Unit 2: Microscopy, Equipments & Instruments Used & Unit 3: Sterilisation Flashcards

1
Q

What is a microscope?

A

An instrument used to see objects that are too small for the naked eye.

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2
Q

What distinguishes optical microscopes from electron microscopes?

A

Optical microscopes use light, while electron microscopes use electrons to image samples.

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3
Q

What is the role of magnification in microscopy?

A

Magnification is the degree of enlargement of an object’s dimensions.

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4
Q

What are the differences between bright field and dark field microscopes?

A

Bright field microscopes produce dark images against light backgrounds; dark field produces bright images against dark backgrounds.

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5
Q

Who invented phase contrast microscopy and what was its significance?

A

Frits Zernike invented it, allowing the observation of living cells and won a Nobel Prize in 1953.

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6
Q

What is a scanning electron microscope (SEM)?

A

A SEM is an electron microscope that images samples using a high-energy electron beam in a raster scan pattern.

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7
Q

What information does a scanning electron microscope provide?

A

SEMs provide data on surface topography, morphology, composition, and crystallographic information of a sample.

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8
Q

How does a transmission electron microscope (TEM) work?

A

A TEM uses a focused beam of electrons to transmit through a specimen, allowing visualization of internal structures.

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9
Q

What are the limitations of light microscopes?

A

They have a maximum magnification of 500x to 1000x and a resolution limit of 0.2 micrometers.

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10
Q

Who developed the transmission electron microscope and when?

A

Max Knoll and Ernst Ruska developed the TEM in Germany in 1931.

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11
Q

What fields utilize transmission electron microscopes?

A

TEMs are used in cancer research, virology, material science, pollution studies, nanotechnology, and semiconductor research.

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12
Q

Why was there a demand for electron microscopes in the 1930s?

A

There was a need to observe fine details of organic cell structures, requiring magnifications over 10,000x

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13
Q

Who discovered the electron and when?

A

J.J. Thompson discovered the electron in 1897.

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14
Q

What are the primary differences between optical and electron microscopes?

A

Optical microscopes use glass lenses and low magnification; electron microscopes use magnetic lenses and high magnification.

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15
Q

What is the fundamental principle behind electron microscopic functionality?

A

Electron microscopes utilize a beam of energetic electrons to examine objects at a very fine scale.

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16
Q

What is the initial process in Transmission Electron Microscopy?

A

A thin specimen is irradiated with a uniform current density electron beam.

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17
Q

How is the electron beam focused onto the specimen in TEM?

A

A two or three stage condenser lens system is used to focus the electron beam.

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18
Q

What are the main differences in electron interaction between SEM and TEM?

A

SEM is based on scattered electrons, while TEM relies on transmitted electrons.

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19
Q

What is necessary for specimen preparation in TEM compared to SEM?

A

TEM requires the sample to be cut thinner, while SEM does not have this requirement.

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20
Q

How are Clostridium tetani spores used to test sterilization efficacy?

A

Paper strips containing 10 spores are placed in an oven for sterilization.

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21
Q

What indicates failure of the sterilization process using Clostridium tetani spores?

A

Any growth in thioglycollate broth after incubation indicates sterilization failure.

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22
Q

What is a hot air oven?

A

An oven that provides a temperature higher than atmospheric pressure, operating between 50 - 250°C.

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23
Q

What are the common sterilization settings for hot air sterilization?

A

170°C for 30 mins, 160°C for 60 mins, or 150°C for 150 mins or longer.

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24
Q

What are the main uses of a hot air oven?

A

It is used for rapid evaporation, rapid drying, and sterilization of heat-resistant materials.

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25
Q

Why is slow cooling important post-sterilization?

A

It prevents glass cracking and avoids air entry that can introduce contaminants.

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26
Q

What are the environmental benefits of dry heat sterilization?

A

It is nontoxic and does not harm the environment.

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27
Q

How long does dry heat sterilization typically take?

A

Dry heat sterilization requires longer exposure times of 1.5 to 3 hours.

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28
Q

Which materials are suitable for hot air sterilization?

A

Glassware, forceps, swabs, and water impermeable oils, waxes, and powders.

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29
Q

What is a major disadvantage of dry heat sterilization?

A

The method is time-consuming due to slow heat penetration.

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30
Q

What is the mechanism of dry heat sterilization?

A

Sterilization occurs through conduction, where heat penetrates from the outer surface to the center.

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31
Q

Why is dry heat sterilization suitable for metals and sharp instruments?

A

It is noncorrosive, making it safe for these materials.

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32
Q

What preparation steps are necessary for glassware before sterilization?

A

Ensure dryness, plug with cotton wool, wrap in Kraft paper, and avoid oven overload.

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33
Q

How can sterilization effectiveness be monitored?

A

Use chemical controls and Browne’s tubes, noting the color change from red to green.

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34
Q

What is the primary function of centrifugation?

A

It separates components of a mixture based on their density using centrifugal force.

35
Q

What are the main components of a centrifuge?

A

A centrifuge consists of an electric motor and a rotor to hold samples.

36
Q

What is density gradient centrifugation?

A

A procedure for separating particles like viruses, ribosomes, or DNA.

37
Q

How are centrifuges categorized?

A

Centrifuges are categorized by speed and application, including low-speed, high-speed, and ultracentrifuges.

38
Q

How does density gradient centrifugation work?

A

Samples are placed on a preformed gradient and centrifuged using rate zonal or equilibrium methods.

39
Q

What is the maximum speed of low-speed centrifuges?

A

Low-speed centrifuges typically range from 4000 to 5000 rpm.

40
Q

What is centrifugation?

A

A procedure using centrifugal force for sedimentation of mixtures.

41
Q

What occurs during the centrifugation process?

A

Macromolecules band within the gradient, allowing for collection as pure fractions.

42
Q

What rotor types are used in low-speed centrifuges?

A

Low-speed centrifuges use fixed angle and swinging bucket rotors for efficient separation.

43
Q

What is the main purpose of low-speed centrifuges in biochemistry?

A

They are used for rapid sedimentation of coarse precipitates or red blood cells.

44
Q

How does density affect separation in centrifugation?

A

More dense components move away, while less dense ones move towards the axis.

45
Q

What are the main applications of density gradient centrifugation?

A

It separates multicomponent mixtures and measures the sedimentation coefficient of macromolecules.

46
Q

How are low-speed centrifuges used to separate components of a sample?

A

The sample is spun to pack particles into a pellet, with supernatant removed by decantation.

47
Q

What does the equation F = m * ω² * r represent?

A

It defines the centrifugal force experienced by sedimenting particles.

48
Q

What are the two methods of centrifugation in this technique?

A

Zonal centrifugation uses a preformed gradient; isopycnic centrifugation forms a self-generating gradient.

49
Q

What are the key features of high-speed centrifuges?

A

They have higher speeds, temperature control, and typically operate at near 4°C.

50
Q

What is Relative Centrifugal Force (RCF)?

A

A measurement of centrifugal force reported as a multiple of gravity (g).

51
Q

List two applications of high-speed centrifuges.

A

They are used for sedimentation of cell debris and separation of cellular organelles.

52
Q

In which fields is centrifugation commonly applied?

A

Biotechnology, clinical laboratories, and research.

53
Q

What distinguishes ultracentrifuges from other centrifuges?

A

They achieve very high speeds while requiring refrigeration and high vacuum to reduce heat.

54
Q

What are the maximum speeds and RCF for low-speed centrifuges?

A

Low-speed centrifuges operate at 1-6000 rpm with a maximum RCF of 6000 g.

55
Q

Which components can be pelleted by an ultracentrifuge?

A

Ultracentrifuges can pellet cells, nuclei, organelles, ribosomes, and macromolecules.

56
Q

Describe the procedure for preparative centrifugation in biochemistry.

A

Sample is spun, separating pellet and supernatant, followed by decantation for further analysis.

57
Q

What is the role of homogenization in the centrifugation process?

A

Homogenization breaks cell membranes to mix contents before centrifugation.

58
Q

How does particle size and density affect centrifugation outcomes?

A

Larger, denser particles pellet at lower centrifugal forces during centrifugation.

59
Q

What tasks are included in the quarterly maintenance checklist?

A

The checklist includes cleaning filters, filling the water tank, checking manometers, verifying temperature accuracy, and activating safety valves.

60
Q

What are the key steps in the sterilization process?

A

Record pressure, temperature, and time; verify equipment functionality; listen for abnormal sounds; clean the chamber; check earth leakage current.

61
Q

How is limescale defined and removed?

A

Limescale is a chalky deposit from hard water, removed by heating the chamber with acid to dissolve it.

62
Q

What is the purpose of sterilization cassettes?

A

Sterilization cassettes hold instruments during sterilization and may include markers for monitoring the process.

63
Q

Why is it important to activate safety valves during preventive maintenance?

A

Activating safety valves ensures they operate correctly and helps prevent equipment malfunctions.

64
Q

What is the primary purpose of an autoclave?

A

To prepare materials for bacteriological cultures, sample collection, and sterilization of contaminated items.

65
Q

What are the main safety risks associated with operating an autoclave?

A

High pressure can cause cracks or leaks; operators risk being scalded by hot steam.

66
Q

How does pressure affect temperature in an autoclave?

A

Increasing pressure raises the temperature; at 15 Psi, it reaches 121°C necessary for sterilization.

67
Q

What are the main components of an autoclave?

A

Key components include heating elements, temperature controller, pressure sensor, chamber, door gasket, solenoid valve, and water level sensor.

68
Q

What materials are used in the construction of an autoclave?

A

Autoclaves are typically made of gun metal and include features like a controller and safety valves.

69
Q

Why is temperature management important in autoclave operation?

A

Industrial autoclaves operate at higher temperatures, requiring careful preparation for safety.

70
Q

How does the sterilization mechanism differ between dry and wet sterilization?

A

Dry sterilization uses oxidation at higher temperatures, while wet sterilization uses steam to coagulate proteins at lower temperatures.

70
Q

What are key safety features included in an autoclave?

A

Safety features include low water level sensors, alarms, automatic cut-off mechanisms, and pressure gauges.

71
Q

What is the exposure time required to kill bacterial spores using wet sterilization?

A

Typically, 15 minutes at 121 °C is sufficient for killing bacterial spores.

72
Q

What is steam sterilization in the context of autoclaving?

A

Steam sterilization involves generating pressurized saturated steam to effectively sterilize materials.

73
Q

What materials should not be used to clean an autoclave chamber?

A

Avoid using bleach, steel wool, steel brushes, or abrasive materials.

74
Q

What methods are used to remove air from the autoclave chamber?

A

Air removal methods include downward displacement, steam pulsing, vacuum pumps, and various atmospheric cycles.

75
Q

What is a critical step in the autoclave cleaning procedure?

A

Remove instruments and trays, then use a cleaning packet evenly in the chamber.

76
Q

Describe the function of the pressure sensor in an autoclave?

A

The pressure sensor monitors the pressure within the sterilizing chamber to ensure effective sterilization conditions.

77
Q

What is sterilization?

A

Sterilization is a process that removes or kills all forms of microbial organisms, including fungi, bacteria, viruses, and spores.

78
Q

What methods can be used for sterilization?

A

Methods include heat, chemicals, irradiation, high pressure, filtration, and combinations of these.

79
Q

What does the additional cleaning cycle help eliminate?

A

It eliminates excessive dirt in the pipes after a sterilization cycle without cleaning powder.

80
Q

What is the function of an autoclave?

A

An autoclave uses high pressure and high temperature steam to eliminate microorganisms and spores.

81
Q

Who were key historical figures in the development of sterilization techniques?

A

Notable figures include Hippocrates, Lazzaro Spallanzani, Louis Pasteur, and Charles Chamberland.

82
Q

How does pressure in an autoclave affect the boiling point of water?

A

Pressure increases in an autoclave allows water to reach temperatures above 100°C, enabling effective sterilization.