Unit 2 (minus the first three lectures) Flashcards

1
Q

what are the results of RNA viruses’ high mutation rates?

A

resistance to antivirals, barriers to vaccines, reassortment of genome segments, pandemics

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2
Q

“small RNA virus”

A

picornavirus

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3
Q

what is the purpose of RNA in an RNA virus

A

genetic material AND template for protein synthesis

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4
Q

what is the dual purpose of replication in the RNA virus

A

to copy the genome AND make mRNA

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5
Q

what are the characteristics of the rotovirus

A

dsRNA, eurkaryotic virus, icosahedral, enveloped

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6
Q

process that makes mRNA from RNA genome of RNA virus

A

transcription

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7
Q

process that makes RNA genome in RNA virus

A

replication

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8
Q

where do RNA viruses operate in the cell

A

cytoplasm

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9
Q

what is (+) RNA used for

A

mRNA sense strand, instructions for protein

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10
Q

what is (-) RNA used for

A

template for (+) strand

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11
Q

what do RNA viruses use to replicate the RNA genome

A

RNA dependent RNA Polymerase (RDRP)

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12
Q

(host/virus) ribosomes translate mRNA into proteins

A

host ribosomes

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13
Q

RDRP is highly (efficient/accurate) in replicating RNA virus genomes

A

efficient

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14
Q

exception to the rule that RDRP operates in the cytoplasm

A

influenza virus

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15
Q

where in the cytoplasm does RNA virus replication specifically occur

A

on cell membranes (endosomes, lysosomes, ER vesicles), this concentrates the components to increase efficiency

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16
Q

what contributes to RNA virus genetic diversity

A

low fidelity/no proofreading of RDRP, rapid evolution by recombination, reassortment of genome segments

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17
Q

classification of poliovirus

A

picornaviridae, enterovirus, (+)ssRNA genome, linear mRNA, infects human GI cells

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18
Q

poliovirus transmission of disease and where it persists

A

fecal-oral, water supply

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19
Q

how does poliovirus enter the host cell

A

binds receptor
capsids become hydrophobic > shape change
capsids form pore through membrane
RNA genome enters cell at plasma or endosome membrane

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20
Q

3Dpol

A

poliovirus RDRP

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21
Q

(the same/a different) enzyme copies (+) and (-) RNA strands in the RNA virus

A

same RDRP

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22
Q

when does the virus switch from translating mRNA to packaging it?

A

when there are enough capsid proteins that have accumulated

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23
Q

what happens to an RNA virus when RDRP is scarce

A

translation

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24
Q

what happens to an RNA virus when RDRP is abundant

A

(-) RNA synthesis

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25
Q

which RNA viruses (+/-) must package RDRP in the virion

A

(-)

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26
Q

which RNA viruses (+/-) may or may not package RDRP in the genome

A

(+)

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27
Q

why must RNA viruses code for RDRP in their own genomes

A

mammalian cells do not have enzymes to transcribe RNA from RNA templates

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28
Q

presentation of rotavirus disease

A

severe gastroenteritis–diarrhea, dehydration, malabsorption

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29
Q

key feature of rotavirus genome

A

segmented

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30
Q

accumulation of virus proteins in the cytoplasm that displaces the cytosol

A

viroplasm

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31
Q

how do rotavirus virions enter the rough ER

A

budding after assembly

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32
Q

two ways that rotaviruses exit the host cell

A

exocytosis/lysis

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33
Q

rotavirus prevention

A

live attenuated vaccines

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34
Q

presentation of uncomplicated influenza virus

A

respiratory tract involvement, fever, headache, myalgia, weakness

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35
Q

complicated influenza virus symtpoms

A

pneumonia, myositis (muscle pain), rhabdomyelitis (muscle break down)

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36
Q

where does influenza virus replicate

A

in the lungs

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37
Q

where in the cell does transcription and genome replication take place for influenza virus

A

the NUCLEUS

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38
Q

releases influenza virions from sialic acid on cell surface

A

N antigen (neuraminidase)

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39
Q

how are influenza virions shed

A

in respiratory droplets

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40
Q

characteristic of influenza vaccine

A

trivalent inactivated vaccine–two strands of A and one strand of B

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41
Q

virus binds to CD4 and chemokine receptors on T cells and macrophages

A

HIV

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42
Q

T cell count is (high/low) in HIV infection

A

low

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43
Q

key enzyme involved in converting (+)ssRNA HIV genome to dsDNA

A

reverse transcriptase (included in the virion)

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44
Q

what makes HIV so difficult to treat

A

dsDNA genome integrates into host chromosome for life

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45
Q

which enzyme transcribes mRNA from the integrated HIV genome

A

RNA Pol II

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46
Q

where does HIV virion maturation occur

A

outside the cell, while the viral protease cleaves the capsid proteins, forming the final trapezoid shape

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47
Q

how is the HIV virion released from host cell

A

budding

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48
Q

gold standard for HIV diagnosis

A

PCR

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49
Q

HIV treatment

A

ART antiretroviral therapy, many drugs must be combined

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50
Q

what causes the fever, body aches, and extreme fatigue in influenza virus infection

A

interferon induction

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51
Q

where do DNA viruses carry out transcription and replication (exception: poxvirus)

A

in the NUCLEUS

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52
Q

(host/virus) RNA Pol transcribes mRNA in DNA viruses (exception: poxvirus)

A

host

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53
Q

the viral or host DNA Pol replicates the genome for (DNA/RNA) viruses

A

DNA viruses

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54
Q

cells that have the right transcription factors for a DNA virus to undergo transcription are considered ____

A

permissive

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55
Q

two viruses that use viral DNA polymerase

A

herpesvirus, adenovirus

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56
Q

DNA polymerases for DNA viruses have (high/low) fidelity

A

high fidelity

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57
Q

origin of diversity in DNA viruses

A

recombination

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58
Q

DNA virus with symptoms such as infected conjunctivae, painful sore throat, pneumonia, bad cold with fever

A

adenovirus

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59
Q

particularly susceptible populations to adenovirus infections

A

military, children at camps or on sports teams

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60
Q

(host/viral) RNA Pol II makes adenovirus mRNA

A

host

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61
Q

where does the adenovirus genome replicate

A

nucleus

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62
Q

adenovirus genome is replicated by (host/viral) DNA Pol

A

viral

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63
Q

where does adenovirus capsid assembly take place

A

in the nucleus

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64
Q

how do adenovirus virions egress

A

lysis

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65
Q

there is an adenovirus vaccine but only a select group of people get it–who

A

military personnel

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66
Q

why is HPV hard to replicate in lab

A

only amplifies when transcription factors in the host cell are just right (different stages of epithelial cells)

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67
Q

(host/viral) RNA pol transcribes HPV mRNA

A

host

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68
Q

(host/viral) DNA Pol synthesizes HPV genomes

A

host

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69
Q

viral factors of HPV E6 and E7 are ___

A

oncogenes

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70
Q

how does the HPV vaccine work

A

no viral DNA, just viral capsid to induce correct antibodies

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71
Q

DNA viruses (except poxvirus) use the host RNA Pol II enzyme and what else to synthesize mRNA

A

viral and cellular transcription factors that bind to viral gene promoters

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72
Q

viral DNA polymerase and accessory proteins are required to replicate what type of viral DNA genomes

A

large DNA genomes

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73
Q

DNA virus associated with: gastroenteritis, keratoconjunctivitis, pharyngoconjunctival fever, pneumonia

A

adenovirus

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74
Q

cidofovir is used to treat which DNA virus

A

adenovirus

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75
Q

the initial phase of HPV infection occurs in which cell type

A

basal epithelium

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76
Q

treatments for this DNA virus include: chemical ablation, cryotherapy, colposcopy, VLP vaccine

A

HPV

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77
Q

how many human herpes viruses are there

A

8

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78
Q

most people are infected with __ herpesviruses

A

three or more

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79
Q

major barrier to herpesvirus vaccines

A

latency

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80
Q

classification of herpesvirus

A

icosahedral, tegument, dsDNA

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81
Q

herpesvirus genome replication is by (host/viral) polymerase and (host/viral) accessory factors

A

viral, viral

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82
Q

how is HSV-1 primary infection spread

A

close contact with active lesions or asymptomatic shedding, usually above waist

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83
Q

characteristics of HSV-1 recurrent disease

A

tingling and itching precede outbreaks, lesions on eyes/genitals/fingers/mouth,

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84
Q

what triggers HSV-1 recurrent disease

A

fever, sunlight, hormones, stress, physical trauma

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85
Q

are HSV-1 recurrent disease lesions contagious

A

yes

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86
Q

which herpesviruses cause meningitis

A

HSV1 and HSV2 primary infections

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87
Q

what does HSV recurrent infection cause in the brain

A

encephalitis

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88
Q

how is HSV2 primary infection acquired, and when

A

adulthood, oral-genital STD

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89
Q

HSV2 recurrent disease prodome

A

itching, tingling at lesion site a day before outbreak

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90
Q

can HSV2 recurrent infection spread in the absence of lesions

A

yes

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91
Q

what test is used to distinguish between HSV1 and HSV2

A

PCR

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92
Q

parent drug used to treat HSV2

A

acyclovir

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93
Q

where does chicken pox remain latent in the body after infection

A

ganglia

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94
Q

primary vzv aka

A

chicken pox

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95
Q

how is primary VZV transmitted

A

aerosol, highly contagious

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96
Q

complications possible with primary VZV infection

A

hepatitis, encephalitis, pneumonitis, bacterial infection of lesions

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97
Q

VZV recurrence

A

herpes Zoster (shingles)

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98
Q

complications of VZV recurrence

A

Bell’s palsy, neuralgia, retinitis

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99
Q

common sites of shingles

A

back, shoulder

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100
Q

30% of herpes zoster outbreaks affect face, destroying the ____ and leading to _____

A

retina, blindness

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101
Q

when is herpes zoster treatment effective

A

only during first three days of outbreak

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102
Q

vaccines for VZV (exist/do not exist)

A

exist–live, attenuated virus

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103
Q

where does Epstein Barr Virus remain latent

A

small fraction of B cells

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104
Q

what causes EBV recurrences?

A

immunosuppression

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105
Q

EBV recurrences can lead to:

A

malignancies

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106
Q

what are the diagnostic tests for mono

A

clinical signs, serology for heterophile antibodies, blood smear for elevated WBCs and atypical lymphocytosis

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107
Q

does prevention exist for EBV

A

no

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108
Q

CMV

A

cytomegalovirus

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109
Q

presentation of primary CMV infection

A

usually asymptomatic

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110
Q

how is CMV differentiated from EBV

A

absence of sore throat and presence of rash (not mono!)

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111
Q

permanent outcomes of congenital CMV disease

A

hearing loss, MR, vision loss, seizures, death

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112
Q

virus that is a frequent cause of transplant failure

A

CMV

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113
Q

CMV diagnostic methods

A

serology, culture, PCR

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114
Q

does treatment exist for CMV

A

yes, antiviral drugs

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115
Q

does prevention exist for CMV

A

no–vaccine ineffective

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116
Q

what cells does HSV6, 7 infect

A

CD4+ T cells

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117
Q

where does HSV6, 7 remain latent

A

CD4+ T cells

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118
Q

how is HSV6, 7 transmitted

A

saliva

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119
Q

at what age does HSV 6, 7 infection primarily occur

A

7-13 months of age

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120
Q

diagnostic test for Roseola HSV6, 7

A

clinical manifestations, rule out drug allergy

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121
Q

treatment for Roseola HSV6,7

A

none, treat symptoms, don’t give antibiotics

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122
Q

prevention for Roseola HSV6, 7

A

none

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123
Q

what is reactivation of HSV 1 characterized by

A

viral shedding from vesicular or asymptomatic lesions

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124
Q

reactivation of VZV is characterized by

A

painful, unilateral rash

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125
Q

risk associated with primary CMV infection

A

congenital CMV syndrome in neonates

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126
Q

EBV infection presentation in children

A

asymptomatic (teens get mono)

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127
Q

acyclovir works for:

A

HSV 1, HSV 2, VZV

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128
Q

how is viral gene expression induced

A

by binding of cellular transcription factors to promoter regions

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129
Q

viral genes are (prokaryotic/eukaryotic)

A

eukaryotic

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130
Q

viral genes in a linear arrangement on one RNA strand, with only a single promoter

A

simple genome, eg retrovirus

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131
Q

viral genes on both strands of DNA, often overlapping, and each with its own promoter

A

complex genomes, eg adenovirus, herpesvirus, poxvirus

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132
Q

how do transcription factors affect cell permissiveness to viruses

A

only certain cells in certain tissues express the transcription factors needed for the virus to grow (HPV-epithelial, Hep B-liver)

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133
Q

viral genomes (have/do not have) non-coding regions

A

do not have

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134
Q

viral genomes (have/do not have) overlapping reading frames

A

have

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135
Q

viral genomes (have/do have) alternative splicing of RNA

A

have

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136
Q

the goal of alternative splicing of RNA is to change the ___ sequence

A

aa

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137
Q

why are viral proteases targets for antivirals

A

to prevent polyproteins from being divided into appropriate proteins

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138
Q

what is the outcome of having only one promoter per viral genome

A

polyprotein

139
Q

how are polyproteins cleaved into usable proteins

A

proteases

140
Q

DNA viruses are (stable/unstable)

A

stable

141
Q

RNA viruses are (stable/unstable)

A

unstable

142
Q

_____ variants produce new strains of viruses spontaneously over time

A

antigenic

143
Q

how can mutations lead to drug resistance

A

if a protease binds to only one site, and the site is mutated, it can’t bind and the virus is not disrupted. now antivirals contain several cut sites

144
Q

__________ allow for epidemiological studies and live vaccines (like with polio)

A

high mutation rates

145
Q

what does epidemiological mean

A

show where something came from

146
Q

when a gene function of one virus replaces a mutated or missing gene of another, allowing defective viruses to grow

A

complementation

147
Q

when viruses exchange capsid proteins

A

phenotypic mixing

148
Q

what does phenotypic mixing achieve

A

viruses can infect new types of cells

149
Q

the genetic material of one virus in the capsid or envelope of another

A

pseudotype

150
Q

the exchange of viral genes by crossing over at regions of homology

A

recombination

151
Q

what does viral recombination produce

A

a hybrid virus

152
Q

the rearrangement of parts of a segmented genome to form a new set of segments

A

reassortment

153
Q

reassortment virus example

A

influenza

154
Q

infection by one virus tends to prevent infection by another

A

interference

155
Q

how does interference occur (3 ways)

A

blocking of receptors, competition for resources, production of interferon or other anti-viral agents

156
Q

aims to correct or prevent disease by transfer or appropriate genes to the patient

A

gene therapy

157
Q

gene therapy (is/is not) approved in the US

A

is not

158
Q

what are used as vectors in gene therapy

A

modified viruses

159
Q

diseases that might be treated with gene therapy are those with a congenital lack of:

A

a single gene

160
Q

examples of diseases that might be treated with gene therapy

A

CF, combined immune deficiency, hemophilia, liver enzyme disorders

161
Q

viruses used for gene therapy (four)

A

retroviruses, adenoviruses, herpes simplex, adeno-associated virus

162
Q

two problems with gene therapy

A

short duration of expression, low efficiency of gene transfer

163
Q

bad side effects of gene therapy (2)

A

severe inflammation, insertion of virus’s genome into a recipient’s genome leading to malignant disease (leukemia)

164
Q

virus entry site in resp tract

A

epithelial, goblet cells

165
Q

__ cells sample the gut contents and present it to underlying immune cells

A

M cells

166
Q

how do viruses infect the gut

A

they infect M cells and easily reach the blood stream

167
Q

how is rotavirus transmitted

A

fecal oral

168
Q

what does rotavirus cause

A

diarrhea (caused by enterotoxin)

169
Q

prevention for rotavirus

A

two vaccines

170
Q

exit point for rotavirus

A

diarrhea

171
Q

“virus in the blood”

A

viremia

172
Q

(primary/secondary) viremia leads to replication in internal organs, may occur without symptoms

A

primary

173
Q

(primary/secondary) viremia is when the virus disseminates the virus to organs where it is shed

A

secondary

174
Q

organs involved in primary viremia

A

muscle, liver, spleen, blood

175
Q

organs involved in secondary viremia

A

skin, mucous membrane, lung, kidney, GI, brain

176
Q

how does chicken pox/shingles enter the nervous system

A

via eyes and mouth (aerosol) to resp tract

177
Q

what causes the host response to infection by virus

A

interferons and interleukins

178
Q

what causes cell injury in a viral infection

A

virus replication and host response

179
Q

direct effects on cell by virus

A

cell lysis when it wants to escape

180
Q

genome of norovirus (cruise ship virus)

A

ss + RNA

181
Q

direct effect of norovirus

A

cell inactivation

182
Q

how are hepatitis viruses related

A

symptoms are similar–all infect hepatocytes

183
Q

transmission of hep A

A

fecal oral

184
Q

transmission of hep B

A

blood/sex/birth

185
Q

transmission of hep C

A

blood/sex/birth

186
Q

how is hep A controlled

A

vaccine

187
Q

how is hep B controlled

A

vaccine

188
Q

how is hep C controlled

A

not well–no vaccine

189
Q

how do you diagnose hepatitis virus infection

A

serology

190
Q

what IgM test shows for hep A

A

acute

191
Q

what IgG test shows for hep A

A

recovered/vaccinated

192
Q

what viral surface antigen test shows for hep B

A

acute

193
Q

what IgG against viral surface antigen test shows for hep B

A

recovered/vaccinated

194
Q

what EIA test means for hep C

A

positive, but lots of false positives

195
Q

how to rule out false positives for hep C

A

RIBA

196
Q

hep (A/B/C) can cause chronic infection

A

B and C

197
Q

treatment of chronic hep B or C infection

A

polymerase inhibitors and interferons

198
Q

side effects of treatment for chronic hep B or C infection

A

severe

199
Q

use alternative therapy as a ______ to prescribed treatment

A

complement

200
Q

classification of Hep A

A

naked icosahedral ssRNA

201
Q

classification of Hep B

A

enveloped DNA, partly double stranded

202
Q

hepadnavirus

A

hepatitis DNA virus

203
Q

picornavirus hepatitis (A/B/C)

A

A

204
Q

flavivirus hepatitis (A/B/C)

A

C

205
Q

hep C classification

A

enveloped (+)RNA

206
Q

which hepatitis viruses cause chronic infection

A

B and C

207
Q

drug used to treat herpes viruses

A

acyclovir

208
Q

four types of antivirals

A

nucleoside analogs, non nucleosides, protease inhibitors, entry inhibitors

209
Q

viral entry prohibitor drug active against which virus

A

HIV

210
Q

protease inhibitors are used against which virus

A

HIV

211
Q

neuraminidase inhibitors are used against which virus

A

flu

212
Q

acyclovir mechanism of action

A

nucleoside analog for thymidine

213
Q

most anti virals are (specific/broad spectrum)

A

specific

214
Q

off target cytotoxic effects can (harm cells/cause resistance)

A

harm cells

215
Q

on target cytotoxic effects can (harm cells/cause resistance)

A

cause resistance

216
Q

most anti viral drug effects are (reversible/irreversible)

A

reversible

217
Q

when virus replication can resume once anti viral is cleared

A

rebound

218
Q

four factors that favor emergence of resistant viruses

A

1- high rate of virus replication
2- high mutation rate (RNA viruses)
3- high selective drug pressure (long term, multiple treatments)
4- immunosuppressed host that cannot clear virus

219
Q

why combine drugs with different targets when fighting viral infection

A

synergy

less likely that the virus can select for a strain with resistance to both drugs

220
Q

three ways to counter resistance to anti virals

A

1- treat immunosuppression in host
2- combine drugs
3- target host functions

221
Q

who should be treated for HSV 1, 2 and VZV

A

infected neonates, people with frequent recurrences, complicated HSV infections, people with zoster

222
Q

drug used to treat cytomegalovirus

A

ganciclovir

223
Q

mechanism of action of ganciclovir

A

nucleoside analog of guanosine–chain terminator

224
Q

who should take ganciclovir

A

patients in great distress (severe side effects)

225
Q

two broad spectrum anti virals for DNA viruses

A

Foscarnet and Cidofovir

226
Q

mechanism of action of Foscarnet

A

inhibits viral DNA polymerase

227
Q

who should take Foscarnet

A

people with any herpes virus

228
Q

side effects of Foscarnet

A

toxic to kidneys

229
Q

mechanism of action of Cidofovir

A

nucleoside analog of cytosine

230
Q

against which viruses is Cidofovir active

A

herpes, adeno, papilloma, pox

231
Q

why can you use HIV anti virals to treat hep B

A

because hep B also uses reverse transcriptase

232
Q

what does pegylated interferon alpha do

A

treats hep B and C with interferon–tells cells to undergo apoptosis or shut down

233
Q

two anti virals for flu

A

zanamivir and oseltamivir

234
Q

mechanism of action of flu anti virals zanamivir and oseltamivir

A

sialic acid analogs that inhibit viral neuraminidase

235
Q

mechanism of action of ribavirin

A

nucleoside analog of guanosine

236
Q

for which viruses is ribavirin specifically approved for use

A

HCV and RSV

237
Q

for which viruses is ribavirin used

A

lots and lots

238
Q

treatment for HCV

A

combo of pegylated interferon alpha with ribavirin

239
Q

(all/not all) HCV genotypes respond to antiviral treatment

A

not all

240
Q

HCV treatment has (few/many) negative side effects

A

many

241
Q

mechanism of action of AZT

A

nucleoside analog for thymidine

242
Q

anti HIV drug that inhibits entry

A

Maraviroc

243
Q

anti HIV drug that works as a nucleoside RT inhibitor

A

Tenofovir

244
Q

anti HIV drug that works as a non nucleoside RT inhibitor

A

Efavirenz

245
Q

anti HIV drug that works as an integrase inhibitor

A

Raltegravir

246
Q

anti HIV drug that works as a protease inhibitor

A

Darunavir

247
Q

what is cobicistat

A

a drug enhancer that inhibits break down of drugs in the liver

248
Q

current HIV treatment and daily dose

A

Stribild, once a day

249
Q

most fungal pathogens are (environmental/commensal)

A

environmental

250
Q

most fungal pathogens are (highly/not) contagious

A

not

251
Q

most fungal pathogens (have/do not have) drug resistance

A

do not have

252
Q

exception to the rule that fungi are environmental

A

Candida albicans yeast is normal flora

253
Q

caused by eating fungal toxins (wrong mushroom or spoiled food)

A

mycotoxicosis

254
Q

mycotoxicosis (is/is not) a fungal infection

A

is not

255
Q

why are fungal allergies dangerous

A

asthmatic reaction

256
Q

highly effective and broad spectrum anti fungal, but toxic

A

polyenes

257
Q

systemic anti fungal, nephrotoxic

A

Amphotericin B

258
Q

less toxic anti fungal, different ones optimally active against different fungi

A

azoles

259
Q

major azole used to treat candidaiasis and crytococcosis

A

Fluconazole

260
Q

low toxicity, highly effective anti fungals active against candida and aspergillus

A

Echinocandins

261
Q

why are fungi considered eukaryotic

A

80s ribosomes, nuclei, no peptidoglycan cell wall

262
Q

what is the fungal cell wall made of

A

chitin

263
Q

anti fungals target which two aspects of the fungus

A

beta-glucan and ergosterol

264
Q

why are there fewer targets for anti fungals

A

many of their molecules are too similar to ours

265
Q

fungi (can/cannot) grow in harsher environments than bacteria

A

can grow–drier, higher osmotic pressure, colder environments

266
Q

what is the implication of fungi growing in harsh environments

A

more skin infections and food spoilage

267
Q

single celled fungus, reproduce by budding

A

yeasts

268
Q

grow in hyphae/mycelia and have complex reproduction, multicellular

A

molds

269
Q

closed mitosis used by (yeasts/molds)

A

yeasts

270
Q

five types of asexual ____ have distinctive microscopic appearances that may be used for diagnosis

A

spores

271
Q

several important fungal pathogens grow as mold at 24C and as yeast at 37C

A

thermal dimorphism

272
Q

(yeast/mold) has more immune-evasive properties

A

yeast

273
Q

how do you use thermal dimorphism for diagnosis

A

dual cultures

274
Q

immune response to fungal infection is:

A

granulomatous

275
Q

what is suppuration

A

pus–immune response to fungal infection

276
Q

anti fungal agent that disrupts fungal cell membranes at ergosterol insertion sites

A

polyenes

277
Q

anti fungal agent that inhibits ergosterol synthesis

A

azoles

278
Q

anti fungal agent that inhibits beta-glucan synthesis

A

echinocandins

279
Q

gram stain is meaningful for which fungus

A

candida

280
Q

what will a light microscope show for infection with a virus

A

cyto-pathic effect (cells dying)

281
Q

how do you perform PCR on an RNA virus

A

need to use reverse transcriptase

282
Q

spores formed within a sac

A

sporangiospores

283
Q

how do yeasts reproduce

A

asexual budding

284
Q

how do molds reproduce

A

spores (sexual and asexual)

285
Q

(molds/yeasts) are mobile in the body because they are single celled

A

yeasts

286
Q

asexual spores are known as

A

conidia

287
Q

mold filaments are (hyphae/mycelium)

A

hyphae

288
Q

mold mats are (hyphae/mycelium)

A

mycelium

289
Q

no fungi are (obligate aerobes/obligate anaerobes)

A

obligate anaerobes

290
Q

nuclear envelope does not disperse during mitosis

A

close mitosis

291
Q

how are different asexual mold spores used

A

diagnosis

292
Q

tests for delayed hypersensitivity with fungal antigens can be used to determine exposure to environmental fungi (not normal flora)

A

PPD skin test

293
Q

toxigenic, non infectious disease from fungi

A

mycotoxicosis

294
Q

how can mycotoxicosis from aflatoxins cause cancer

A

mutates p53 tumor suppressor gene

295
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity response to fungal allergy (same as rxn to mosquito bite)

A

Wheal and flare

296
Q

when using direct microscopic examination for lab diagnosis of fungal infection, what solution is used to break down tissue

A

KOH

297
Q

appearance of Cryptococcus neoformans under light microscope

A

very broad capsule

298
Q

appearance of Coc. immitis under light microscope

A

spherules

299
Q

how do you limit bacteria growth when culturing fungus

A

Sabourad’s agar–low pH and antibiotics

300
Q

when diagnosing fungal infection, DNA probe tests identify cultured colonies (earlier/later) than microscopy

A

earlier

301
Q

test for antifungal antibodies in serum or spinal fluid, useful for systemic mycoses

A

serology

302
Q

caused by fungal growth on the superficial skin layer

A

superficial mycoses

303
Q

superficial mycoses (requires/does not require) thermal dimorphism

A

does not require

304
Q

superficial mycoses symptoms are (common and minor/rare and severe)

A

common and minor

305
Q

treatment for superficial mycoses

A

topical azoles, oral griseofulvin

306
Q

common example of superficial mycoses

A

dermatophytosis

307
Q

symptoms of dermatophytosis are called

A

tinea

308
Q

how is dermatophytosis transmitted

A

fomites or autoinnoculation

309
Q

diagnosis for dermatophytosis

A

KOH mount and culture

310
Q

treatment for dermatophytosis

A

treat all affected areas with topical azole, alternatively oral griseofulvin

311
Q

fungal infection introduced by trauma exposure to soil or vegetation

A

subcutaneous mycoses

312
Q

subcutaneous mycoses (requires/does not require) thermal dimorphism

A

requires

313
Q

how is subcutaneous mycoses treated in severe cases

A

amphotericin B and local surgery

314
Q

how is subcutaneous mycoses treated in less severe cases

A

oral azoles

315
Q

how is subcutaneous mycoses spread in the body from the trauma site to the trunk

A

lymph

316
Q

example of subcutaneous mycoses introduced by thorns/splinters

A

sporotrichosis

317
Q

diagnosis of sporotrichosis

A

biopsy and culture at room temp from pus

318
Q

subcutaneous mycoses uses the mobile aspects of (yeast/mold)

A

yeast

319
Q

subcutaneous mycoses uses the antiphagocytic aspects of (yeast/mold)

A

mold

320
Q

superficial mycoses (is/is not) contagious

A

is

321
Q

what causes the vesicles on fingers seen in patients with superficial mycoses

A

immune over reaction

322
Q

what will a Wood’s lamp show on a superficial mycoses

A

fluorescence

323
Q

what are you looking for under the microscope when diagnosing superficial mycoses

A

hyphae and spores

324
Q

(systemic/subcutaneous) mycoses growth leads to granulomatous lesions

A

systemic

325
Q

transmission of systemic mycoses

A

inhaled into lungs via arthrospores

326
Q

systemic mycoses (require/do not require) thermal dimorphism

A

require

327
Q

range of severity of systemic mycoses

A

asymptomatic clearance to death

328
Q

systemic mycoses (is/is not) transmissible person-to-person

A

is not

329
Q

which disease does systemic mycoses mimic

A

TB

330
Q

what is the source of systemic mycoses

A

American dirt

331
Q

what are the thermal dimorphic forms of coccidioides

A

mold/spherule

332
Q

where is coccidioides endemic

A

American SW

333
Q

what are coccidioides spherules in the lung filled with

A

endospores

334
Q

when should you treat systemic mycoses

A

if predisposed to complications

335
Q

diagnosis for systemic mycoses

A

PPD, serology, biopsy for spherules

336
Q

how should you treat systemic mycoses in pregnant women

A

amphotericin B

337
Q

optimal treatment for opportunistic mycoses treats:

A

both the infection and the underlying problem

338
Q

severity of opportunistic mycoses depends on

A

pre existing conditions

339
Q

example of environmental opportunistic mycoses, enabled by reduced CMI

A

Cryptococcosis

340
Q

cryptococcosis is (high/low) infammation

A

very low–suppresses host inflammatory response

341
Q

most important part of exam to diagnose cryptococcosis

A

history

342
Q

lab work to diagnose cryptococcosis

A

CSF stain with India ink to observe yeast with wide capsule, serologic test for crag antigen

343
Q

treatment for cryptococcosis

A

combo of azoles and Amphotericin B

344
Q

the infectious source for most mycoses

A

environment