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Immuno practice > Immuno > Flashcards

Immuno Flashcards

1
Q

(adaptive/innate) immunity: barriers, phagocytes, complement

A

innate

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2
Q

proteins that recognize and clear bacteria through lysis of target cell in some cases

A

complement

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3
Q

(adaptive/innate) immunity: antibody, T cell recognition, cell mediated activation of immune response

A

adaptive

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4
Q

(adaptive/innate) immunity: rapid, fixed, limited number of specificities, constant during response

A

innate

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5
Q

(adaptive/innate) immunity: slow, variable, numerous highly selective specificities, improves during response

A

adaptive

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6
Q

serum proteins that result from specific immune responses, high affinity binding sites for specific foreign structures

A

antibodies (bind to antigens-foreign structures)

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7
Q

site for effector cells or proteins to bind antibodies

A

Fc regions

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8
Q

when a specific antibody is present, a high affinity bridge is formed enhancing phagocytosis

A

opsonization

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9
Q

antibody types responsible for enhancing phagocytosis

A

opsonins (“seasoning”)

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10
Q

most abundant leukocyte, contain primary/azurophilic or secondary/specific granules which have the bactericidal and hydrolytic enzymes of the cell

A

neutophils aka polymorphonuclear leukocytes

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11
Q

1-3% of circulating leukocytes, short half life, important in clearance of parasitic worms, capable of phagocytosis but do most work through extracellular mechanisms

A

eosinophils

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12
Q

(macrophages/monocytes): derived from bone marrow and circulate the blood

A

monocytes (called macrophages when they enter tissues)

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13
Q

(B cell/T lymphocyte): expresses immunoglobulin on surface, produces antibody

A

B cell

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14
Q

(B cell/T lymphocyte): regulates immune responses and effector function of killing infected cells

A

T lymphocytes

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15
Q

cytotoxic T cells have the __ surface marker, antigen specific

A

CD8

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16
Q

large granular lymphocytes, kill tumor cells and some virally infected cells without specificity

A

NK cell

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17
Q

general term that refers to proteins that will alter the response of the immune system

A

cytokines

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18
Q

primarily known for antiviral activity, tumoricidal effects, stimulate macrophages, T cells, B cells, NK cells

A

interferons

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19
Q

(alpha and beta/gamma) interferons: produced by T cells that are stimulated, then stimulates macrophages and leads to the differentiation of T cells and B cells

A

gamma

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20
Q

(alpha and beta/gamma) interferons: synthesized by macrophages, fibroblasts

A

alpha and beta

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21
Q

most common immunoglobulin type and has the widest ranges of functions, neutralizes toxins

A

IgG

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22
Q

most primitive immunoglobulin type, most potent at complement fixation but is unable to directly mediate many functions such as opsonization or ADCC, first thing we make in immune response

A

IgM

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23
Q

immunoglobulin that exists in two forms, one of which is SECRETED. Secretory piece inhibits degradation, highly glycosylated, present in saliva, gut secretions, breast milk

A

IgA

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24
Q

immunoglobulin that is associated with immune response to parasites and is important in the allergic reaction

A

IgE

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25
Q

which immunoglobulin passes through the placenta

A

IgG–therefore baby has mom’s IgG profile

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26
Q

which immunoglobulin can be transported across epithelium

A

IgA

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27
Q

a mechanism of cell-mediated immune defense whereby an effector cell of the immune system actively lyses a target cell, whose membrane-surface antigens have been bound by specific antibodies.

A

antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

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28
Q

which immunoglobulin is bound to a cell before antigen is bound

A

IgE-to mast cell

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29
Q

when antigen binds IgE, the mast cell releases

A

histamine

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30
Q

crystallized, constant region of antibody that binds to cell

A

Fc region

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31
Q

antigen binding region, variable

A

Fab region

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32
Q

how do we get so many different variable regions of antibodies with only 3 billion bases in the genome

A

gene rearrangement

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33
Q

residues on antibodies that do not vary from one protein to another

A

framework residues

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34
Q

regions that provide the sequence of the very specific antigen binding site

A

hypervariable regions–heavy and light chain V regions contain three hypervariable regions each

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35
Q

the constant region of which immunoglobulin does not have a receptor

A

IgM

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36
Q

what is bound by an antibody

A

epitope

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37
Q

the expression of the sum of all the interactions between an antibody binding site and its homologous antigenic determinant

A

affinity–only precise in a monovalent antigen-antibody system

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38
Q

binding of antigen-antibody is (irreversible/reversible)

A

reversible–so affinity can be expressed using the law of mass action

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39
Q

the strength of binding of multivalent antiserum to multivalent antigen is termed:

A

avidity

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40
Q

since multiple antibody forming clones are induced by most antigens, the affinity for antigen binding of a population of antibodies is highly (homogeneous/heterogeneous)

A

highly heterogeneous!

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41
Q

cross reactivity of antiserum may be due to (two things)

A

impurities, common or similar structures on antigens

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42
Q

cross reacting groups of antiserum need to be (identical/similar)

A

similar

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43
Q

two common techniques to eliminate cross reactivities of antibody

A

absorption and affinity chromatography

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44
Q

(absorption/affinity chromatography) refers to the use of the cross reacting material to remove the activity that causes the cross reaction

A

absorption

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45
Q

(absorption/affinity chromatography) bind the reagent you want to an insoluble support then pass antiserum over the reagent-support and the cross reacting body will just flow through

A

affinity chromatography

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46
Q

in ______ technology, a single clone of one B-cell is produced by fusing that cell to a tumor cell (unlimited growth potential) and isolating the clone with the antibody specificity of interest

A

monoclonal

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47
Q

clones produced by monoclonal antibody technology survive for how long

A

forever–huge amounts produced, less cross reactivity, lower affinity and little avidity

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48
Q

what types of cells are fused to tumor cells in monoclonal antibody preparation

A

spleen cells (from the immunized animal)

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49
Q

the oldest form of monoclonal antibodies, the variable regions are from mouse and constant regions are human

A

chimeric

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50
Q

(humanized/chimeric): only the points of contact with the antigen remain mouse in this type of monoclonal antibody

A

humanized

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51
Q

(humanized/human monoclonals): generally totally made through molecular biology techniques

A

human monoclonals

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52
Q

suffix of murine monoclonal antibodies in drug name: (-omab/-ximab)

A

omab

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53
Q

suffix of chimeric monoclonal antibodies in drug name: (-omab/-ximab)

A

-ximab

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54
Q

suffix of humanized monoclonal antibodies in drug name: (-zumab/-ximab)

A

zumab

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55
Q

suffix of fully human monoclonal antibodies in drug name: (-omab/-umab)

A

umab

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56
Q

why use a chimeric antibody instead of a mouse monoclonal antibody when making drugs

A

serum sickness–hypersensitivity to injected antibodies

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57
Q

what types of problems are treated using monoclonal antibodies

A

transplant rejection, cancer, psoriasis, autoimmune, non Hodgkin Lymphoma

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58
Q

enzyme-linked immunosorbant assay (ELISA): sensitive and specific, has (radiactive/no radiactive) material

A

no radioactive material

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59
Q

in this assay, antigen is stuck to the bottom of a well, antibody is added, allowed to incubate, and the unbound antibody is washed away. A second antibody that will bind the first antibody is then added, with an enzyme covalently bound to it, which turns color when a chemical is added

A

ELISA-enzyme linked immunosorbant assay

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60
Q

ELISA can be used to assay for (antigen/antibody)

A

both!

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61
Q

when tissue or cells are reacted with antisera specific for a cell marker or pathogen and the unbound antiserum is removed by washing. Then a second antibody specific for the first antibody is added and allowed to bind, and the 2nd one has a fluorescent molecule attached

A

immunofluorescence

62
Q

(ELISA/immunofluorescence) is used to identify a specific cell type or find a specific cell structure, or used to identify a pathogen within cells or tissue

A

immunofluorescence

63
Q

fluorescence activated cell sorter (FACS)/cell cytometry: these machines scan large numbers of cells for what two properties

A

immunofluorescence and size

64
Q

FACS/cell cytometry can scan for (one marker at a time/many markers at a time)

A

many markers at one time

65
Q

what technology would you use to measure the quantity of CD4 or CD8 cells in someone’s blood?

A

FACS–using relative fluorescence

66
Q

in a 2D dot plot from FACS, what does the northeastern quadrant indicate

A

cells that are stuck together

67
Q

in a 2D dot plot from FACS, what does the southwestern quadrant indicate

A

neither cell being measured

68
Q

what three things can you learn from a Western Immunoblot

A

amount of antigen, molecular weight of antigen, and the different forms of antigen you might be detecting

69
Q

why use a secondary antibody when doing a western immunoblot?

A

primary antibodies are too numerous, and one secondary antibody can label numerous primary antibodies

70
Q

antibody clearance is faster the (first/second) time the antibody is given

A

second time (and not detectable the third time)

71
Q

(IgG/IgM) has higher affinity

A

IgG

72
Q

(IgG/IgM) secondary response is similar to primary reponse

A

IgM (there is a big difference between IgG primary and secondary)

73
Q

IgG persists in blood for (days/months/years)

A

years

74
Q

the secondary immune response has (shorter/longer) lag time

A

shorter

75
Q

the secondary immune response has (higher/lower) rates of antibody synthesis

A

higher

76
Q

the secondary immune response has (lower/higher) peak of antibody titer

A

higher

77
Q

the secondary immune response has (shorter/longer) persistence of antibody

A

longer

78
Q

the secondary immune response has a predominance of (IgG/IgM) class molecules

A

IgG

79
Q

the secondary immune response has (higher/lower) affinity of antibody

A

higher

80
Q

the secondary immune response requires (more/less) antigen

A

less

81
Q

during ___ ___, mutations occur and the antibody gets better or worse at finding the antigen, and IgM -> IgG

A

class switch (primary -> secondary response)

82
Q

(toxin/toxoid): protein that will kill you

A

toxin

83
Q

inactivated toxin, antigenically the same, activates immune response, will not kill you

A

toxoid

84
Q

tetanus toxin (can/cannot) induce immune response

A

cannot–will kill you before you can get enough toxin to induce response

85
Q

consequence of thymus removal/absence

A

blunts antibody response, do not get increased affinity over time, do not get IgG

86
Q

antibody clone expanding longest has (lowest/highest) affinity to the antigen

A

highest

87
Q

(B/T) cells are better at determining self vs foreign

A

T cells

88
Q

(B/T) cells detect proteins, which is why you conjugate a vaccine to an egg white albumin, for example

A

T cells

89
Q

two antigen presenting cells

A

macrophages and dendritic cells

90
Q

(B/T) cells express surface immunoglobulin and each cell is only able to express a single variable region (aka idiotype)

A

B cell

91
Q

clonal expansion: when (B/T) cells proliferate and produce up to 1000 daughter cells in 10 days

A

B cells

92
Q

(B/T) cells: distinguished by surface antigen, designated CD4

A

T cells

93
Q

most antigens that (B/T) cells react to are proteins or peptides

A

T cells

94
Q

immunogens that do not require T cell help to produce an immune response, polymeric molecules having a large number of repeating subunits

A

T independent antigens

95
Q

the basic function of ____ _____ cells is to initiate the interaction with antigen by endocytosis or phagocytosis, may be enhanced by interaction with complement (C3b receptor mediated)

A

antigen presenting cells

96
Q

in addition to antigen processing, antigen-presenting cells must provide a second or __-_____ signal to tell T cells to divide

A

co-stimulatory: the presentation of antigen without co-stimulation does not induce immunity

97
Q

a substance that enhances the body’s immune response to an antigen.

A

adjuvant

98
Q

(primary/secondary) immune response: anamnestic

A

secondary

99
Q

which is a better but more expensive treatment: human tetanus immune globulin or equine tetanus antitoxin

A

human immune globulin

100
Q

if a patient has been immunized against tetanus and gets a laceration, he should be given (toxoid and antitoxin/toxoid/antitoxin)

A

toxoid (booster)

101
Q

why do you need to give toxoid and antitoxin at different sites on the body?

A

give them simultaneously, but at different sites, so the antitoxin doesn’t work immediately on the toxoid and prevent it from stimulating an immune response

102
Q

(active/passive) immunity: toxoid

A

active

103
Q

(active/passive) immunity: immune globulin

A

passive

104
Q

a baby gets exposed to a toxin. give the baby (toxoid/toxoid and immune globulin/immune globulin)

A

immune globulin against the toxin. the baby already has immunity from the mother

105
Q

(passive/active) immunization: immediate result, short term

A

passive

106
Q

(passive/active) immunization: long term, takes longer

A

active

107
Q

if you recover from a tetanus infection, you (have/do not have) immunity to future infections

A

do not have! the immunogenic dose of tetanus is far more than the lethal dose

108
Q

(primary/secondary) response: sooner, higher, more prolonged

A

secondary

109
Q

(cell/antibody) mediated: active or passive

A

antibody

110
Q

(cell/antibody) mediated: active or adoptive

A

cell mediated

111
Q

variable region of heavy chain: (VDJ/VJ)

A

VDJ (VJ is light chain)

112
Q

when enzymes bring the VD and J sequences together, this is splicing of (DNA/RNA)

A

DNA!

113
Q

DNA sequences that are used by enzymes to tell the enzymes to connect V to D to J

A

RSS: recombination signal sequence

114
Q

(P/N) regions: based on where DNA hairpins get cleaved by RAG

A

P regions

115
Q

enzyme that splices sequences together based on RSS

A

RAG (recombination activation gene)

116
Q

enzyme that adds random nucleotides, does not follow template, makes N region

A

Terminal deoxytransferase TdT

117
Q

(P/N) region: made by TdT

A

N region

118
Q

if an IgM light chain is self reactive to bone marrow, it will:

A

keep rearranging or die

119
Q

when does class switching occur

A

when a B cell encounters antigen (IgM to Ig_)

120
Q

IgM and Ig_ can have both on surface at the same time, based on how RNA is edited

A

IgD (four options: secreted/transmembrane for D or M)

121
Q

enzyme that allows section of DNA to be looped out so you can go from IgM to IgG

A

AID

122
Q

IgM to IgG is (DNA/RNA) editing

A

RNA

123
Q

(B cells/both/T cells): experience somatic hypermutation

A

B cells only

124
Q

mutations seen at places where antigen and antibody are in contact, made by AID during immune response

A

somatic hypermutation (creates a better, higher affinity antibody)

125
Q

why do T cells not undergo somatic hypermutation

A

no mutation during immune response to prevent auto immune reactivity

126
Q

where do T cells eliminate self reactivity

A

in the thymus, before they leave!

127
Q

RAG deficiency: lack of (B cells/both/T cells)

A

both

128
Q

state of non-responsiveness to antigen

A

anergy– T cells and B cells are said to be anergic when they cannot respond to their specific antigen under optimal conditions of stimulation.

129
Q

the major T cell co-stimulatory molecules

A

B7 (CD80 and CD86), both bind CD28 on T cells

130
Q

the receptor on T cells for the B7 co-stimulatory molecules

A

CD28

131
Q

role of CD28

A

activation and proliferation of T cells after they first encounter antigen.

132
Q

the high-affinity receptor for B7 molecules on T cells. Plays a critical role in
shutting off the T cell response.

A

CTLA-4

133
Q

serine proteases present in cytotoxic T cells that are involved in inducing apoptosis in the target cells.

A

granzymes

134
Q

a cytokine produced by activated naïve T cells, which is
essential for their further proliferation and differentiation. It is one of the key cytokines
in the development and contraction of an adaptive immune response

A

IL2

135
Q

a hematopoietic growth factor secreted by stromal cells in the
bone marrow and thymus as well as keratinocytes, dendritic cells, hepatocytes,
neurons, and epithelial cells. It is important for T cell development, survival and
homeostasis.

A

IL7

136
Q

a protein that can polymerize to form membrane pores that are an important part of the killing mechanism in cell-mediated cytotoxicity.

A

perforin

137
Q

cell mediated immunity important for clearance of which pathogens

A

Listeria, mycobacterium tb, mycobacter leprae

138
Q

A compound that increases the immunogenicity of an antigen. The most
common in vaccines is the aluminum salt Alum.

A

adjuvant

139
Q

The use of immune serum to give an immediate resistance

to an infection.

A

passive immunization

140
Q

The act of immunizing with antigens to induce an immune

response to a pathogen.

A

active immunizations

141
Q

A weakened virus that can replicate to a limited extent.

A

live attenuated

142
Q

Infections with organisms that do not usually cause disease in a healthy host

A

opportunistic infections

143
Q

general term that refers to proteins that will alter the response of the
immune system.

A

cytokines

144
Q

Primarily known for the antiviral activity these have been shown to have tumoricidal
effects. These molecules stimulate macrophages, T cells, B cells and NK cells

A

interferons

145
Q

sometimes called Type I are synthesized by macrophages,

fibroblasts and many other cell types

A

alpha and beta interferons

146
Q

produced by T cells that are stimulated. This molecule
has been shown stimulate macrophages, and lead to the differentiation of T cells and
B cells.

A

IFN gamma

147
Q

IL_ stimulates TH1 responses

A

IL-12

148
Q

IL-17 is involved in ______

A

inflammation

149
Q

IL-_ colony stimulating factor

A

IL-3

150
Q

IL-_,_ are B cell growth factors

A

IL-5, IL-4

Immuno practice (3 decks)

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