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BHSC 3329 - Immunology > Unit 2 - Innate Immunology > Flashcards

Unit 2 - Innate Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What organ represents the largest organ of the human immune system?

A

Skin

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2
Q

What does the lymphatic system drain into?

A

Vena cava

- circulatory system

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3
Q

True or False:

Lymphatic system and circulatory systems use the same vessels

A

False

- they are separate systems that run in parallel

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4
Q

Describe the relationship between the heart, the capillaries, and the lymphatic system

A
  • Heart pumps blood to capillaries
  • Fluid leaks into the tissues
  • Fluid is drained into lymph capillaries and returned to the heart
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5
Q

What are the two types of lymphatic tissue?

A
  1. Primary lymphoid tissue

2. Secondary lymphoid tissue

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6
Q

What are two examples of primary lymphoid tissue?

A
  • Bone marrow

- Thymus

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7
Q

What are 2 examples of secondary lymphoid tissues?

A
  • Spleen

- Lymph nodes

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8
Q

What is the FUNCTION of the primary lymphoid tissue?

A

MAKES the immune cells

  • made in the bone marrow
  • matures in the thymus
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9
Q

What is the FUNCTION of the secondary lymphoid tissue?

A

STORES the immune cells

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10
Q

What does bone marrow contain (the cells that differentiate into immune cells)?

A

Hematopoietic stem cells

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11
Q

What is the role of the thymus in the immune system?

A

Involved in the maturation of T-cells

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12
Q

What is the role of the lymph nodes (3)?

A
  1. Stores leukocytes
  2. Filters body fluids
  3. Detects evidence of infection (antigens, pathogens)
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13
Q

What is the role of the spleen in the immune system?

A

Filters blood to remove old red blood cells or pathogens in blood

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14
Q

What is the primary component of the cell wall of gram (+) bacteria?

A

Peptidoglycan

- absorbs gram stain and makes them show positive

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15
Q

Define innate immunity

A

Defense mechanisms present at BIRTH

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16
Q

Define adaptive/acquired immunity

A

Defense mechanisms acquired by exposure to pathogens

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17
Q

Which type of immunity tends to be specific? Non-specific?

A 
Specific = acquired/adaptive
Non-specific = innate
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18
Q

What is the first line of defense?

A

INNATE: Surface protection

  • anatomical and physiological
  • genetic barriers
  • non-specific chemical barriers
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19
Q

What is the second line of defense?

A

INNATE: cellular and more specific chemical barriers

  • mostly non-specific
  • no immunological memory
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20
Q

What is the third line of defense?

A

ADAPTIVE/ACQUIRED: Specific immune response developed against individual pathogens
- memory for immunity

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21
Q

What are 2 examples of first line defenses?

A
  • Skin
  • Coughing
  • Sneezing
  • low pH
  • Lysozyme
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22
Q

What are 2 examples of second line defenses?

A
  • Phagocytosis
  • Inflammation
  • Fever
  • Interferon
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23
Q

What are 2 examples of third line defenses?

A
  • T-lymphocytes
  • B lymphocytes
  • Antibodies
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24
Q

What are some example of chemical barriers in the first line defense?

A
  • Oil
  • Salt
  • Saliva
  • Lysozyme
  • Defensins
  • Urine
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25
Q

What do lysozymes break down?

A

Break down CELL WALLS on bacteria (gram +)

- they target peptidoglycan

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26
Q

How is mucus is physical barrier in the first line defenses?

A

Epithelial cells secrete mucus

- traps pathogens to be flushed from the body

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27
Q

What is the mucociliary escalator?

A

The epithelial cells of the respiratory tract that have short hair-like cilia to brush mucus up and out of the tract

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28
Q

True or False:

Lungs should be germ-free

A

True

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29
Q

True or False:

Pathogens become highly specialized to a specific host, and genetic changes can bring about immunity

A

True

  • this can be done by mutation
  • for example: some ppl have 32 base pairs were deleted to create a partial resistance against HIV
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30
Q

True or False:

In order to be successful, pathogens have to overcome physical barriers

A

False

- must overcome physical, chemical and genetic barriers

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31
Q

Explain the methods used by Helicobacter pylori to overcome the physical, chemical and genetic barriers in humans

A 
Physical = flagellum burrows into mucosal layer of the stomach
Chemical = ammonia (from urea) neutralize stomach acid
Genetic = well-adapted to survive in the human stomach
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32
Q

Explain what a microbiome does for the body

A

“Good” or resident microbes line our body and block other “harmful” pathogens from adhering

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33
Q

Why can antibiotics be bad for you?

A

They kill off bad bacteria AND “good” bacteria, leaving us vulnerable other bacteria (good/bad) taking up residence

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34
Q

What are the 7 methods of innate immunity?

A
  1. Physical barriers
  2. Chemical barriers
  3. Genetic barriers
  4. Inflammatory response
  5. Interferons
  6. Phagocytosis
  7. Complement
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35
Q

What immune system is active at birth? Which one takes time to develop?

A

Birth = INNATE

Takes time = ACQUIRED

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36
Q

What is centrifugation?

A

Components of blood separate when spun at high speed

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37
Q

What is blood plasma?

A

Blood minus cells

- it looks cloudy

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38
Q

What is blood serum?

A

Plasma minus clotting proteins

- it looks clear

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39
Q

What is the buffy coat?

A

The layer of WBCs after blood has been subjected to centrifugion

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40
Q

Where do RBCs, platelets and leukocytes come from?

A

The same stem cell

- Hematopoietic stem cell

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41
Q

What are the two lineages of leukocytes?

A
  1. Myeloid

2. Lymphoid

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42
Q

Which immune cells (leukocytes) are active at birth?

A
  1. All myeloid cells

2. One lymphoid cells (NK cells)

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43
Q

What is the function of leukocytes?

A

Recognize non-self cells

- like cells with cell walls

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44
Q

From the lymphoid lineage, what cells are innate and which are acquired?

A 
Innate = Natural killer cells
Acquired = everything else
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45
Q

What are the leukocytes that are part of the innate system that are derived from the myeloid lineage?

A
  1. Neurtrophils
  2. Basophils
  3. Eosinophils
  4. Monocytes
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46
Q

What are the 3 leukocytes derived from the lymphoid lineage?

A
  1. T cells (acquired)
  2. B cells (acquired)
  3. Natural killer cells (innate)
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47
Q

What is the name of the leukocyte system that resides in the network of reticular connective tissue?

A

Mononuclear phagocyte system
- this is between the cells and tissues
(formerly reticuloendothelial system)

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48
Q

What cells are made up of aneucleated cell fragments?

A

Platelet (Thrombocyte)

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49
Q

What are platelets produced by?

A

Megakaryocyte

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50
Q

When platelets are activated, what do they release?

A

Blood clotting agents

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51
Q

Define thrombocytopenia

A

Failure to form blood clots

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52
Q

Define thrombocytosis

A

Too many blood clots

- can lead to blood vessel blockage

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53
Q

What chemotactic agent do platelets release that cause other cells to move toward its source?

A

Platelet-derived growth factor

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54
Q

True or False:

Platelets help to fight off infections

A

False
- platelets release platelet-derived growth factor that attract leukocytes to the site - which DO fight off the infection

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55
Q

Phagocytes are cells that are part of which immune system (innate or acquired)?

A

INNATE immune system

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56
Q

Which phagocytes have special PRRs that are callled toll-like receptors (2)?

A
  1. Neutrophils

2. Macrophages

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57
Q

How do phagocytes tell the difference between “self-cells” and “non-self” cells?

A

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

- can “feel” abnormal surface on non-self cells

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58
Q

What is the name for the abnormal surface of the invading cell, that the phagocyte will recognize with their PRRs?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

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59
Q

How are neutrophils able to chase down invading bacteria?

A

Chemotaxis!

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60
Q

What is the reason that RBCs don’t get eaten by neutrophils?

A

RBCs lack the pattern (PAMPs)

- therefore they don’t get eaten

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61
Q

Neutrophils have receptors on them that act as PRRs (Pattern recognition receptors), what are these receptors made up of?

A

Proteins

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62
Q

What happens to the bacteria after the PRRs bind with the PAMPs?

A

The phagocyte invaginates and “eats” the bacteria

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63
Q

What is the name of the cell compartment that is filled with toxins and enzymes?

A

Lysosomes

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64
Q

What is the name of the resulting somal body from the fusion of a phagosome and a lysosome?

A

Phagolysosome

65
Q

What is the function of lysosomes?

A

Digest things!

  • they are acidic
  • they have digestive enzymes inside of them
66
Q

What are the two mechanisms that phagocytes use to achieve intracellular killing?

A
  1. Oxygen dependent mechanisms

2. Oxygen independent mechanisms

67
Q

Describe reactive oxygen species (respiratory burst)

A
  1. Oxygen is converted to superoxide (if we remove an electron
  2. Superoxide + water = H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide)
  3. If we break H2O2 in half … we get OH radicals (which are more toxic than H2O2)
  4. O2+ (superoxide), H2O2, OH and bleach are all found inside lysosomes
68
Q

What is hypochlorite made up of?

A

Chlorine (Cl-) + Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

69
Q

What are the 3 electrically charged proteins that are involved in oxygen independent mechanisms in phagocytes?

A
  1. Lysozyme
  2. Lactoferrin
  3. Protease
70
Q

How do lysozymes damage membranes?

A

Lysozymes target the cell wall in gram (+) bacteria

71
Q

What does lactoferrin do to bacteria?

A

It’s a protein that binds to iron

  • bacteria are starved for iron
  • this pulls the iron away from the bacteria
72
Q

What does protease do to bacteria?

A

Breaks down proteins and peptides

73
Q

What is the other name for neutrophils?

A

Polymorphonuclear cells (PMN cells)

74
Q

What is the most abundant leukocyte in blood?

A

Neutrophils

75
Q

Where are neutrophils mainly found in the body?

A

Circulating in the system (blood, to tissues, to lymph vessels)

76
Q

What are two characteristics of neutrophils?

A
  1. Granulocyte

2. Phagocyte

77
Q

What is the role of monocytes?

A

They circulate in the blood and enter tissues during infection
- they regulate the inflammatory response

78
Q

What can monocytes differentiate into (2)?

A

Macrophages or Dendritic cells

79
Q

What do macrophages promote (3)?

A
  1. Localized inflammation
  2. Immune response
  3. Custodial role (cleaning up debris)
80
Q

What leukocyte is the bridge between the innate and adaptive immune systems?

A

Dendritic cells

81
Q

Where are monocytes typically found (3)?

A

Lungs
Liver
Spleen

82
Q

How are eosinophils and basophils different from neutrophils (in regards to the method killing foreign objects)?

A

Eosinophils and basophils RELEASE the contents of their granules to the EXTRACELLULAR SPACE
- neutrophils deal with the foreign object INSIDE (phagolysosome)

83
Q

What are mast cells functionally equivalent to?

A

Basophils

84
Q

True or False:

Mast cells are not granulocytes but have granules

A

True

  • mast cells are not typically found in the blood, even though they have the same function
  • this is how they were missed in the classification of granulocytes
85
Q

True or False:

Mast cells are avid phagocytes

A

True

86
Q

True or False:

Monocytes are granulocytes

A

False

- The cells that are granulocytes are neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils and mast cells

87
Q

What do eosinophils target?

A

Multicellular parasite - that are too big to phagocytose

- therefore, release their toxins to EXTRACELLULAR space

88
Q

What is frustrated phagocytosis?

A 
The cell (eosinophil) DEGRANULATES to release toxins in the vicinity of the pathogen 
- histamine may also be released
89
Q

What happens to the surrounding tissues if frustrated phagocytosis occurs?

A

Toxins will affect healthy “self” cells as well

- causing stress and maybe necrosis

90
Q

What are some parasites coated in, that make eosinophils especially attracted to them?

A

IgE antibody

- results in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (antibodies that are calling the WBCs to them)

91
Q

Mast cells and basophils are quite different cells but perform the same function. What is that function?

A

Induce inflammation

92
Q

Where are mast cells found? Where are basophils found?

A

Mast cells = connective tissue

Basophils = circulate in blood

93
Q

What do mast cells and basophils release (2)?

A
  1. Histamine

2. Prostaglandins

94
Q

If Basophils and mast cells are able to release histamine and prostaglandins, how do they store it in the cells?

A 
Histamines = stored in the granules
Prostaglandins = produced as needed
95
Q

What are inflammatory cytokines?

A

Chemicals that coordinate the immune response

96
Q

What are the two inflammatory cytokines (of basophils and mast cells)?

A
  1. Histamine

2. Prostaglandins

97
Q

Which inflammatory cytokine has an immediate effect and which has a prolonged effect?

A 
Histamine = immediate
Prostaglandins = prolonged
98
Q

True or False:

Phagocytes can end up being the host for a virus or endocytic parasite

A

True

- such as TB!

99
Q

True or False:

Natural Killer Cells are lymphocytes that phagocytose their targets

A

False

- NK cells either lyse the target cell or induce apoptosis

100
Q

How do natural killer cells (NK) kill their target cells (2)?

A
  1. Lyse the target cell (inject toxins into the cells)

2. Induce apoptosis (cause cells to kill themselves)

101
Q

What is a cell that will NOT become a host for tuberculosis?

A

Natural killer cells

  • because they do not phagocytose their target cells
  • TB wants to be eaten to take over the host cell and hide in it
102
Q

What is the name of the molecule that cells have on them that identify them as “self”?

A

MHC-1

- its a protein

103
Q

What action will natural killer cells take if a cell does not have MHC-1 protein on it?

A

NK cells will KILL it!

104
Q

What happens if a cell has the wrong MHC-1 protein on it’s cell surface?

A

NK cells will KILL it!

105
Q

What kind of response will eosinphils produce?

A

A systemic response

- to a parasite or an allergy

106
Q

What kind of response will basophils and mast cells produce?

A

A systemic response

- inflammation or an allergy

107
Q

Which cells in the body perform phagocytosis (5)?

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Monocytes
  3. Macrophages
  4. Dendritic cells
  5. Mast cells
108
Q

What lineage of WBCs do natural killers cells come from?

A

Lymphoid!

- not myeloid (that’s basically everything else)

109
Q

Which WBCs will fight off a bacteria infection (4)?

A
  1. Neutrophil
  2. Monocyte
  3. Macrophage
  4. Dendritic cells
110
Q

What are 4 characteristics of inflammation?

A
  1. Rubur (redness)
  2. Calor (warmth)
  3. Tumor (swelling)
  4. Dolor (pain)
111
Q

What are the 5 stages of inflammation?

A
  1. Vasoconstriction (until clots forms)
  2. Chemokines (chemotaxis) - attract WBCs
  3. Cytokines (stimulate inflammation)
  4. Vasodilation (increase blood flow)
  5. Edema/swelling (accumulation of WBCs to fight infection
112
Q

Why is it important that vasoconstriction is the first stage of inflammation?

A

Reduce the amount of blood lost

113
Q

If the skin is punctured, what leukocytes will be there first? Second?

A
  1. Macrophages (residents of tissue)

2. Neutrophils (arrive from circulation)

114
Q

What effects do cytokines have (3)?

A
  1. Vasoactive (ex: histamine)
  2. Chemotactic (ex: PDGF)
  3. Both!
115
Q

What is the name of the cytokine released from platelets that cause leukocytes to come and help assist?

A

Platelet-derived growth factor

116
Q

What are examples of cytokines that have vasoactive effects (4)?

A
  1. Histamine
  2. Serotonin
  3. Bradykinin
  4. Prostaglandins
117
Q

What are examples of substances that have chemotactic effects (5)?

A
  1. Endotoxins
  2. Platelet activating factor
  3. Leukotrienes
  4. Mast cell chemotactic factors
  5. Bacterial peptides, PAMPs
118
Q

What are 4 examples of chemical mediators that have both vasoactive and chemotactic effects?

A
  1. Complement components
  2. Cytokines (such as interferon and interleukin)
  3. Some products of arachidonic acid metabolism
  4. Platelet activators
119
Q

Where is histamine primarily formed? Where is it stored? How quickly does it act?

A
  • Formed by basophils and mast cells
  • Stored in granules
  • Acts rapidly
120
Q

Where is prostaglanin formed? Where is it stored? How quickly does it act?

A
  • Formed by basophils and mast cells
  • Not stored - made as needed!
  • Slow to act
121
Q

What is serotonin primarily involved in?

A

Intestinal movements

- happy feelings after feeding

122
Q

What is serotonin secreted by?

A

Platelets to induce blood clotting

123
Q

What does bradykinin do?

A

Increases the sensation of pain and vasodilation

124
Q

What is the relationship between vasodilation and leukocytes?

A

Dilation of the blood vessels increases the permeability for leukocytes

  1. SLOWED at the site
  2. BIND to the endothelial wall of the vessel
  3. ENTER the tissues
125
Q

What two leukocytes are the primary WBCs that slow down, bind and enter tissues when there is vasodilation?

A
  1. Neutrophils

2. Monocytes

126
Q

What do endothelial cells near the site of infection express, which cause leukocytes to stick to the vessel wall?

A

ICAMs

- intercellular adhesion molecules

127
Q

What is the name of the process whereby ICAMs are expressed and leukocytes stick to the vessel wall?

A

Margination

128
Q

What is the name of the process whereby leukocytes pass through the small holes in the endothelial cells in vessels?

A

Diapedesis

129
Q

Once leukocytes are inside the tissues (after diapedesis) how do they know where to go?

A

Chemotaxis!

130
Q

True or False:

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that is a pyrogen

A

True

131
Q

True or False:

IL-1 is a cytokine that is a pyrogen

A

True

132
Q

True or False:

IL-6 is a cytokine that is a pyrogen

A

True

133
Q

True or False:

IL-8 is a cytokine that is a pyrogen

A

False!

- non-pyrogenic

134
Q

True or Flase:

IL-12 is a cytokine that is a pyrogen

A

False!

- non-pyrogenic

135
Q

What is the role of interferons?

A

Chemical (protein) produced by cells that are used to WARN other cells that one is infected by a VIRUS
- gives cells an opportunity to prepare themselves for battle

136
Q

What do interferons cause other cells to produce?

A

Enzymes that will degrade the viral mess anger RNA

- preventing viral protein synthesis

137
Q

What are the 3 cytokines that contribute to fever?

A
  1. TNF
  2. IL-1
  3. IL-6
138
Q

What do pyrogens do to the body?

A

Raise the natural body temperature

139
Q

What happens during a cytokine storm?

A
  1. Body is infected by an unrecognized pathogen
  2. Immune cells respond rapidly - producing cytokines
  3. Immune response leads to a positive feedback loop
  4. Patient dies due to the IMMUNE response - NOT the infectious disease
140
Q

What can happen if you get a WBC stem cell transplant?

A

The transplanted WBCs recognize YOU as “non-self” and attack YOU!
= cytokine storm

141
Q

Is the complement system part of the innate or adaptive immune response?

A

INNATE

142
Q

What does the complement system do to foreign things in the body?

A

Poke holes in the surface of the foreign cell

143
Q

True or False:

The complement system is vasoactive

A

True(ish)

- it is BOTH vasoactive AND chemotactic!

144
Q

True or False:

Each protein in the complement pathway is a protease that activates the next protein in the pathway

A

True

145
Q

True or False:

Only the classical pathway and MB-lectin pathways converge on C3 convertase

A

False

- ALL 3 pathways converge on C3 convertase

146
Q

What does C3 convertase change C3 into?

A

C3a and C3b
(a = active)
(b = bound)

147
Q

What does C3a do?

What does C3b do?

A 
C3a = released and stimulated inflammation
C3b = embedded in membrane
148
Q

What does opsonization do?

A

Makes things more LIKELY to be phagocytized

- sugary donut vs. plain donut example

149
Q

What does C3b become?

A

C5 convertase

150
Q

What does C5a stimulate?

A

Chemotaxis

- attraction of neutrophils

151
Q

What does C5b react with and what does it form?

A

Reacts with: C6, C7, C8 and up to 15 C9 proteins

Forms = membrane attack complex (MAC)

152
Q

Which complement pathway requires antibodies to be present in order to be activated?

A

Classical pathway

153
Q

What is the complement is responsible for inflammation?

A

C3a

154
Q

Which complement is responsible for the attraction of neutrophils?

A

C5a

155
Q

Which complement is responsible for opsonization?

A

C3b

156
Q

Which complements are responsible for cell lysis?

A

C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

157
Q

What are the 4 steps involved to find out if a person has antibodies against hepatitis B?

A
  1. Serum is heated (antibodies are stable and complement is destroyed)
  2. HBV antigen and complement are added in a known amount
  3. If patient HAS antibodies for hep b it will sequester the complement
  4. Sheep RBC and anti-RBC are added - if the complement was not sequestered, lysis is observed
158
Q

Which comlements are vasoactive (2)?

A

C3a and C5a

159
Q

What is the name of the test to determine if a patient has certain antibodies?

A

Complement fixation test

BHSC 3329 - Immunology (6 decks)

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