Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

H Biology > Unit 2: Metabolism and Survival > Flashcards

Unit 2: Metabolism and Survival Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is a metabolic pathway?

A

a metabolic pathway is an intergrated and controlled pathway of enzyme catalysed reactions within a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what kind of steps do metabolic pathways have?

A

revirsable and irreversible steps, and alternative routes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

catabolic pathways

A

the breakdown of large molecules into smaller molecules, releasing energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

anabolic pathways

A

build up (biosynthesis) large molecules from small molecules, require energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

connection between catabolic and anabolic pathways

A

the energy released from the catabolic pathways is transferred to the anabolic pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

fermentation in animals equation

A

glucose –> pyruvate –(reversiable - oxygen is produced) —> lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

fermentation in plants and yeast equation

A

glucose –> pyruvate –> ethanol and CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what happens when metabolic pathways are modified?

A

they can contain alternative routes, so that steps can be passed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when are alternative routes used by a cell?

A

when a cell has a plentiful supply of sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what controls the entry and exist of substances in a cell?

A

the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe the fluid mosaic model

A
  1. a double layer that is constantly moving
  2. it is made up of phospholipid molecules and proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how do large molecules cross the cell membrane?

A

they depend on protein carrier molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what do transport proteins contain?

A

pores or channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where are protein pumps/carrier molecules found

A

on the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do protein pumps do?

A

transfer specific ions across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the role of protein pores/channels?

A

to allow specific substances to diffuse across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how do protein pumps work

A

actively pump ions in and out of their cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

do protein pumps pump against or with the concentration gradient?

A

against the concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what do protein pumps require for active trasport of ions/molecules?

A

energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how do protein pumps get energy?

A

from respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are protein pumps affect by?

A

the availability of oxygen, food, and temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

where are enzymes embedded?

A

in membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the relationship between enzymes and metabolic pathways?

A

metabolic pathways are controlled by the presence or absence of enzymes, regulating the rate of reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the meaning of enzymes that are continually expressed?

A

the enzymes are always present in the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the result of the absence of catalysts?

A

most reactions in biological systems would take place too slowly to produce products at an adequate place for metabolising organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

connection between catalysts and enzymes

A

enzymes are biological catalysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what do catalysts do?

A

increase/speed up chemical reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the shapes of enzymes?

A

they are globular proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the three qualities of enzymes as catalysts?

A
  1. lowers the activation energy
  2. speeds up the rate of reaction
  3. takes part in but is unchange by the reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is activation energy?

A

the energy required to break thhe bonds of the reactants to produce products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

when do the bonds of reactants break?

A

when the reactants have obsorbed enough energy to make them stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

2 steps of induced fit

A
  1. substrate binds to the enzyme at the active site
  2. binding of the substrate induces the enzyme’s active site to change shape so that there is an exact fit once a substrate is bound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

after what process can reactions occur?

A

after induced fit has occured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what happens to the active site when a reaction involved two or more substrates?

A

The shape of the active site helps orientate the reactants in the correct position so a reaction can take place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the 5 stages of the substrate bonding to the active site?

A
  1. the substrate molecules have a high affinity for the active site
  2. the active site holds the reactants together in an induced fit
  3. the chemical bonds in the reactants are weakened, the activation energy is lowered
  4. the products now have a low affinity for the active site and are released
  5. the active site the enzyme is free to repeat the process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the third stage of the substrate bonding to the active site?

A

the chemical bonds in the reactants are weekend, the activation energy is lowered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the fifth stage of the substrate bonding to the active site?

A

the active site the enzyme is free to repeat the process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the second stage of the substrate bonding to the active site?

A

the active site holds the reactants together in an induced fit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the forth stage of the substrate bonding to the active site?

A

the products now have a low affinity for the active site and are released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the first stage of the substrate bonding to the active site?

A

the substrate molecules have a high affinity for the active site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

high affinity

A

a strong sense of attraction of two substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

low affinity

A

a weak sense of attraction of two substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the result of low substrate concentration on the product(s)?

A

low product concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the result of high substrate concentration on the product(s)?

A

more product formation, increased rate of reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the result of a further increase in substrate concentration?

A

maximum product formation, max. rate of reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the result of excess substrate concentration?

A

no further increase in product formation, max. rate maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

(max rate of reaction) despite the increasing substrate concentration, there is ……..

A

no further increase in product formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

example of a metabolic pathway

A

metabolite W –> metabolite X –> metabolite Y –> metabolite Z

arrows: enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

when are enzymes activated in metabolic pathways?

A

when the metabolites become available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are most enzyme reactions?

A

reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is always maintained during enzyme catalysed metabolic pathways?

A

balance is always maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how do enzyme inhibitors affect the rate of reaction?

A

it decreases the rate of reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

competitive inhibitors

A

molecules that will compete with the normal substrate for the reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

compare the shapes of normal substrates with competitive inhibitors

A

the competitive inhibitors are similar in shape to the normal substrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what happens when the substrate concentration is low?

(in relation to inhibitors)

A

the inhibitors successfully compete for the active site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what happens when substrate concentration is low?

(in relation to products formed)

A

fewer substrate molecuels are converted into products and the rate of reaction is reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

when are the effect of the competitive inhibitors overcame?

A

when the high concentration of substance molecules compete successfully for the active site of enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

when is maximum reaction rate achieved?

A

at high substance concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what do competitive inhabitors compete with?

A

the usual substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what do the competitive inhabitors compete for?

A

the oppurtunity to bind with the active site of enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

how can the effect of competitive inhabitors be reversed?

A

increasing the substance concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

biosynthesis

A

Build up of large molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Bring about the breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones, releasing energy

A

Catabolic pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Bring about the buildup of large molecules from small molecules, require energy

A

Anabolic pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Example of catabolic pathway

A

Respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Example of anabolic pathway

A

Protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What type of metabolic pathway is respiration an example of

A

Catabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What type of metabolic pathway is protein synthesis an example of

A

Anabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where do metabolic pathways happen?

A

The cell cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are metabolic pathways sped up by?

A

Enzymes – biological catalysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what are metabolic pathways controlled by?

A

Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When would alternative route be used in metabolic pathways?

A

When cells have a plentiful supply of sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Does diffusion require energy

A

No – it is passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the name of the movement of molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration?

A

diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

diffusion

A

the movement of molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

only ____ _____ molecules can diffuse through protein pores

A

very small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how do large molecules move across the membrane?

A

through protein molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what do transport protein molecules contain?

A

pores/channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

protein channels only allow ________ substances to diffuse across the membrane

A

specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what are protein pumps also known as?

A

carrier molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

where are protein pumps located?

A

on the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what do protein pumps do?

A

transfer specific ions across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what structure transfers specific ions across the membrane

A

protein pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

do protein pumps require energy?

A

yes, it is active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

where do protein pumps source their energy from?

A

respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what three things are protein pumps affected by?

A
  • availability of oxygen
  • availability of food
  • temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

without what would most reactions in biological systems would take place too slowly to produce products at an adequate place for metabolising organisms

A

catalysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

enzymes ________ the rate of reaction by ____________ the activation energy

A

increase, lowering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what happens after induced fit has occurred?

A

chemical reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

first step of induced fit

A
  1. substrate binds to the enzyme at the active site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

second step of induced fit

A

binding of the substrate induces the enzyme’s active site to change shape so that there is an exact fit once a substrate is bound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

stage 1 of substrate binding to active site

A
  1. the substrate molecules have a high affinity for the active site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

stage 2 of substrate binding to active site

A
  1. the active site holds the reactants together in an induced fit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

stage 3 of substrate binding to active site

A
  1. the chemical bonds in the reactants are weekend, the activation energy is lowered
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

stage 4 of substrate binding to active site

A
  1. the products now have a low affinity for the active site and are released from the active site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

stage 5 of substrate binding to active site

A
  1. the active site the enzyme is free to repeat the process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

a strong sense of attraction of two substances

A

high affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

a weak sense of attraction of two substances

A

low affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

low product concentration

A

low substrate concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

more product formation, increased reaction rate

A

high substrate concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

max. product formation, max rate of reaction

A

further increase in substrate concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

no further increase in product formation, maximum reaction rate maintained

A

excess substrate concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

metabolite W –> metabolite X –> metabolite Y –> metabolite Z
arrows: enzymes

what happens when metabolite W becomes available?

A

enzyme 1 is activated and converts W to Z

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

metabolite W –> metabolite X –> metabolite Y –> metabolite Z
arrows: enzymes

what happens when metabolite x becomes available?

A

enzyme 2 is activated and converts X to Y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

where do non competitive inhibitors attach to on enzymes?

A

a position away from the active site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what effect does a non competitive inhibitor have on the active site?

A

changes the shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What do noncompetitive inhibitor prevent the substrate from doing

A

Binding to the active site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the effect of non-competitive inhibitor is on product formation?

A

Stops the formation of product as induced fit cannot be achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What effect do noncompetitor inhibitors have on reaction rate?

A

Reduce the reactionary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Add to high substrate concentration, all enzyme active sites are ______

A

occupied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

can max reaction rate ever be achieved with a non competitive inhibitor?

A

no, it cannot be overcome by increasing substrate concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what do non competitive inhibitors do

A

prevent bound substrate being converted into product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

compare without inhibitor, with competitive inhibitor, and non competitive

A

Substrate can normally bind to active site of an enzyme

competitive inhibitor mimics substrate and competes for active site

noncompetitive inhibitor alters conformation of enzymes so active site is no longer fully functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

When does feedback inhibition occur

A

When an end product in the metabolic pathway reaches a critical concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What does feedback inhibition prevent

A

Wasteful conversion and accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Cellular respiration

A

A series of biochemical reactions that allow a cell to generate energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

A series of biochemical reactions that allow a cell to generate energy

A

Cellular respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Cellular respiration

A

A series of biochemical reactions that allow a cell to generate energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

In human cells, reactions occur to convert glucose into —-

A

Adenosine triphosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Full name of ATP

A

Adenosine triphosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is ATP

A

Energy rich molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What kind of reaction is respiration

A

Catabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Describe how respiration is catabolic

A

It is the break down of large nutrient molecules into smaller ones and releases energy used to drive other reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

It is the break down of large nutrient molecules into smaller ones and releases energy used to drive other reactions

A

How respiration is catabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Word equation for aerobic respiration in animals

A

Glucose and oxygen —> carbon dioxide + water + energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Glucose and oxygen —> carbon dioxide + water + energy

A

Word equation for aerobic respiration in animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are carbs broken down into during aerobic respiration

A

Smaller glucose molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What does the breakdown of carbs produce

A

Energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What happens when glucose enters the cell

A

It is burnt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is the process called when glucose is burnt

A

Combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Where does combustion happen in a cell

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What happens to glucose in the mitochondria

A

It is burnt - combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Reactants of aerobic respiration

A

Oxygen and glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Oxygen and glucose

A

Reactants of aerobic respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Waste products of aerobic respiration

A

Carbon dioxide and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What happens to the waste products of aerobic respiration

A

They are carried by the blood to the alveoli into the air (out of the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

They are carried by the blood to the alveoli into the air (out of the body)

A

What happens to the waste products of aerobic respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

As you get closer to the ribose, the phosphate bonds hold ____ energy

A

Less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

As you get closer to the ribose, the _______ bonds hold less energy

A

Phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Three parts of ATP molecule

(left to right)

A

Adenosine, ribose, three Phosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Adenosine, ribose, three Phosphates

A

Three parts of ATP molecule

(left to right)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

When is energy held in an ATP molecule released

A

When the bond attaching the terminal phosphate molecule is broken by enzyme activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

When the bond attaching the terminal phosphate molecule is broken by enzyme activity

A

When is energy held in an ATP molecule released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the terminal phosphate

A

The phosphate molecule furthest from the ribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What does ATP become when you break the terminal phosphate

A

ADP adenosine diphosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

ADP adenosine diphosphate

A

What does ATP become when you break the terminal phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is required to regenerate ATP from ADP and Pi

A

Energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What does ADP act as

A

The link between catabolic and anabolic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What acts as the link between catabolic and anabolic reactions

A

ADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is ATP

A

The carrier and regulation-storage unit of energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

The carrier and regulation-storage unit of energy

A

What is ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What can ATP be used for (examples)

A

Muscle cell contractions

Cell division

Protein synthesis

Transmission of nerve impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Muscle cell contractions

Cell division

Protein synthesis

Transmission of nerve impulses

A

What can ATP be used for (examples)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Phosphorylation

A

An enzyme-controlled process by which a phosphate group is added to a molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

An enzyme-controlled process by which a phosphate group is added to a molecule

A

Phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

ATP is not ….

A

Stored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Example of phosphorylation

A

The formation of high energy molecule, ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

The formation of high energy molecule, ATP

A

Example of phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What is ATP used for

A

To transfer energy to cellular processes which require energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

To transfer energy to cellular processes which require energy

A

What is ATP used for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

When does phosphorylation also occur

A

When phosphate and energy are transferred from ATP to the molecules of a reactant in a metabolic pathway making them more reactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

When phosphate and energy are transferred from ATP to the molecules of a reactant in a metabolic pathway making them more reactive

A

When does phosphorylation also occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Glycolysis

A

The breakdown of glucose to pyruvate in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

The breakdown of glucose to pyruvate in the cytoplasm

A

Glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Where do all chemical reactions happen

A

The cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Three points on glycolysis

A

Occurs in the cytoplasm

A molecule of glucose is broken down into pyruvate

Enzyme controlled steps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Stage 1 of glycolysis

A

Energy investment stage, 2 ATP molecules used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Energy investment stage, 2 ATP molecules used

A

Stage 1 of glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Stage 2 of glycolysis

A

Energy pay off stage, 4 ATP molecules produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Energy pay off stage, 4 ATP molecules produced

A

Stage 2 of glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What is ATP required for in relation to glycolysis

A

For the phosphorylation of glucose and intermediates during the energy investment stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

For the phosphorylation of glucose and intermediates during the energy investment stage

A

What is ATP required for in relation to glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

what is the net gain of glycolysis

A

2 ATP molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What does coenzyme NAD do

A

During glycolysis, Picks up hydrogen ions released by a dehydrogenase enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

During glycolysis, Picks up hydrogen ions released by a dehydrogenase enzyme

A

What does coenzyme NAD do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

In glycolysis, what releases hydrogen ions

A

Dehydrogenase enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

During glycolysis, what does dehydrogenase enzyme release

A

Hydrogen ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What was the end product of glycolysis

A

Pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

how many carbons foes an acetyl group have

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

what is NADH made up of

A

H+ ions and NAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

In the citric acid cycle, what does acetyl group of coenzyme A combine with?

A

oxaloacetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

In the citric acid cycle, what does oxaloacetate combine with?

A

the acetyl group of coenzyme A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

in the citric acid cycle, what does the combination of coenzyme A and oxaloacetate form?

A

citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

what is citrate made up of?

A

coenzyme A and oxaloacetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

where does the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate occur

A

cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

where does the further breakdown of pyruvate occur

A

mitchondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

what is the second stage of respiration

A

the citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

what stage in the citric acid cycle in respiration

A

stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

where does the citric acid cycle happen

A

the matrix of the mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

what cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion

A

the citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

what is required for the phosphorylation of glucose and intermediates during stage 1 of glycolysis

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

what is pyruvate broken down into in aerobic conditions

A

an acetyl group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

what does the combination of an acetyl group and coenzyme A produce

A

acetyl coenzyme A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

what is acetyl coenzyme A made up of

A

acetyl group and coenzyme A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

the breakdown of what produces an acetyl group

A

pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

in what conditions does the breakdown of pyruvate into an acetyl group occur

A

aerobic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

what happens in the citric acid cycle

A

A) the acetyl group combines with coenzyme A to form acetyl coenzyme A

B) the acetyl group from acetyl coenzyme A combines with oxloacetate to form citrate

C) during enzyme controlled steps, citrate is gradually converted back into oxloacetate

—> resulting in the generation of ATP and release of carbon dioxide.

D) H+ ions and electrons are passed to the coenzyme NAD to form NADH

E)NADH passes its H+ ions to the electron transport chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

A) the acetyl group combines with coenzyme A to form acetyl coenzyme A

B) the acetyl group from acetyl coenzyme A combines with oxloacetate to form citrate

C) during enzyme controlled steps, citrate is gradually converted back into oxloacetate

—> resulting in the generation of ATP and release of carbon dioxide.

D) H+ ions and electrons are passed to the coenzyme NAD to form NADH

E) NADH passes its H+ ions to the electron transport chain

A

stages of the citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

part A of the citric acid cycle

A

the acetyl group combines with coenzyme A to form acetyl coenzyme A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

part B of the citric acid cycle

A

the acetyl group from acetyl coenzyme A combines with oxloacetate to form citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

the acetyl group from acetyl coenzyme A combines with oxloacetate to form citrate

A

part B of the citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

the acetyl group combines with coenzyme A to form acetyl coenzyme A

A

part A of the citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

what do dehydrogenase enzymes do

A

remove hydrogen ions and electrons and pass them to the coenzyme NAD, forming NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

remove hydrogen ions and electrons and pass them to the coenzyme NAD, forming NADH

A

what dehydrogenase enzyme does

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

when does dehydrogenase enzymes remove hydrogen ions and electrons

A

glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

in the citric acid cycle, what gets passed to the electron transport system chain

A

the hydrogen ions and electrons from NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

what is part B of the citric acid cycle controlled by

A

enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

what is formed in part B of the citric acid cycle

A

citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

what is produced in the conversion of citrate into oxaloacetate

A

ATP and carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

what do dehydrogenase enzymes do in the citric acid cycle

A

remove H+ ions from the respiratory substrate along with associated electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

what enzyme removes H+ ions from the respiratory substrate along with associated electrons

A

dehydrogenase enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

in the citric acid cycle, what are passed to the coenzyme NAD

A

H+ ions and electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

in the citric acid cycle, what are H+ ions and electrons passed to (to form NADH)

A

coenzyme NAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

what do coenzyme NAD and H ions and electrons form in the citric acid cycle

A

NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

what is NADH made up of

A

coenzyme NAD and H+ ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

what happens to NADH when it is formed

A

its passed to the electron transport chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

what is passed to the electron transport chain when it is formed

A

NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

where is the electron transport chain

A

the inner mitochondrial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

what is the electron transport chain

A

a series of carrier proteins attached to the inner mitochondrial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

a series of carrier proteins attached to the inner mitochondrial membrane

A

the electron transport chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

in the electron transport chain, where does the NADH come from

A

the glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

what is produced in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

A

NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

what does NADH do

A

release electrons and pass them on to the electron transport system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

what releases electrons and pass them on to the electron transport system

A

NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

what do electrons release as they go through the electron transport chain

A

energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

what releases energy as it goes through the electron transport chain

A

electrons

227
Q

in the electron transport chain, what is the energy from the electrons used for

A

to pump hydrogen ions across the membrane from the inner membrane space

(where a higher concentration of hydrogen ions is maintained)

228
Q

to pump hydrogen ions across the membrane from the inner membrane space

(where a higher concentration of hydrogen ions is maintained)

A

what the energy from the electrons used for in the electron transport chain

229
Q

describe the hydrogen ion conc in the inner membrane

A

higher hydrogen ion conc

230
Q

what goes in the return flow to the matrix

A

hydrogen ions

231
Q

where does the return flow of hydrogen ions go to

A

the matrix

232
Q

describe the matrix in relation to H+ ions conc

A

the region of lower H conc

233
Q

how is most of the ATP generated by cellular respiration produced

A

through the electron transport system

234
Q

what happens to the electrons when they come to the end of the electron transport chain

A

they combine with oxygen, the final hydrogen acceptor

235
Q

what combines with oxygen at the end of the electron transport chain

A

electrons

236
Q

when do electrons combine with oxygen

A

at the end of the electron transport chain

237
Q

at the end of the electron transport chain, what does oxygen combine with

A

a pair of hydrogen ions

238
Q

at the end of the electron transport chain, what combines with a pair of hydrogen ions

A

oxygen

239
Q

what is formed when oxygen combines with a pair of hydrogen ions

A

water, H2O

240
Q

what 2 things happen at the end of the electron transport chain

A

electrons combine with oxygen

oxygen combines with a pair of hydrogen ions to form water

241
Q

electrons combine with oxygen

oxygen combines with a pair of hydrogen ions to form water

A

what 2 things happen at the end of the electron transport chain

242
Q

what is oxygen in the electron transport chain

A

the final hydrogen acceptor

243
Q

the final hydrogen acceptor

A

oxygen

244
Q

fermentation

A

releases a small quantity of energy from the partial breakdown of glucose

245
Q

releases a small quantity of energy from the partial breakdown of glucose

A

fermentation

246
Q

what cannot happen during fermentation

A

citric acid cycle

AND

electron transport chain

247
Q

why can’t the citric acid cycle and electron transport chain happen in fermentation

A

they require oxygen

248
Q

where does fermentation take place

A

the cytoplasm

249
Q

what is pyruvate converted into in animal cells

A

lactate

250
Q

is pyruvate –> lactate in animal cells reversible?

A

yes

251
Q

in fermentation in plant and yeast, what is produced

A

ethanol and CO2

252
Q

where does glycolysis occur

A

cytoplasm

253
Q

in what cells are ethanol and CO2 a product of fermentation

A

plant and yeast

254
Q

is fermentation in plant and yeast cells reversible?

A

no

255
Q

how many ATP is produced in fermentation

A

2

256
Q

what type of respiration results in 2 ATP molecules being produced

A

fermentation

257
Q

ATP is only produced when its _______

A

required

258
Q

word equation for fermentation in animals and some bacteria

A

glucose –> pyruvate –> lactate

259
Q

glucose –> pyruvate –> lactate

A

word equation for fermentation in animals and some bacteria

260
Q

during the formation of lactate, the body accumulates an ___________

A

oxygen debt

261
Q

during the ___________________, the body accumulates an oxygen debt

A

formation of lactate

262
Q

when is oxygen debt repaid

A

when an individual rests and breathes deeply

263
Q

what happens when there is an oxygen debt

A

an individual rests and breathes deeply, this repays the oxygen debt

lactate is then converted back into pyruvate and continues along the aerobic pathway

264
Q

oxygen debt

A

during the formation of lactate

265
Q

Part C of the citric acid cycle

A

during enzyme controlled steps, citrate is gradually converted back into oxloacetate

—> resulting in the generation of ATP and release of carbon dioxide.

266
Q

during enzyme controlled steps, citrate is gradually converted back into oxloacetate

—> resulting in the generation of ATP and release of carbon dioxide.

A

Part C of the citric acid cycle

267
Q

H+ ions and electrons are passed to the coenzyme NAD to form NADH

A

Part D of the citric acid cycle

268
Q

Part D of the citric acid cycle

A

H+ ions and electrons are passed to the coenzyme NAD to form NADH

269
Q

Part E of the citric acid cycle

A

NADH passes its H+ ions to the electron transport chain

270
Q

NADH passes its H+ ions to the electron transport chain

A

Part E of the citric acid cycle

271
Q

metabolic rate

A

the quantity of energy consumed by an organism per unit time

272
Q

the quantity of energy consumed by an organism per unit time

A

metabolic rate

273
Q

what is energy required for in all organisms

A

to keep them alive

274
Q

three ways to measure metabolic rate

A

1) volume of oxygen consumed/unit time

2) volume of carbon dioxide released/unit time

3) heat production/unit time

275
Q

1) volume of oxygen consumed/unit time

2) volume of carbon dioxide released/unit time

3) heat production/unit time

A

three ways to measure metabolic rate

276
Q

three things to measure metabolic rate with

A

1) use of a respirometer

2) use of a calorimeter

3) O2 or CO2 probes

277
Q

1) use of a respirometer

2) use of a calorimeter

3) O2 or CO2 probes

A

three things to measure metabolic rate with

278
Q

using a respirometer

A
  1. CO2 produced by the organism is absorbed by potassium hydroxide pellets
  2. as oxygen is used up, the level of oxygen will rise up the tube

measured to see the volume of oxygen consumed/unit time

279
Q
  1. CO2 produced by the organism is absorbed by potassium hydroxide pellets
  2. as oxygen is used up, the level of oxygen will rise up the tube

measured to see the volume of oxygen consumed/unit time

A

using a respirometer

280
Q

metabolic rate _______ between ___________ and _________

A

metabolic rate differs between organisms and people

281
Q

_______ _____ differs between organisms and people

A

metabolic rate

282
Q

_____ and __________ have higher metabolic rates in comparison to __________, ____________, and ________

A

birds and mammals have higher metabolic rates in comparison to reptiles, amphibians, and fish

283
Q

birds and mammals have ________ metabolic rates in comparison to reptiles, amphibians, and fish

A

birds and mammals have higher metabolic rates in comparison to reptiles, amphibians, and fish

284
Q

birds and mammals have higher _________ _____- in comparison to reptiles, amphibians, and fish

A

birds and mammals have higher metabolic rates in comparison to reptiles, amphibians, and fish

285
Q

what do birds and mammals have to support their higher metabolic rates

A

different circulatory systems than other species

286
Q

why do birds and mammals have different circulatory systems than other species

A

as they require more efficient delivery of oxygen to their cells

287
Q

what species require more efficient delivery of oxygen to their cells

A

birds and mammals

288
Q

what is the circulatory system made up of

A

heart

blood vessels

blood

289
Q

what do..
heart

blood vessels

blood

make up

A

circulatory system

290
Q

anatomy

A

structure

291
Q

physiology

A

function

292
Q

what species have a complete double circulatory systems

A

mammals and birds

293
Q

what circulatory systems do mammals and birds have

A

complete double circulatory systems

294
Q

complete double circulatory systems

A

the heart has two atria and two ventricles divided by a septum

there is no mixing of oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood

the oxygenated blood can be pumped out at a higher pressure
-> enabling more efficient delivery to cells

295
Q

the heart has two atria and two ventricles divided by a septum

there is no mixing of oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood

the oxygenated blood can be pumped out at a higher pressure
-> enabling more efficient delivery to cells

A

complete double circulatory systems

296
Q

heart in complete double circulatory systems

A

two atria and two ventricles divided by a septum

297
Q

two atria and two ventricles divided by a septum

A

heart in complete double circulatory systems

298
Q

in complete double circulatory systems, is there mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

A

no

299
Q

in complete double circulatory systems, what doesnt mix

A

oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

300
Q

in complete double circulatory systems, what can be pumped out at a higher pressure

A

oxygenated blood

301
Q

in complete double circulatory systems, what happens to oxygenated blood

A

pumped out at a higher pressure

302
Q

what species have incomplete double circulatory systems

A

amphibians and reptiles

303
Q

what circulatory systems do amphibians and reptiles have

A

incomplete double circulatory systems

304
Q

incomplete double circulatory systems

A

two atria but only one ventricle

mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

in amphibians, mixing is not a problem as the animal partially oxygenates the blood through the moist skin surface

in reptiles, the ventricle is partially divided by a septum

305
Q

two atria but only one ventricle

mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

in amphibians, mixing is not a problem as the animal partially oxygenates the blood through the moist skin surface

in reptiles, the ventricle is partially divided by a septum

A

incomplete double circulatory systems

306
Q

heart in incomplete double circulatory systems

A

two atria but only one ventricle

307
Q

two atria but only one ventricle

A

heart in incomplete double circulatory systems

308
Q

what mixes in two atria but only one ventricle

A

oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

309
Q

does oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in incomplete double circulatory systems

A

yes

310
Q

mixing oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in amphibians

A

mixing is not a problem as the animal partially oxygenates the blood through the moist skin surface

311
Q

in what animals is mixing is not a problem as the animal partially oxygenates the blood through the moist skin surface

A

amphibians

312
Q

in reptiles, what is in the heart

A

the ventricle is partially divided by a septum

313
Q

the ventricle is partially divided by a septum

A

reptiles

314
Q

what species has single circulation

A

fish

315
Q

what circulatory system do fish have

A

single circulation

316
Q

single circulation system

A

one atrium, one ventricle

blood passes through the two chambered heart only once on each circuit around the whole of the circulation system of the animal

gills - high pressure

capillary beds supply tissues with oxygen at low pressures as the narrow network of tubes offers high resistence to the flow of blood
-> primitive and relatively inefficient method of circulation

317
Q

one atrium, one ventricle

blood passes through the two chambered heart only once on each circuit around the whole of the circulation system of the animal

gills - high pressure

capillary beds supply tissues with oxygen at low pressures as the narrow network of tubes offers high resistence to the flow of blood
-> primitive and relatively inefficient method of circulation

A

single circulation system

318
Q

heart in single circulation system

A

one atrium, one ventricle

319
Q

one atrium, one ventricle

A

single circulation system

320
Q

blood in single circulation system

A

blood passes through the two chambered heart only once on each circuit around the whole of the circulation system of the animal

321
Q

blood passes through the two chambered heart only once on each circuit around the whole of the circulation system of the animal

A

blood in single circulation system

322
Q

what blood pressure do gills carry blood at

A

high

323
Q

capillary beds in single circulation systems

A

capillary beds supply tissues with oxygen at low pressures as the narrow network of tubes offers high resistence to the flow of blood
-> primitive and relatively inefficient method of circulation

324
Q

capillary beds supply tissues with oxygen at low pressures as the narrow network of tubes offers high resistence to the flow of blood
-> primitive and relatively inefficient method of circulation

A

capillary beds in single circulation systems

325
Q

abiotic factors examples

A

Temperature, pH, salinity

326
Q

Temperature, pH, salinity

A

Abiotic factors examples

327
Q

external environnemental are ____________ ___________, abiotic factors are _______ _________

A

external environnemental are constantly changing, abiotic factors are not fixed

328
Q

___________ _______ are constantly changing, _________ __________ are not fixed

A

external environnemental are constantly changing, abiotic factors are not fixed

329
Q

what can regulators do

A

are able to alter their normal metabolic rate

and maintain a steady internal environment through physiological mechanisms

330
Q

what are able to alter their normal metabolic rate

and maintain a steady internal environment through physiological mechanisms

A

regulators

331
Q

what are conformers able to do

A

Unable to alter their normal metabolic rate

332
Q

what are unable to alter their normal metabolic rate

A

Conformers

333
Q

What does a conformers internal temperature depend on

A

The abiotic factors that affects its external environment

334
Q

what depends on the abiotic factors that affects its external environment

A

a conformers internal temperature

335
Q

Where do conformers tend to live

A

In environments that are relatively stable,

such as the ocean floor

336
Q

what live in environments that are relatively stable,

such as the ocean floor

A

Conformers

337
Q

Metabolic costs of conformers

A

Low

As it does not employ physiological mechanisms to maintain its inner steady state

338
Q

what have low metabolic costs

As it does not employ physiological mechanisms to maintain its inner steady state

A

Conformers

339
Q

Disadvantage of conformers

A

The animal is restricted to a narrow range of ecological niches and

is less adaptable to environmental changes

340
Q

The animal is restricted to a narrow range of ecological niches and

is less adaptable to environmental changes

A

Disadvantage of conformers

341
Q

What do conformers use to maintain their optimum metabolic rate and tolerate variation in their external environment

A

Behavioural responses

342
Q

Why do conformers use behavioural responses

A

maintain their optimum metabolic rate and tolerate variation in their external environment

343
Q

Lizards using behaviour responses

A

Lizards bask in sunlight to maintain body temp, but cannot shiver

344
Q

What is a regulators internal environment not directly dependant on

A

the abiotic factors that affect its environment

345
Q

what doesn’t depend the abiotic factors that affect its environment

A

regulators internal environment

346
Q

How do regulators maintain their internal environment

A

Regardless of the external environment

Metabolism

347
Q

what do regulators maintain regardless of the external environment

A

Their internal environment

348
Q

What does regulators using metabolism allow them to do

A

Increases the range of ecological niches

349
Q

Metabolism for regulation requires what

A

Energy

350
Q

Regulators metabolic cost

A

High

351
Q

Regulators regulation requires energy to …

A

Achieve homostatis

352
Q

Disadvantage of regulators

A

Organisms must spend energy on the physiological mechanisms needed to maintain its inner state

353
Q

Organisms must spend energy on the physiological mechanisms needed to maintain its inner state

A

Disadvantage of regulators

354
Q

Osmoregulation

A

The process of maintaining water and salt concentration across membranes within the body

355
Q

The process of maintaining water and salt concentration across membranes within the body

A

Osmoregulation

356
Q

Homeostasis

A

The maintenance of the body’s internal environmental regardless of the external environment

357
Q

The maintenance of the body’s internal environmental regardless of the external environment

A

Homeostasis

358
Q

What is homeostasis brought about by

A

Negative feedback control

359
Q

What does negative feedback control bring about

A

Homeostasis

360
Q

What does negative feedback control require

A

Energy

361
Q

Negative feedback

A

Regulators achieve homeostasis using systems made up of receptors, messengers, and effectors.

362
Q

Regulators achieve homeostasis using systems made up of receptors, messengers, and effectors.

A

Negative feedback

363
Q

Stages of negative feedback

A

Set point

Changes detected by receptors

Electrical impulses sent to the brain

Effectors bring about a corrective response to return internal environment

364
Q

Set point

Changes detected by receptors

Electrical impulses sent to the brain

Effectors bring about a corrective response to return internal environment

A

Stages of negative feedback

365
Q

thermoregulation

A

The process of maintaining your core internal temperature

366
Q

The process of maintaining your core internal temperature

A

Thermoregulation

367
Q

What does thermoregulation ensure

A

Optimal enzyme activity to maintain metabolism and high diffusion rates

368
Q

What ensures optimal enzyme activity to maintain metabolism and high diffusion rates

A

Thermoregulation

369
Q

Hypothalamus

A

The temperature monitoring centre of the brain

370
Q

The temperature monitoring centre of the brain

A

Hypothalamus

371
Q

3 corrections of overheating

A
  1. Vasodilation
  2. Increasing sweating
  3. Decreased metabolic rate
372
Q
  1. Vasodilation
  2. Increasing sweating
  3. Decreased metabolic rate
A

Three corrections of over heating

373
Q

Vasodilation

A

The arterioles leading to the skin become dilated,

increasing blood flow to the skin surface, increasing heat loss through radiation

374
Q

The arterioles leading to the skin become dilated,

increasing blood flow to the skin surface, increasing heat loss through radiation

A

Vasodilation

375
Q

Increasing sweating

A

Heat energy from body is used to evaporate the water in sweat, cooling the skin

376
Q

Heat energy from body is used to evaporate the water in sweat, cooling the skin

A

Increasing sweating

377
Q

Decreased metabolic rate

A

Less heat produced

378
Q

Less heat produced

A

Decreased metabolic rate

379
Q

4 corrections of overcooling

A
  1. Vasoconstriction
  2. Shivering
  3. contraction of hair erector muscles
  4. Increased metabolic rate
380
Q
  1. Vasoconstriction
  2. Shivering
  3. contraction of hair erector muscles
  4. Increased metabolic rate
A

4 corrections of overcooling

381
Q

Vasoconstriction

A

The arterioles leading to the skin become constricted.

Decreases the volume of blood flowing to the surface capillaries.

Less heat lost through radiation

382
Q

The arterioles leading to the skin become constricted.

Decreases the volume of blood flowing to the surface capillaries.

Less heat lost through radiation

A

Vascoconstriction

383
Q

Shivering

A

Muscle contractions generate heat

384
Q

Muscle contractions generate heat

A

Shivering

385
Q

Contraction of hair erector muscles

A

Hairs are raised trapping a layer of insulating air next to the skin surface

386
Q

Hairs are raised trapping a layer of insulating air next to the skin surface

A

Contraction of hair erector muscles

387
Q

Increased metabolic rate

A

More heat produced

388
Q

What cause more heat produced

A

Increased metabolic rate

389
Q

Importance of regulating the temperature of our bodies

A

Optimal enzyme activity
AND High diffusion rates

to maintain metabolism

390
Q

Optimal enzyme activity
AND High diffusion rates

to maintain metabolism

A

Importance of regulating the temperature of our bodies

391
Q

Normal human body temp

A

37 degrees C

392
Q

What allows for survival when the costs of continuing normal metabolic activity is too high

A

Dormancy

392
Q

What is dormancy a part of

A

An organisms lifecycle

392
Q

What does dormancy allow for

A

Survival when the costs of continuing normal metabolic activity is too high

392
Q

What is part of an organism’s lifecycle

A

Dormancy

392
Q

When does dormancy happen

A

Extreme..

Temperature
Drought
Food scarcity

392
Q

What happens during extreme ..

Temperature
Drought
Food scarcity

A

Dormancy

392
Q

What causes a decrease in

Heart rate

Breathing rate

Body temperature

A

Dormancy

392
Q

Photoperiod

A

Day length

392
Q

Day length

A

Photoperiod

392
Q

What does dormancy cause a decrease in

A

Heart rate

Breathing rate

Body temperature

392
Q

Photoperiod

A

Day length

392
Q

Day length

A

Photoperiod

392
Q

Predictive dormancy

A

An organism becomes dormant before the adverse conditions arrive

392
Q

An organism becomes dormant before the adverse conditions arrive

A

Predictive dormancy

392
Q

How do trees respond to
Decreasing photoperiod and temperature in autumn

A

By shedding their leaves
And
Entering their dormant phase before winter

392
Q

Why do trees start to shed their leaves
And
Enter their dormant phase before winter

A

Decreasing photoperiod and temperature in autumn

392
Q

When do winter buds remain dormant until

A

Spring

392
Q

In trees, what remains dormant until spring

A

Winter buds

392
Q

Consequential dormancy

A

When an organism becomes dormant after the adverse conditions arrive

392
Q

When an organism becomes dormant after the adverse conditions arrive

A

Consequential dormancy

392
Q

Where is consequential dormancy most common

A

In regions of unpredictable climate

392
Q

What dormancy is most common in regions of unpredictable climate

A

Consequential dormancy

392
Q

Consequential dormancy advantage

A

The organism can remain active for larger and exploit available resources

392
Q

The organism can remain active for larger and exploit available resources

A

Consequential dormancy advantage

392
Q

Consequential dormancy disadvantage

A

The environmental conditions may kill off individuals before they have had time to become dormant

393
Q

The environmental conditions may kill off individuals before they have had time to become dormant

A

Consequential dormancy disadvantage

394
Q

What animals do hibernation

A

Endothermic

395
Q

Before hibernation, what does an animal do

A

Consume extra food that becomes laid down as a store of fat

396
Q

When does an animal consume extra food that becomes laid down as a store of fat

A

Before hibernation

397
Q

Why is hibernation used

A

To survive winter or low temperatures

398
Q

How do animals survive winter or low temperatures

A

Hibernation

399
Q

How long does hibernation last

A

Weeks to months

400
Q

What dormancy last weeks to months

A

Hibernation

401
Q

Example of dormancy in animals

A

Hibernation

402
Q

What happens during hibernation

A

Metabolic rate drops, temperature drops

Slower heart and breathing rate
—> minimum energy expenditure

403
Q

Metabolic rate drops, temperature drops

Slower heart and breathing rate
—> minimum energy expenditure

A

What happens during hibernation

404
Q

What can’t happen in hibernation

A

The body temp cannot drop too low as homeostatic mechanisms will kick in to ensure survival

405
Q

Snails in aestivation

A

They retreat into their shells and seal the opening with dried mucus

Leaving a tinny hole for gas exchange

406
Q

When do snails retreat into their shells and seal the opening with dried mucus

Leaving a tinny hole for gas exchange

A

Aestivation

407
Q

What does aestivation mean for the animal

A

They remain in the state until favourable conditions

408
Q

Daily torpor

A

A period of reduced activity in animals with high metabolic rate

409
Q

A period of reduced activity in animals with high metabolic rate

A

Daily torpor

410
Q

What happens in daily torpor

A

Animals activity and metabolic rate become greatly reduced for part of every 24hr cycle

411
Q

Advantage of daily torpor

A

Survival value

Greatly decreased the rate of energy consumption during the time when searching for food would be unsuccessful or dangerous

412
Q

Survival value

Greatly decreased the rate of energy consumption during the time when searching for food would be unsuccessful or dangerous

A

Advantage of daily torpor

413
Q

Avoiding adverse conditions

A

Migration

414
Q

Migration

A

The regular movement by the members of a species from one place to another over a relatively long distance

415
Q

The regular movement by the members of a species from one place to another over a relatively long distance

A

Migration

416
Q

Disadvantage of migration

A

Takes a huge amount of energy to move distance

417
Q

What is tracking migration

A

When animal migrated

Where the animal is over winter

Whether or not they return to their original summer territory

How long they live for

418
Q

Techniques for individual marking

A

Leg ringing with metal bands

Satellite tracking using transmitters

419
Q

Leg ringing with metal bands

Satellite tracking using transmitters

A

Techniques for tracking migration

420
Q

Innate behaviour is _______ and ______

A

Innate behaviour is inherited and flexible

421
Q

What behaviour plays a major role in migratory behaviour

A

Innate behaviour

422
Q

What does innate behaviour play a significant role in

A

Migratory behaviour

423
Q

Innate behaviour is performed in the _________ by _______ of the same ______

A

Innate behaviour is performed in the same way by every member of the same species

424
Q

_______ behaviour is performed in the same way by every member of the same species

A

Innate

425
Q

When does insure behaviour occur

A

In response to external stimulus

426
Q

What happens in response to an external stimulus

A

Innate behaviour

427
Q

Learned behaviour begins __________ and is gained by _________

A

Learned behaviour begins after birth and is gained by experience

428
Q

________ behaviour begins after birth and is gained by experience

A

Learned behaviour

429
Q

What is learned behaviour

A

Flexible

430
Q

Microorganisms

A

Very small, often unicellular organisms

431
Q

Very small, often unicellular organisms

A

Microorganisms

432
Q

3 domains of life

A

Eukaryotes

Bacteria

Archaea

433
Q

Examples of eukaryotes

A

Yeast algae

434
Q

Examples of bacteria

A

E coli

435
Q

Examples of archaea

A

Methanogens thermophiles

436
Q

What do microorganisms produce from metabolism

A

A variety of metabolites

437
Q

Uses of microorganisms

A

Medicine
-> making vaccines and antibiotics

Food and enzymes
-> cheese and alcohol

Bioremediation
-> breakdown of sewage and toxic waste

438
Q

Medicine
-> making vaccines and antibiotics

Food and enzymes
-> cheese and alcohol

Bioremediation
-> breakdown of sewage and toxic waste

A

Uses for microorganisms

439
Q

Why are microorganisms ideal in research and industry

A

Easy to cultivate (culture)

Reproduce and grow quickly

Food substrates are cheap

produces useful products

Highly adaptable

440
Q

How to ensure successful growth of microorganisms

A

Provided with a suitable growth medium

And

Carefully controlled environmental factors

441
Q

What is the point of…

Provided with a suitable growth medium

And

Carefully controlled environmental factors

A

To ensure successful growth of microorganisms

442
Q

How do many microorganisms obtain energy

A

From light for photosynthesis

443
Q

In industry, what do most microorganisms generate energy from

A

Chemical substrate on the agar plates they are grown on

444
Q

What do some microorganisms require to be added to the growth medium

A

More complex compounds

445
Q

Growth medium

A

The substrate microorganisms are grown on

446
Q

The substrate microorganisms are grown on

A

Growth medium

447
Q

Environmental factors to be controlled on growth medium

A

Sterile

Oxygen levels

pH

Temperature

448
Q

What factors must be controlled on growth medium

A

Environmental

449
Q

Control of sterility in growth medium

A

Aseptic techniques, steam and filters are used

450
Q

What does Aseptic techniques, steam and filters control

A

Sterility

451
Q

What does Aseptic techniques, steam and filters do

A

Reduce competition with desired microorganisms for nutrients

Reduce risk of spoilage

452
Q

How to reduce competition with desired microorganisms for nutrients

Reduce risk of spoilage

A

Aseptic techniques

Steam

Filters

453
Q

How to control temperature in growth medium

A

Water jackets

Thermostats

454
Q

What do water jackets and thermostats control

A

Temperature

455
Q

Effect of water jackets and thermostat on growth medium

A

Keeps enzymes at their optimum temperature

456
Q

How to keep enzymes at optimum temperature in growth medium

A

water jackets and thermostats

457
Q

How to control oxygen levels in growth medium

A

Air inlets

Paddles

For aeration

458
Q

What do air inlets

Paddles

For aeration

Control

A

Oxygen levels

459
Q

How to control pH levels in growth medium

A

Buffers or the use of acid/alkali to keep enzymes at their optimum pH

460
Q

Buffers or the use of acid/alkali to keep enzymes at their optimum pH

A

How to control pH in growth medium

461
Q

What pH do most bacteria grow at

A

7

462
Q

What pH do fungi grow at

A

5-6

463
Q

Aseptic technique

A

Precautionary procedures used in microbiology to prevent microbial contamination of cultures, people, or the environment

464
Q

Precautionary procedures used in microbiology to prevent microbial contamination of cultures, people, or the environment

A

Aseptic technique

465
Q

Examples of aseptic technique

A

Flaming the wire loop

Flaming the bottles and test tubes

Sterile equipment

466
Q

First phase of growth

A

Lag phase

467
Q

Second phase of growth

A

Log/expidential phase

468
Q

Third phase of growth

A

Stationary phase

469
Q

Forth phase of growth

A

Death phase

470
Q

Lag phase

A

Little to no increase in cell no

Enzymes are induced to metabolise substrates

471
Q

Little to no increase in cell no

Enzymes are induced to metabolise substrates

A

Lag phase

472
Q

Log/exponential phase

A

Most rapid growth of microorganisms phase due to plentiful nutrients

473
Q

Most rapid growth of microorganisms phase due to plentiful nutrients

A

Log/exponential phase

474
Q

Stationary phase

A

The nutrients in the culture media becoming depleted

And

The production of toxic metabolites

475
Q

The nutrients in the culture media becoming depleted

And

The production of toxic metabolites

A

Stationary phase

476
Q

when does secondary metabolism occur

A

end of log phase and during the stationary phase

477
Q

end of log phase and during the stationary phase

A

Secondary metabolism

478
Q

Secondary metabolism

A

Results in the production of secondary metabolites,

Eg. Antibiotics

479
Q

Results in the production of secondary metabolites,

Eg. Antibiotics

A

Secondary metabolism

480
Q

Secondary metabolism most useful for

A

The microbe growth and production of new cells

481
Q

Secondary metabolism in nature

A

Ecological advantage by allowing microorganisms that produce them to outcompete other microorganisms

482
Q

Ecological advantage by allowing microorganisms that produce them to outcompete other microorganisms

A

Secondary metabolism

483
Q

Growth curve under ideal conditions

A

Cell number and the rate of population doubles at each cell division

484
Q

When are semi logarithmic scales used

A

To produce and interpret growth curves in microorganisms

485
Q

What is used to produce and interpret growth curves in microorganisms

A

Semi logarithmic scales

486
Q

Wild type

A

Microbes that exist in their typical form in nature

487
Q

Microbes that exist in their typical form in nature

A

Wild type

488
Q

When would a wild type be selected

A

It exhibiting s desirable genetic trait

489
Q

Important features microbes may lack

A

Genetic stability

Ability to grow on low cost nutrients

Ability to allow easy harvesting of the target product

490
Q

Why is strain improvement employed

A

To try to alter the wild microbes genome and include the genetic material for these traits

491
Q

How is strain improvement brought about by

A

Mutagenesis

Recombinant DNA technology

492
Q

What can be brought about by …

Mutagenesis

Recombinant DNA technology

A

Strain improvement

493
Q

Mutation

A

A heritable change in an organisms DNA that causes genetic diversity

494
Q

A heritable change in an organisms DNA that causes genetic diversity

A

Mutation

495
Q

What rarely happens with mutations

A

A mutant allele will confer an advantage on the organism or give it a new property that is useful to humans

496
Q

Mutagenesis

A

The creation of mutations

497
Q

The creation of mutations

A

Mutagenesis

498
Q

In nature, mutations are….

A

Rare

Occur spontaneously and at random

Usually detrimental to the organisms

499
Q

How to increase the rate of mutation

A

The use of mutagenic agents

500
Q

What does the use of mutagenic agents do

A

Increase the rate of mutation

501
Q

Examples of mutagenic agents

A

Radiation

Mutagenic chemicals such as mustard gas

502
Q

Mutagenesis useful in industry

A

A microbe mat develop a new property that is useful to humans

503
Q

What does recombinant DNA technology enable

A

The transfer of gene sequences from one organisms to another organism or species

504
Q

What allows for the transfer of gene sequences from one organisms to another organism or species

A

Recombinant DNA technology

505
Q

First thing DNA technology can do

A

Amplify specific metabolic steps in a pathway or removing inhibitory controls affecting it

Thereby increasing yield of the target product

506
Q

Second thing DNA technology can do

A

Causes the cells to secrete their product into the surrounding medium allowing it to be easily recovered

507
Q

Third thing DNA technology can do

A

Tenders the microorganism unable to survive in on environment and therefore acts as a safety mechanism

508
Q

Stage 1 of artificial transformation

A

Select a particular Gene for a desirable characteristic

509
Q

Stage 2 of artificial transformation

A

Splice it’s DNA into the DNA of a vector

510
Q

Stage 3 of artificial transformation

A

Insert the vector into a host cell

511
Q

Vector

A

A DNA molecule used to carry foreign in genetic information into another cell

Both plasmids and artificial chromosomes

512
Q

A DNA molecule used to carry foreign in genetic information into another cell

Both plasmids and artificial chromosomes

A

Vector

513
Q

Why is the host cell described as recombinant dna

A

As it contains a combination of its own DNA and that from another source joined together

514
Q

What are two types of enzymes used in recombinant DNA

A

restriction endonucleases

Ligase

515
Q

restriction endonucleases

Ligase

A

Two types of enzymes used in recombinant DNA

516
Q

What are restriction endonucleases taken from

A

Microbes

517
Q

What do restriction endonucleases do

A

Cut open plasmids

Cut specific genes out of chromosomes

518
Q

What do restriction endonucleases recognise

A

Specific sequences of DNA bases called restriction sites

519
Q

What must happen with restriction endonucleases

A

Same one used to cut both the plasmid and the Gene from the chromosome

520
Q

What does using the restriction endonucleases ensure

A

The ends of both DNA fragments have DNA bases that are complementary to each other

521
Q

What ensures the ends of both DNA fragments have DNA bases that are complementary to each other

A

Using the same restriction endonucleases

522
Q

Sticky ends

A

The ends of the cut DNA fragments

523
Q

The ends of the cut DNA fragments

A

Sticky ends

524
Q

Ligase

A

Seals the desired gene into the plasmid creating recombinant plasmid

525
Q

Seals the desired gene into the plasmid creating recombinant plasmid

A

Ligase

526
Q

Each end of the DNA a fragments must have…

A

Complementary bases

527
Q

What must a vector have to be effective

A

Restriction sites

Regulatory sequences

Marker genes

Origins of replication

528
Q

Restriction site

A

Contains target sequences of DNA where specific restriction endonucleases cut

529
Q

Contains target sequences of DNA where specific restriction endonucleases cut

A

Restriction site

530
Q

What does restriction site allow for

A

Using the same RE to cut open the gene from the chromosome

531
Q

What ensures that the sticky ends of both donor dna and the plasmid dna are complementary

A

Restriction site

532
Q

Regulatory sequences

A

Control gene expression in the plasmid/artificial chromosome

533
Q

Control gene expression in the plasmid/artificial chromosome

A

Regulatory sequence

534
Q

Origins of replication

A

Genes that control self replication of the plasmid/ artificial chromosome

535
Q

Genes that control self replication of the plasmid/ artificial chromosome

A

Origins of replication

536
Q

What are origins of replication essential for

A

The generation of many copies of the plasmid within the transformed host cell

537
Q

What is essential for the generation of many copies of the plasmid within the transformed host cell

A

Origins of replication

538
Q

Selectable markers

A

Select the microorganisms from a selective agent that would usually kill it or prevent it from growing

539
Q

Select the microorganisms from a selective agent that would usually kill it or prevent it from growing

A

Selectable markers

540
Q

What do selectable markers ensure

A

Only microorganisms that have taken up the vector grow in the presence of the selective agent

H Biology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions