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ANAV > Unit 2 - Cells, Tissues And Integumentary System > Flashcards

Unit 2 - Cells, Tissues And Integumentary System Flashcards

1
Q

List the general functions of the plasma membrane

A

PRSS

Physical isolation.
Regulation of exchange with the environment.
Sensitivity to the environment.
Structure support.

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2
Q

Identify the components that allow the plasma membrane to carry out its functions

A

LPC

Lipids (phospholipids and cholesterol)
Proteins
Carbonhydrates

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3
Q

What component of the plasma membrane is primarily responsible for the membrane to form a physical barrier between the cells internal and external environment?

A 
Phospholipid bilayer
(forms a physical barrier between the internal and   external environment)
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4
Q

Which type of integral protein allows water, ions, and water-soluble solutes to pass through the plasma membrane?

A 
Channel proteins
(Spans the membrane and makes hydrophilic tunnels across it, allowing its target molecules to pass through it by diffusion)
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5
Q

Explain the difference between the cytoplasm and the cytosol

A

Cytosol is the fluid contained in the cell cytoplasm.

Cytoplasm is the entire content within the cell membrane.

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6
Q

What are the major differences between cytosol and extracellular fluid?

A

In contrast to extracellular fluid, cytosol has a high concentration of potassium ions and a low concentrations of sodium ions.

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7
Q

Identify the nonmembranous organelles, and cite a function of each.

A

CCRP

Cytoskeleton (serves as the cells skeleton)
Centrosome and centrioles
(serves to organise the microtubules and provide a structure to the cell
Ribosomes (serves by making proteins)
Proteasomes (degrades unneeded or damaged proteins by proteolysis)

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8
Q

Describe the content and structure of the nucleus

A

Nuclear envelope
Nucleoplasm
Chromatin
Nucleos

The nuclear membrane forms an envelope like structure around the nuclear contents and is commonly known as a nuclear envelope

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9
Q

What is a gene?

A

The basic physical and functional unit of heredity

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10
Q

Define gene activation

A

The process of activation of a gene so that it is expressed at a particular time.

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11
Q

Describe transcription and translation

A

Transcription is the process by which DNA is copied to RNA.

Translation is the process where RNA is used to produce proteins.

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12
Q

What processes would be affected by the lack of the enzyme RNA polymerase.

A

The lack of polymerase will cause one of the subunits of RNA to not be transcribed from DNA

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13
Q

What is meant by the term selectively permeable when referring to a plasma membrane?

A

It’s the ability to differentiate between different types of molecules, only allowing some through and blocking others

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14
Q

Define diffusion

A

The spreading of something more widely from high concentration region to low concentrations region

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15
Q

List five factors the influence the diffusion of substances in the body.

A

DITCE

Distance
Ion and molecule size
Temperature
Concentration gradient
Electrical forces
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16
Q

How would a decrease in the concentration of oxygen in the lungs affect the diffusion of oxygen in blood?

A

Diffusion into the cells increase

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17
Q

Define osmosis.

A

The spontaneous passage or diffusion of water or other solvents through a semipermeable membrane

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18
Q

What effect would such a solution have on the cells lining the nasal cavity, and why?

A

Cells would lose water, due to the salt solution being a hypertonic solution

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19
Q

Describe the process of carrier-mediated transport

A

It combines a chemical reaction with a diffusion process.

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20
Q

The concentration of hydrogen (H+) in the stomach contents during digestion rises to a higher level than in the cells lining the stomach, which transport process must be operating?

A

An active transport process

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21
Q

Describe endocytosis

A

A process by which cells absorb external material by engulfing it with the cell membrane

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22
Q

Describe exocytosis

A

The process by which cells move materials from within the cell into extracellular fluid

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23
Q

What is the process called whereby certain types of white blood cells engulf bacteria

A

Phagocytosis

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24
Q

What is the membrane potential of a cell, and in what is it express?

A

Electric potential differences across the interior and exterior of the cell
80mv to 40mv

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25
Q

If the plasma membrane of a cell were freely permeable to sodium ions, how would the membrane potential be affected?

A

The membrane potential would reach an equilibrium state

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26
Q

Give the biological term for cellular reproduction and cellular deat

A

Cellular reproduction - mitosis and meiosis

Cellular death - apoptosis

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27
Q

What enzymes must be present for DNA replication to proceed normally?

A

PPHLT

DNA polymerase
DNA primase
DNA helicase
DNA ligase
DNA Topoisomerase
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28
Q

Describe interphase, and identify it’s stages

A

It’s the phase in a cells cycle in which the cells spends most of its life

G1 phase (cell growth)
S phase (DNA synthesis)
G2 phase (cell growth)
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29
Q

A cell is actively manufacturing enough organelles to serve two functional cells, this cell is probably in what phase of its life cycle?

A

G1 phase of interphase

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30
Q

Define mitosis, and list its four stages

A

Mitosis is the process where a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells

PMAT

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

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31
Q

What would happen if spindle fibers failed to form in a cell during mitosis?

A

No disjunction of chromosomes will take place

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32
Q

Define growth factor, and identify several growth factors that affect cell division?

A

A substance, like vitamins or hormones, which is required for the stimulation of growth in living cells.

NGCS

Nutrients
Genetics
Chemicals
Stress

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33
Q

An illness characterized by mutations that disrupt normal control mechanism and produce potentially malignant cells is termed…

A

Carcinogenesis (oncogenesis or tumorigenesis)

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34
Q

Define metastasis

A

The development of secondary malignant growths at a distance from a primary site of cancer

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35
Q

Define cellular differentiation

A

Cellular differentiation is the process in which a stem cell alters from one type to a differentiated one

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36
Q

Define histology

A

The study of the microscopic structure of tissues

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37
Q

Identify to four major types of tissue in the body

A

CEMN

Connective tissue
Epithelial tissue
Muscle tissue
Nervous tissue

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38
Q

Identify four essential functions of epithelial tissue

A

Protection from the environment
Coverage
Secretion
Excretion

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39
Q

List five important characteristics of epithelial tissue

A

CPAVR

Cellularity
Polarity
Attachment
Vascularity
Regeneration
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40
Q

What is the probable functions of an epithelium whose cells bear microvilli?

A

Absorption or secretion

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41
Q

Identify the various types of epithelial cell junctions

A

OADG

Occluding junction
Adhering junction
Desmosomes
Gap junction

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42
Q

What is the functional significance of a gap junction?

A

Allows the exchange of ions, second messengers, and small metabolites between adjacent cells

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43
Q

Identify the three cell shapes characteristic of epithelial cells.

A

SCC

Squamous
Cuboidal
Columnar.

44
Q

When classifying epithelial tissue, one with a single layer of cells is called , whereas one with multiple layers of cells is called

A

Simple …

Stratified …

45
Q

Viewed with a light microscope, a tissue appears as a simple squamous epithelium. Can this be a sample of the skin surface? Why or why not?

A

No, this is not a sample of the skin surface. A simple squamous epithelium does not provide enough protection against infection, abrasion, or dehydration. The skin surface has a stratified squamous epithelium.

46
Q

Why do the pharynx, esophagus, anus, and vagina have a similar stratified epithelial organization?

A

All of these regions are subject to mechanical trauma and abrasion - by food (pharynx and esophagus), by feces (anus), and by intercourse or childbirth (vagina).

47
Q

Name the two primary types of glandular epithelia

A

The two primary types of glandular epithelia are endocrine glands and exocrine glands.

48
Q

The secretory cells of sebaceous glands fill with vesicles and then rupture, releasing their contents. Which method of secretion is this?

A

Sebaceous glands exhibit holocrine secretion.

49
Q

Which type of gland releases its secretions directly into the interstitial fluid?

A

This gland is an endocrine gland.

50
Q

Identify several functions of connective tissues.

A
  • defending the body from invading microorganisms
  • establishing a structural framework for the body
  • protecting delicate organs
  • storing energy reserves
  • supporting, surrounding, and interconnecting other types of tissue
  • transporting fluids and other dissolved material
51
Q

List the three categories of connective tissues.

A

The three categories of connective tissue are connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissues, and supporting connective tissues.

52
Q

Identify the cells found in connective tissue proper

A

AFFLMMMMM

Adipocytes
Fibroblasts
Fibrocytes
Lymphocytes
Macrophages
Mast cells
Melanocytes
Mesenchymal cells
Microphages.
53
Q

Lack of vitamin C in the diet interferes with the ability of fibroblasts to produce collagen. What effect might this interference have on connective tissue?

A

weak and prone to damage

53
Q

Lack of vitamin C in the diet interferes with the ability of fibroblasts to produce collagen. What effect might this interference have on connective tissue?

A

weak and prone to damage

54
Q

Many allergy sufferers take antihistamines to relieve their allergy symptoms. Which cells produce the substance that this medication blocks?

A

Mast cells and basophils produce the molecule histamine

55
Q

Which type of connective tissue contains primarily triglycerides?

A

adipose (fat) tissue.

56
Q

Name the three layers of fascia and their types of connective tissue

A

SDS

Superficial fascia (areolar and adipose tissue)
Deep fascia (dense irregular connective tissue)
Subserous fascia (areolar tissue).
57
Q

Which two types of connective tissue have a fluid matrix?

A

blood and lymph

58
Q

Describe the recirculation of fluid in the body.

A

F

59
Q

Identify the two types of supporting connective tissue

A

bone and cartilage.

60
Q

Why does bone heal faster than cartilage?

A

bone has a direct blood supply (highly vascular) which is necessary for proper, rapid healing to occur.

61
Q

If a person has a herniated intervertebral disc,

characterized by displacement of the pad of cartilage between the vertebrae, which type of cartilage has been damaged?

A

fibrocartilage

62
Q

Identify the four types of tissue membranes found in the body

A

CMSS

Cutaneous membrane
Mucous membranes
Serous membranes
Synovial membranes

63
Q

Which cavities in the body are lined by serous

membranes?

A

Pleura
Peritoneal
Pericardial cavities

64
Q

Which type of tissue membrane typically lines body passageways (such as the urinary tract) that open to the exterior?

A

Mucous membrane

65
Q

Identify the three types of muscle tissue in the body

A

cardiac, smooth, and skeletal

66
Q

Which type of muscle tissue has small, tapering cells with single nuclei and no obvious striations?

A

smooth muscle

67
Q

If skeletal muscle cells in adults are incapable of dividing, how is skeletal muscle repaired?

A

Skeletal muscles are repaired by the division and fusion of myosatellite cells which are mesenchymal cells that persist in the adult skeletal muscle tissue

68
Q

Identify some age-related factors that affect tissue repair and structure

A

F

69
Q

What would account for the observed increase in cancer rates with age?

A

F

70
Q

Identify the two phases in the response to tissue injury

A

Inflammatory response

Remodeling response

71
Q

List the four common signs of inflammation

A

Redness (Latin rubor)
Heat (calor)
Swelling (tumor)
Pain (dolor)

72
Q

Identify several functions of connective tissues

A 
binding and supporting
protecting
insulating
Storing reserve fuel
Transporting substances within the body
73
Q

List the three categories of connective tissues

A

loose connective tissue
dense connective tissue
specialized connective tissue.

74
Q

Identify the cells found in connective tissue proper

A 
fibroblasts
mast cells
plasma cells
macrophages
adipocytes
Leukocytes.
75
Q

A tissue contains irregularly shaped cells with many fibrous projections, some several centimeters long. These are probably which type of cell?

A

Neurons

76
Q

Identify the layers of the epidermis

A

stratum basale (the deepest portion of the epidermis)
stratum spinosum
stratum granulosum
stratum lucidum
stratum corneum (the most superficial portion of the epidermis)

77
Q

Dandruff is caused by excessive shedding of cells from the outer layer of skin on the scalp. So dandruff is composed of cells from which epidermal layer?

A

Stratum corneum

78
Q

A splinter that penetrates to the third layer of the epidermis of the palm is lodged in which layer?

A

stratum granulosum

79
Q

Why does taking a bath cause wrinkly fingertips and toes?

A

your nervous system sends a message to your blood vessels to shrink.

80
Q

Some criminals sand the tips of their fingers so as not to leave recognizable fingerprints. Would this practice permanently remove fingerprints? Why or why not?

A

Sanding the tips of the fingers will not permanently remove fingerprints. The ridges of the fingerprints are formed in layers of the skin that are constantly regenerated, so these ridges will eventually reappear.

81
Q

Name the sources of epidermal growth factor in the body.

A 
urine
saliva
milk
tears
blood plasma
82
Q

Identify some roles of epidermal growth factor related to the epidermis.

A

Epidermal growth factor (EGF) promotes the divisions of germinative cells in the stratum germinativum and stratum spinosum, accelerates the production of keratin in differentiating keratinocytes, stimulates epidermal development and epidermal repair after injury and stimulates synthetic activity and secretion by epithelial glands.

83
Q

Describe the location of the dermis

A

The dermis (a connective tissue layer) lies between the epidermis and the hypodermis.

84
Q

Where are the capillaries and sensory nerve fibers that supply the epidermis located?

A

The capillaries and sensory neurons that supply the epidermis are located in the papillary layer of the dermis.

85
Q

What accounts for the ability of the dermis to undergo repeated stretching?

A

The presence of elastic fibers and the resilience of skin turgor allow the dermis to undergo repeated cycles of stretching and recoil (returning to its original shape).

86
Q

List the two terms for the tissue that connects the dermis

A

The tissue that connects the dermis to underlying tissues is the hypodermis or subcutaneous layer.

87
Q

Describe the subcutaneous layer

A

the deepest layer of your skin.

88
Q

Identify several functions of subcutaneous fat.

A

It’s the one way that your body stores energy.
It functions as a padding to protect your muscles and bones from the impact of hits or falls.
It serves as a passageway for nerves and blood vessels between your skin and your muscles.
It insulates your body, helping it regulate temperature

89
Q

Name the two major pigments in the epidermis

A 
carotene( an orange-yellow pigment) 
and melanin ( a brown, yellow-brown, or black pigment).
90
Q

Why does exposure to sunlight darken skin?

A

sunlight causes the skin to produce more melanin and darken.

91
Q

Why does the skin of a fair-skinned person appear red during exercise in hot weather?

A

When skin gets warm, arriving oxgenated blood is diverted to the superficial dermis for the purpose of eliminating heat

92
Q

Explain the relationship between sunlight exposure and vitamin D3 synthesis

A

During exposure to sunlight 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin absorbs UV B radiation and is converted to previtamin D3 which in turn isomerizes into vitamin D3

93
Q

In some cultures, women must be covered completely, except for their eyes, when they go out in public. Explain why these women may develop bone problems later in life.

A

The hormone calcitriol is essential for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus, which are elements needed to form strong bones and teeth.

94
Q

Describe a typical strand of hair

A

A typical hair isa keratinous strand produced by basal (germinative) cells within a hair follicle

95
Q

What happens when the arrector pili muscle contracts?

A

it causes the hair to stand erect, and a “goosebump” forms on the skin.

96
Q

Once a burn on the forearm that destroys the epidermis and extensive areas of the deep dermis heals, will hair grow again in the affected area?

A

even though hair is a derivative of the epidermis, the hair follicles are in the dermis. Where the epidermis and deep dermis are destroyed, new hair will not grow.

97
Q

Identify two types of exocrine glands found in the skin.

A

2 types of exocrine glands found in the skin are sebaceous glands and sweat glands

98
Q

What are the functions of sebaceous secretions?

A

produce and secrete sebum

99
Q

Deodorants are used to mask the effects of secretions from which type of skin gland?

A

apocrine sweat gland

100
Q

Which type of skin gland is most affected by the hormonal changes that occur during puberty?

A

Apocrine sweat glands

101
Q

What substance makes fingernails hard?

A

keratin

102
Q

What term is used to describe the thickened stratum corneum underlying the free edge of a nail?

A

the hyponychium

103
Q

Where does nail growth occur?

A

the nail’s base

104
Q

What term describes the combination of fibrin clots, fibroblasts, and the extensive network of capillaries in healing tissue?

A

granulation tissue

105
Q

Why can skin regenerate effectively even after

considerable damage?

A

stem cells persist in both the epithelial and connective tissue components of skin

ANAV (2 decks)

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