condition that is passed on through a defective gene on the X chromosome

58
Q

What is autosomal dominant inheritance?

A
  • The defective gene is a dominant allele
  • If you have one faulty allele then you have the condition
  • Affect both sexes equally
59
Q

What is autosomal recessive inheritance

A
  • The defective gene is recessive
  • You have to inherit a faulty allele from each parent to inherit the condition
  • Can skip generations
  • Both sexes are equally affected
  • Examples include PKU and Cystic Fibrosis
60
Q

What is sex-linked inheritance?

A
  • Daughters of affected males will either be carriers or affected by the condition
  • Can skip generations
  • Affects more males than females
  • Can be recessive or dominant
61
Q

What is blood made out of?

A
  • Red blood cells
  • Plasma
  • White blood cells
62
Q

What are the characteristics of an artery?

A
  • Thick outer wall
  • Narrow lumen
  • Thick layer of elastic fibres and muscles
63
Q

What are the characteristics of a vein?

A
  • Relatively thin outer wall
  • Thin layer of elastic fibres and muscle
  • Wide lumen
64
Q

What are the characteristics of a capillary?

A
  • very small lumen

- wall made of a single layer of cells

65
Q

How is blood flow controlled?

A

Contraction and relaxation of the muscle in the wall of the artery
(Vasoconstriction, Vasodilation)

66
Q

Does blood pressure increase or decrease as it moves away from the heart?

A

Decrease

67
Q

How does tissue fluid leave and enter the capillaries?

A

Osmosis - down a concentration gradient

68
Q

What is tissue fluid made of?

A

Basically just blood plasma minus the plasma proteins

69
Q

What does tissue fluid supply to the cells?

A

Glucose
Oxygen
Amino Acids

70
Q

What does tissue fluid remove from the cells?

A

Carbon dioxide

Waste products

71
Q

What happens to the tissue fluid that does not return by osmosis to the capillaries?

A

Is absorbed by the lymphatic vessels, is transported by the lymphatic system back into the circulatory system. Becomes known as lymph

72
Q

How do you calculate cardiac output?

A

stroke volume x heart rate

73
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

the volume of blood expelled by each ventricle on contraction

74
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

the volume of blood that is pumped through each ventricle per minute

75
Q

Where is the sino-atrial node located?

A

Left wall of the right atrium

It is the pacemaker of the heart

76
Q

Where is the atrio-ventricular node located?

A

in the inner muscle of the right atrium

77
Q

What are the three stages in the cardiac cycle, in order?

A
  • atrial and ventricular diastole
  • atrial systole
  • ventricular systole
78
Q

What happens during atrial and ventricular diastole?

A
  • atria and ventricles are relaxed
  • blood flows from the pulmonary vein and the vena cava into the heart
  • volume of blood increases in the atria
  • increased volume pushes AV valves
  • blood flows into ventricles
  • SL valves are closed
79
Q

What happens during atrial systole?

A
  • both atria contract
  • blood is forced into ventricles
  • SL valves remain closed
80
Q

What happens during ventricular systole?

A
  • AV valves close
  • ventricles contract
  • SL valves are pushed open
  • blood is pumped out of the heart through the pulmonary artery and aorta
81
Q

What does an ECG show?

A

The electrical impulses generated by the beating of a heart
Shown as a wave
Can pick up abnormalities such as heart damage, high blood pressure and arrhythmia

82
Q

What is the P wave in an ECG?

A

The electrical impulse of tissue spreading over the atria from the Sino-Atria node and the contraction of the atria - systole

83
Q

What does the QRS complex show in an ECG?

A

Shows the firing of the Atrio-Ventricular node causing the tissue of the ventricles to contract (systole)

84
Q

What does the T wave in an ECG show?

A

The recovery of the atrio-ventricular node and the ventricles returning to their relaxed state (diastole)

85
Q

How do you calculate heart rate?

A

heart rate = time/intervals

where intervals = no. of peaks in blood pressure

86
Q

How do you calculate pulse rate?

A

pulse rate = diastolic pressure + systolic pressure

87
Q

What number is the diastolic pressure and what number is the systolic pressure?

A

Diastolic pressure = smaller number

Systolic pressure = bigger number

88
Q

What controls heart rate?

A
  • Sino atrial node (auto rhythmic cells)
  • Nervous system
  • Hormonal activity
89
Q

How does the nervous system act to control heart rate?

A

Antagonistically

90
Q

What effect do sympathetic nerves have on heart rate?

A
  • Release noradrenaline to trigger release of adrenaline which increases heart rate
91
Q

What effect do parasympathetic nerves have on heart rate?

A

Releases acetylcholine which decreases heart rate

92
Q

What is cardiovascular disease?

A

General term used to describe disease in the heart or blood vessels

93
Q

Give examples of risk factors for cardiovascular disease

A
  • high blood pressure
  • smoking
  • high blood cholesterol
  • diabetes
  • lack of exercise
  • obesity
  • history of heart disease
94
Q

How do you calculate BPI?

A

BPI = body mass (kg) / height^2 (m^2)

95
Q

When is a person classed as obese?

A

When BPI > 30kgm^2

96
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A

When the smooth wall of the blood vessels becomes roughened by the development of an atheroma (plaque)

97
Q

What is an atheroma made of?

A

Fatty material, calcium, cholesterol

98
Q

What can cause blood clots?

A

The rupture of an atheroma which damages of an endothelium

99
Q

What does clotting do?

A

Protect damaged cells

100
Q

How does the process of clotting work?

A
  • Damaged cells signal the release of clotting factors
  • Clotting factors convert inactive enzyme prothrombin into active thrombin
  • Thrombin converts soluble protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin
  • Fibrin acts as a scaffold for platelets to create a clot and seal the wound.
101
Q

Why is fibrinogen soluble but fibrin is insoluble?

A
  • Soluble so it can travel through blood stream

- Insoluble so it doesn’t break apart

102
Q

What is a thrombosis?

A

The formation of a blood clot

103
Q

What is an embolus?

A

A thrombus that has broken loose

104
Q

What issues can a embolus cause?

A
  • severe blood flow restriction

- artery blockages

105
Q

What is it called when a embolus blocks an coronary artery?

A

Coronary thrombosis

106
Q

What causes a stroke?

A
  • A thrombus causes a blockage in the vessels of the brain

- cells deprived of oxygen lead to the death of the tissue in the brain

107
Q

What is a peripheral artery?

A

Any artery other than the aorta, coronary and carotid arteries

108
Q

What happens to peripheral arteries when affected by atherosclerosis?

A

Central cavity becomes smaller/narrower

Leads to peripheral vascular disease

109
Q

PVD affects the arteries in the legs. What happens to the blood vessels?

A
  • Severe blood flow restriction

- Pain is felt in leg muscles due to lack of oxygen

110
Q

What was the formation of a thrombosis in a vein called?

A

Deep vein thrombosis

- causes severe pain and swelling

111
Q

What is it called when a embolus travels to the lungs?

A

Pulmonary Embolism

112
Q

Why is cholesterol important?

A
  • component of cell membranes

- required in production of steriods

113
Q

Where do we get our cholesterol from?

A
  • 25% is made the liver

- diet

114
Q

What do lipoproteins do?

A

Transport cholesterol around the body

115
Q

What does Low density proteins do?

A

Transport cholesterol from liver to body cells and deposit excess cholesterol in blood vessels

116
Q

What do High Density Proteins do?

A

Remove cholesterol from blood vessels and transport it to the liver where it will be broken down into useful components

117
Q

What is the problem with cholesterol?

A
  • High amounts of LDL cause a build up of cholesterol in arteries
  • this causes atheromas
118
Q

What treatment can be given to help high cholesterol?

A
  • dietary changes - less saturated fats

- statins that inhibit synthesis of cholesterol in the liver

119
Q

What hormone is released when glucose levels are too high?

A

Insulin

120
Q

What hormone is released when blood glucose levels are too low?

A

Glucagon

121
Q

What is the storage form of glucose?

A

Glycogen

122
Q

What is the test for diabetes?

A
  • fast for 8 hours
  • individual drinks glucose solution of known volume
  • individuals blood glucose levels are measured
  • severe diabetics will have a higher line than doesn’t drop
123
Q

What can chronic elevation of blood glucose levels over a long period of time cause?

A
  • Atherosclerosis development
  • Haemorrhaging of small/large blood vessels
  • Diabetes
124
Q

During the formation of a thrombus, fibrin…?

A

Forms a mesh network to clot the blood

125
Q

How do you improve reliability of results?

A

Repeat

Higher Biology - 2021/2022 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions