Unit 2 -Applying the Principles of Nutrition to a Physical Activity Programme Flashcards

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1
Q

What does a balanced diet require?

A

Water intake, alongside food chosen in varying amounts from five nutrient groups. These groups are in turn are divided into macronutrients and micronutrients.

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2
Q

What are the basic functions of the macronutrients carbohydrate, protein and fat?

A

Collectively needed in greater amounts.

Used within the body for structure, function and fuel.

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3
Q

What are the basic functions of the macronutrients vitamins and minerals?

A

Needed in smaller amounts.

Also used for structure and function and are necessary to “unlock” the energy contained in the macronutrients.

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4
Q

Why does the phrase ‘you are what you eat’ have much truth in it?

A

Because the food that we eat will become part of the body, as it is used to rebuild or repair vital structures on an ongoing basis. However, we do not digest everything that we eat as some components of our food will be excreted.

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5
Q

What happens to food, which is not used for this building up of structural parts of the body?

A

It will either contribute to the body’s normal chemical functions or be utilised as fuel to sustain life and activity levels.

A continual excess of energy consumed will be stored, mostly in the form of body fat, and will, therefore, also contribute to eventual body mass

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6
Q

Also in nutrition, there exists a relationship between both structure and function. What does this mean?

A

The quality of food within the diet and the specific chemical composition of that food, have a profound effect upon the structure and function of the human body at its most fundamental level.

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7
Q

The same basic organisation of structure and function applies to what other systems?

A
  • skeletal system
  • muscular system
  • nervous system
  • digestive system
  • respiratory system
  • circulatory system
  • lymphatic system
  • endocrine system
  • reproductive system
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8
Q

When was the first US national food guide pyramid introduced and to what purpose?

A
  • In 1992
  • in an attempt to provide information to the public, in order to promote a healthy diet.
  • It serves as a visual guide to ease the confusion that often arises when trying to plan a menu.
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9
Q

Who originally devised the US national food guide pyramid?

A

Originally devised in a joint venture by the Department for Health and Human Services and the US Department of Agriculture (USDA), this basic model and the guidelines it represents has been adopted by many government agencies throughout the developed world.

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10
Q

Why was the food guide pyramid of 1992 later revised?

A

Due to continuing criticism that it did not provide appropriate advice for certain nutrient groups for all sub-groups of the population.

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11
Q

When was the 1992 US national food guide pyramid updated?

A

In 2004, after much debate and deliberation, the Department for Health and Human Services and the US Department of Agriculture released an updated version which was accepted as national policy in 2005.

This has since formed the backbone of all food and nutrition policy throughout the United States

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12
Q

What are the main changes in the food guide pyramid, comparing the 1992 version with the 2004 version?

A
  • some fats should be taken in larger amounts as a necessary part of a ‘healthy balanced diet.’
  • Certain plant oils, such as olive, soy, sunflower and peanut oil are now set at the base of the pyramid and are advised as an important part of almost every meal.
  • The advice on carbohydrates has changed, recognising that refined carbohydrate products such as white bread, white rice and white pasta should be minimised.
  • The emphasis is now on wholegrain carbohydrate-rich products which form a large part of the base of the pyramid.
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13
Q

What are the advantages and limitations of the food guide pyramid?

A

Advantages:

  • aims to encourage people to think about their diet
  • leads to a reduction in pre-made processed food
  • encourages the consumption of fruit and vegetables
  • encourages portion control
  • aims to encourage a wholefood diet
  • encourages a moderate alcohol intake

Limitations:

  • aimed at populations, not individuals
  • assumes a ‘one size fits all’ approach
  • criticised for being shaped by food agencies and politics
  • insufficient guidance on portion control
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14
Q

What is ‘The Eatwell Plate’?

A

An adaptation of the food guide pyramid in the UK, introduced in 2007, providing an alternative illustration of the similar basic guidelines around food and nutrition found within the US pyramid.

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15
Q

‘The Eatwell Plate’ is also supported by 8 specific healthy eating tips as stated by the Foods Standards Agency:

A
  1. Base your meals on starchy foods
  2. Eat lots of fruit and vegetables (5 portions per day)
  3. Eat more fish ( 2 portions a week, 1 oily)
  4. Cut down on saturated fat and sugar
  5. Try to eat less salt, no more than 6g a day
  6. Get active and try to be a healthy weight
  7. Drink plenty of water (6-8 glasses per day)
  8. Don’t skip breakfast
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16
Q

The specifics of the national food model provide what caloric targets?

A

Adult males: 2550 calories per day

Adult females: 1950 calories per day

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17
Q

How should the total amount of calories be divided across each of the macronutrients?

A
  • minimum of 50% calories from carbohydrates
  • maximum of 35% calories from fats
  • minimum of 55g of protein per day (9-12% calories)
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18
Q

What are the approximate calories per gram for each macronutrient?

A
  • carbohydrates 4 calories per gram
  • proteins 4 calories per gram
  • fats 9 calories per gram
  • alcohol (not a nutrient) 7 calories per gram
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19
Q

Some may prefer counting portions than calories. What would be 1 portion of small fruits?

A

Small fruit – 2 satsumas, 2 plums, 2 kiwi, 7 strawberries, 14 cherries

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20
Q

What would be 1 portion of a medium fruit?

A

1 apple, 1 banana, 1 pear, 1 orange

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21
Q

What would be considered a large fruit?

A

half grapefruit, one 5cm slice of melon, 1 large slice of pineapple

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22
Q

What would be a portion of green veg?

A

2 broccoli spears, 4 heaped table spoons of kale, spinach, or green beans

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23
Q

What would be one portion of salad veg?

A

3 sticks of celery, 5cm piece of cucumber, 1 medium tomato, 7 cherry tomatoes

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24
Q

What would be one portion of cereals?

A

Handful of breakfast cereal

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25
Q

How would you measure a portion of lean meat?

A

Lean meat the size of a deck of cards

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26
Q

What is the guideline of maximum intake of food and drinks high in fat or sugar?

A

Limit these foods to no more than 8% of total intake.

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27
Q

The quality of food is very important. What are the key reasons for purchasing organic as to the Soil Association?

A
  • minimal use of additives
  • no pesticides, fungicides or herbicides used in production
  • no genetically modified foods used
  • no routine antibiotic use on animals
  • animal welfare is paramount
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28
Q

What are commonly occurring, modern-day health complications and diseases that have all been shown to have a root cause or risk factor associated with food and diet?

A
  • obesity
  • heart disease
  • stroke
  • some cancers
  • metabolic syndrome
  • diabetes
  • hypertension
  • high cholesterol
  • asthma • some types of arthritis
  • menstrual irregularities
  • infertility
  • eczema
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29
Q

Does the term ‘Nutritionist’ guarantee to the client any specific level of qualification?

A

No, the term ‘Nutritionist’ is an unprotected term which anyone who wishes to embark on a business of advising others on what to eat can use to their advantage.

This does not mean that the individual is not skilled at their job.

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30
Q

Does the term “Dietician” guarantee the client any specific level of qualification?

A

Yes, to be a ‘dietician’ requires individuals to be registered with the Health Professions Council as the term is legally protected and requires certain qualifications.

Most dieticians have a Bachelors or Masters degree and are qualified to translate scientific information about food into practical dietary advice.

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31
Q

What are registered nutritionists within The British Dietetics Association?

A

Registered nutritionists are nutrition professionals who have met the criteria to become full members of the Nutrition Society, which requires a degree and a certain amount of evidence supporting professional practice.

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32
Q

What are Nutritional Therapists?

A

The term ‘Nutritional Therapist’ refers to individuals who have trained to cure and prevent ill health through nutrition.

Whilst courses in nutritional therapy are not seen to be in the same depth as dietetics there is still significant effort required to qualify for this title.

The British Association of Applied Nutrition and Nutritional Therapy (BANT) oversee and evaluate nutritional therapists in the UK with the Nutritional Therapy Council regulating the industry

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33
Q

Within Level 3, what qualification in nutrition will you obtain, and what does it entail?

A

It will allow you to use the term ‘Nutritional Advisor’ which clearly defines a role in advising others about healthy eating habits but does not authorise any provision of advice directing others regarding ill health or in the use of dietary supplements to promote health or manage diseases.

It is important that even as a nutritional advisor that it is understood how to evaluate nutritional information and to be able to ensure that advice is given to others based on reliable evidence.

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34
Q

Name recognised places to seek nutritional information.

A
  • The British Dietetics Association
  • The British Association of Applied Nutrition and Nutritional Therapy (BANT)
  • Food Standards Agency
  • Committee on Medical Aspects (COMA) of Food and Nutrition
  • British Nutrition Foundation
  • Institute of Optimal Nutrition
  • scientific nutrition journals e.g. British Journal of Nutrition
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35
Q

Why is it vital to base ourselves on reliable sources on nutrition?

A

This is vital as the media and food marketing often report on or make claims regarding certain foods or nutrients and their effects on health.

This will influence the client’s beliefs and opinions regarding nutrition and as professionals, we need to have a reliable source of information to determine the truth and debunk any myths that exist.

We need to be professionals who can provide a grounded and evidence-based approach where knowledge has been proven.

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36
Q

What do you do if faced with a client who requires a deeper level of analysis and investigation than qualifications provide?

A

Then a suitable referral procedure to a Registered Dietician or Nutritional Therapist should be followed so that they may receive the guidance that they need.

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37
Q

What types of conditions can be improved through appropriate nutritional guidance and, therefore, should be referred?

A
  • diabetes mellitus
  • cardiovascular disease
  • elevated cholesterol
  • severe obesity
  • cancer
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38
Q

Of how many amino acid building blocks does protein consist of?

A

20

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39
Q

Why can amino acids be thought of as forming the protein alphabet?

A

Because they build proteins in a similar way as the various combinations of the 26 letters of the alphabet can be used to create individual words.

Thus one protein will differ from another according to the number and sequence of its constituent amino acids.

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40
Q

What are Peptides?

A

Animal and plant cells join amino acids together to form peptides. This process results in the formation of chains of amino acids of varying lengths, which eventually become proteins.

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41
Q

Proteins themselves are formed when the chain of amino acids total how much?

A

100 or more.

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42
Q

Of the 20 amino acids, how many are considered to be essential to the daily diet because the body is unable to produce or synthesise them itself?

What are they?

A

9

  • phenylalanine
  • methionine
  • tryptophan
  • threonine
  • lysine
  • isoleucine
  • leucine
  • valine
  • histidine
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43
Q

What are conditionally essential amino acids?

Which are they?

A

These are also present in many foods but are not always required to be a part of the daily diet.

  • glycine
  • alanine
  • tyrosine
  • serine
  • cysteine
  • proline
  • glutamic acid
  • glutamine
  • aspartic acid
  • asparagine
  • arginine
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44
Q

What are complete proteins?
What foods are considered to be complete proteins?

A

These foods contain all nine essential amino acids in sufficient amounts necessary for the liver to synthesise the remaining non-essential amino acids.

  • eggs
  • meat
  • poultry
  • dairy
  • fish
  • soy foods
  • buckwheat
  • quinoa
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45
Q

What are incomplete proteins?

Name a few.

A

When proteins are of a lower biological value since they are deficient or ‘incomplete’ in one or more of the essential amino acids.

  • cereals and grains (wheat, rye, barley, oats, rice)
  • cereal products (bread, pasta etc)
  • pulses (beans, lentils, peas)
  • nuts
  • vegetables
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46
Q

Why is it advised to vary or combine plant-based protein sources to boost amino acid intake for vegetarians?

A

This may help to provide a full spectrum of the essential amino acids in the diet.
Whilst these carbohydrate-based foods contain energy in the form of glucose, it is important to remember that they also contain smaller amounts of protein.

Including a variety of unrefined carbohydrate foods is, therefore, particularly important for anyone on a no meat or low meat diet.

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47
Q

What would be good variations or combinations of plant-based protein sources to boost amino acid intake for vegetarians?

A
  • rice and pulses
  • vegetables and seeds
  • nuts and vegetables
  • grains and pulses
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48
Q

The types of protein within the body can be placed under three headings, along with their corresponding functions.
What are they?

A
  • structural: form the main framework of many components of the body; collagen present in bone and connective tissue, keratin in the skin, and muscle tissue all provide structure. Muscle tissue is also contractile for movement.
  • homeostatic: hormones regulate various processes e.g. insulin controls blood sugar, enzymes speed up reactions, and white blood cells fight infection.
  • fuel: although not the primary source, protein is a useable source of energy, especially during endurance events or periods of fasting. They can be converted into glucose, fatty acids or ketones to help produce ATP.
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49
Q

What is catabolism?

A
  • Catabolism relates to the breaking down of larger structures into smaller ones.
  • Protein catabolism occurs to some extent all of the time, as existing proteins from damaged cells are broken down into their amino acids and recycled to build new proteins elsewhere.
  • Further muscle catabolism occurs during intensive exercise, as a result of both micro-tear damage and the partial utilisation of key amino acids as fuel.
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50
Q

What is anabolism?

A

Anabolism can be defined as a building up process within the body.

The anabolic phase mostly occurs during rest.

Since proteins form a major component of most cell structures, adequate dietary protein is required to maintain both health and performance.

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51
Q

What are our protein requirements?

A

Although it varies from person to person, it should be a major part of every meal consumed.

A basic starting point is to consider the amount of protein needed dependent on body weight and the intensity of physical activity.

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52
Q

How are dietary carbohydrates digested and utilised?

A

It is ultimately sent to the liver, muscles, or used immediately as a fuel.

Some glucose may enter the adipose tissue (fat tissue), where it is used to help store fat, a process which appears to occur at different rates in different people.

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53
Q

All carbohydrates are made up of molecules or units called saccharides.
What are the three basic categories?

A
  • simple carbohydrates also referred to as ‘sugar’
  • complex carbohydrates also referred to as ‘starches’
  • non-starch polysaccharides (NSP) referred to as ‘fibre’
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54
Q

What are simple carbohydrates?

A

Simple carbohydrates have a very basic structure and usually only contain one or two units of sugar usually made up from a combination of glucose, fructose and galactose.

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55
Q

Give three examples of Monosaccharides – single molecules or ‘units’ of sugars

A
  • Glucose
  • Fructose
  • Galactose
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56
Q

Give three examples of Disaccharides – two molecules or ‘units’ of sugars joined together.

A
  • Sucrose = glucose + fructose
  • Lactose = glucose + galactose
  • Maltose = glucose + glucose
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57
Q

What are healthy sources of simple carbohydrate?

A

Fruits:

  • contains fructose and glucose in varying amounts
  • contains vitamins and minerals
  • contains antioxidants and phytochemicals
  • contains high levels of dietary fibre
  • contains a trace of amino acids
  • cheap, convenient
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58
Q

What are less healthy options for sources of simple carbohydrate?

A

biscuits, cakes, confectionery, soft drinks

  • contain excessive sugar – higher than 15g per 100g (FSA)
  • contains processed, low-quality fats
  • high energy density
  • contain no vitamins or minerals
  • adversely affects insulin response
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59
Q

The energy contained in simple carbohydrates cannot be released without specific vitamins and minerals. Which are particularly important?

A
  • The B vitamins are particularly important since we cannot utilise any carbohydrate without them.
  • Fresh fruit provides its own vitamin and mineral requirements for the body
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60
Q

What can prolonged use of refined carbohydrates lead to?

A

Progressive depletion of certain nutrients. This type of food is often referred to as an ‘anti-nutrient’.

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61
Q

What are complex carbohydrates?

A

These foods are often described as starch and consist of many molecules or ‘units’ of glucose all joined together in long complicated branched chains.

These multiple molecules of glucose are called polysaccharides.

Once eaten, these polysaccharides are broken down into glucose, absorbed into the bloodstream and either stored or metabolised accordingly.

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62
Q

Name sources of refined carbohydrate.

A
  • white bread
  • white pasta
  • cakes, biscuits and pastries
  • rice cakes
  • CHO content of processed foods
  • white rice
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63
Q

Name the properties of sources of refined carbohydrate.

A
  • contain excessive sugar – higher than 15g per 100g (FSA)
  • contains processed, low-quality fats
  • high energy density
  • contain no vitamins or minerals
  • adversely affects insulin response
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64
Q

Name sources of unrefined carbohydrate.

A
  • wholemeal or whole grain products
  • whole grain rice
  • frozen vegetables
  • fresh vegetables
  • sweet potatoes
  • yams
  • pulses
  • quinoa
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65
Q

Name properties of sources of unrefined carbohydrate.

A
  • contains fructose and glucose in varying amounts
  • contains vitamins and minerals
  • contains antioxidants and phytochemicals
  • contains high levels of dietary fibre
  • contains trace of amino acids
  • cheap, convenient
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66
Q

What does fibre consist of and what is it good for?

A

Non-starch polysaccharide (NSP), indigestible plant material such as

  • cellulose
  • hemicellulose
  • lignin
  • pectin
  • gums
  • mucilages

These are found in fruits, vegetables, grains and beans.

It aids in the transportation of foods through the digestive tract by bulking out the food and faeces for ease of movement.

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67
Q

What are the two kinds of fibres?

A
  1. Insoluble: It is normally the outer protective layer of plants. Unrefined wheat, bran, rye, rice and most other grains are primarily composed of insoluble fibre along with fruit and vegetable skins
  2. Soluble: It is normally found on the inner part of plants. Found in beans, barley, broccoli, prunes, apples, citrus fruits and oats. This has been proposed to help with the reduction in cholesterol by binding with fats in the digestive tract and carrying them out in the stools.
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68
Q

What do fats and oils belong to?

A

To a family of organic compounds called lipids, and the role they play throughout human physiology makes them an essential component to the diet, and indeed they form one of the recognised macronutrients.

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69
Q

What are the key physiological functions of lipids?

A
  • formation of virtually all cell membranes
  • formation of myelin sheath within the nervous system
  • constitutes majority of the CNS and spinal cord
  • synthesis of steroid hormones
  • assists in the regulation of enzymes
  • insulation through subcutaneous adipose tissue
  • protection of internal organs
  • transportation, storage and utilisation of fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, K.
  • fuel source during lower-intensity workloads
  • storage of energy within the adipose tissue
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70
Q

What are lipids at room temperature called?

A

Oils and those which are solid are called fats.

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71
Q

Most dietary lipids consist of chains or rings of carbon atoms joined together along with other atoms, most commonly which?

A

hydrogen and oxygen

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72
Q

The smaller units of fats are called what?

A

fatty acids

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73
Q

What are triglycerides?

A

Fatty acids naturally occur as triglycerides, where three fatty acids attach to a carbohydrate backbone called glycerol.

During digestion, the fatty acids are broken off and then used in the body as required.

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74
Q

What are saturated fats?

A

These fats comprise of chains of carbon atoms which are ‘saturated’ or full with hydrogen, which gives them distinct properties.

They do not contain any double bonds which means, they have a straight structure.

Saturated fatty acids are straight, which accounts for their solid structure at room temperature since they are able to pack tightly together with little space between them.

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75
Q

What are common sources of saturated fat?

A

Animal

  • meat – beef, pork, lamb, venison
  • poultry – chicken, duck
  • dairy – milk, cheese, yoghurt, cream, butter
  • eggs

Non-animal

  • palm oil
  • coconut oil
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76
Q

There are specific needs for saturated fat to be included within the daily diet. What functions do they have?

A
  • enhancement of the immune system
  • provision of energy and structural integrity to the cells
  • enhancement of liver function and protection against alcohol detoxification
  • the ability of coconut oil to act as an antimicrobial and antiviral agent
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77
Q

What are unsaturated oils?

A

These fatty acids are described as unsaturated because some hydrogen atoms are absent from the chain of carbons.

This causes two effects:

  • a double bond is formed between one or more of the carbon atoms
  • the fatty acid bends at each double bond
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78
Q
A
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79
Q

Unsaturated fats come in two main categories:

A
  • monounsaturated – a single double bond – single bend in molecule
  • polyunsaturated – several double bonds – several bends in a molecule
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80
Q

What are monounsaturated fatty acids?

A

these oils contain fatty acids with only one double bond thus the term ‘mono’ or one. This means the molecule has a single bend in it.

Diets high in monounsaturated fats have been shown to lower both LDL cholesterol and plasma triglycerides, and are therefore thought to reduce the risk of CHD

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81
Q

What are sources of monounsaturated fatty acids?

A
  • olives or olive oil
  • lard
  • beef dripping
  • peanut oil
  • rapeseed oil
  • avocados
  • nuts
  • seeds
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82
Q

What are polyunsaturated fatty acids?

A

These fatty acids are long chains of carbon atoms, again with missing hydrogen but this time they possess more than one double bond.

As with the monounsaturated fatty acids, there is a distinct bend at the point of each double bond, which again means a different shape and a different function.

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83
Q

What are essential fatty acids?

A

These fatty acids are essential to the diet since the human body is unable to synthesise them itself.

They are subdivided into two categories:

  • omega 3 fatty acids
  • omega 6 fatty acids
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84
Q

Give examples of Omega 3 fatty acids.

A
  • oily fish
  • flax oil
  • walnuts
  • pasture reared eggs
    Note: all oils need to be cold-pressed and remain unprocessed
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85
Q

Give examples of Omega 6 fatty acids.

A
  • sunflower seeds
  • sunflower oil
  • safflower oil
  • pumpkin seeds
  • sesame seeds
    Note: all oils need to be cold-pressed and remain unprocessed
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86
Q

What has been shown to reduce the tendency of blood to clot, lower blood triglyceride levels, lower total cholesterol levels and in some individuals to raise HDL cholesterol, all of which are thought to lower the risk of CHD ?

A

Omega 3 fatty acids found in oily fish.

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87
Q

What are hydrogenation and trans fats?

A

This refers to a process used within the food industry where quantities of unsaturated vegetable oils are manufactured into more solid fats like margarine and shortening.

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88
Q

What results from the heating, catalysing and pumping of hydrogen into unsaturated oils?

A

In the formation of saturated fatty acids, as the original double bonds are broken and replaced with single bonds once again full of hydrogen.

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89
Q

What will determine the amount of saturated fatty acids in the end product?

A

The amount of hydrogen added during the process.

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90
Q

The remaining double bonds still contained in vegetable oil after hydrogenation, as it is mostly partial, will have been converted into what?

A

trans-fatty acids due to the actions of this intense and prolonged process.

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91
Q

Name common foods which contain trans fats.

A
  • many margarine’s
  • biscuits
  • cakes
  • crackers
  • take away foods
  • pies
  • pastries
  • pre-prepared foods
  • many “low fat” processed foods (low in saturated fat but high in trans fat)
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92
Q

Consumption of hydrogenated fats is associated with a host of other serious diseases. Which are they?

A
  • cancer
  • atherosclerosis
  • diabetes
  • obesity
  • immune system dysfunction low-birth-weight babies
  • birth defects
  • decreased visual acuity
  • sterility
  • difficulty in lactation
  • problems with bones and tendons
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93
Q

Metabolic studies have shown that dietary trans fatty acids have adverse effects on blood lipid levels. What do they promote?

A

They promote an increase in LDL or ‘bad’ cholesterol and a decrease in healthier HDL cholesterol, and that this effect is double that produced from the ingestion of saturated fat.

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94
Q

What is cholesterol?

A

Cholesterol is a large lipid molecule, which cannot be utilised by the body as energy; effectively it has no calories. However, it is extensively used throughout the tissues for both structure and functions essential to life.

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95
Q

Name functions of cholesterol.

A
  • a vital component of cell membranes
  • production of steroid hormones
  • synthesis of bile acids
  • synthesis of vitamin D
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96
Q

How much cholesterol is the liver is able to synthesise?

A

about 75-80% of the body’s own supply.

When dietary cholesterol intake is low, the body increases the synthesis of its own supply, and as dietary intake increases cholesterol production falls.

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97
Q

What are lipoproteins?

A

The body has developed protein-based carriers, called lipoproteins that completely encase lipids for transport in the blood (which is watery)

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98
Q

What are the three key lipoproteins?

A
  • very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL). Synthesised by the liver. Contain both cholesterol and triglycerides. Transport triglycerides into adipose tissue.
  • low-density lipoproteins (LDL). Formed from VLDL’s once they have unloaded most of their triglycerides. Transport the remaining cholesterol to cells throughout the body that are in need.
  • high-density lipoproteins (HDL). Synthesised by the liver. Transport excess cholesterol from the tissues and blood back to the liver.
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99
Q

How can a higher risk for heart and circulatory problems be identified considering cholesterol?

A

Particularly elevated levels of total triglycerides, elevated LDL cholesterol and lower than 25% HDL cholesterol has been identified as increasing the risk of heart and circulatory problems.

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100
Q

At approximately what reading will the medical profession initiate to intervene with lifestyle changes and in many cases medications such as statins to lower plasma cholesterol?

A

Levels above 5.2mmol/dL.

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101
Q

What category do vitamins fall under?

A

Under the category of micronutrients and they consist of a group of organic compounds (all containing carbon), which are required for normal growth and metabolism

102
Q

All vitamins are synthesised by what?

A

plants

103
Q

Give examples on B vitamins that we can synthesise ourselves.

A

e.g. biotin and riboflavin, and vitamin K ourselves, from the action of bacteria found within our GI tract

104
Q

What are precursos on vitamins?

A

Pro-vitamins, often referred to as ‘inactive vitamins’.

For example, beta-carotene is a pro-vitamin found in yellow and dark green vegetables from which our bodies in the right circumstances may synthesise vitamin A.

However, it should be noted that this is a difficult process for the body to undertake and an individual will not get anywhere near their daily vitamin A requirements by relying on the conversion of betacarotene.

105
Q

What are fat-soluble vitamins?

A

Vitamins A, D, E, and K are termed as fat-soluble, meaning that they can only be absorbed, transported and utilised in the presence of fat.

A diet that is low in fat will lead to a severe deficiency in the fat-soluble vitamins, which will lead to ill health.

106
Q

Any deficiency in vitamin A will affect what?

A

the bodies’ capacity to produce necessary hormones like testosterone, oestrogen and cortisol.

107
Q

What are water-soluble vitamins?

A

The B group of vitamins and vitamin C are all water-soluble and are absorbed, transported and utilised within the water.

These vitamins cannot be stored within the body in any great quantity and therefore, we need to include them daily in our diet if we are to avoid an eventual deficiency resulting in ill health.

A diet high in refined simple carbohydrates containing an excess of sucrose will eventually lead to such a deficiency.

108
Q

What are the minerals necessary for?

A

Minerals are necessary for structure and for the normal regulation of metabolic, hormonal and nervous interactions within the body.

109
Q

Minerals form approximately how much of our body mass?

A

4%, mostly within the skeletal system.

110
Q

What are the seven macrominerals that are required in greater amounts?

A
  • Calcium
  • Chloride
  • Magnesium
  • Phosphorus
  • Potassium
  • Sodium
  • Sulphur
111
Q

What are trace minerals?

A

Minerals that are needed for a healthy functioning body, but are required in much smaller amounts. There are over 20 minerals that have been acknowledged as essential for human health.

112
Q

Give examples for trace minerals.

A
  • copper
  • manganese
  • iodine
  • boron
  • iron
  • nickel
  • selenium
  • zinc
  • cobalt
  • chromium
  • molybdenum
  • silicon
113
Q

What are phytochemicals?

A

These are chemicals synthesised by plants, which appear to have an important effect on human health.

A few of the main categories include:

  • carotenes
  • flavonoids
  • isoflavones
  • phytosterols

These types of plant nutrients have been found to benefit the human body in many different ways from cancer prevention, cholesterol management and in preventing oxidation and damage of structures.

114
Q

What are enzymes?

A

For every physiological change in the body, a specialised protein molecule known as an enzyme provides the stimulus.

Its job is to catalyse or speed up chemical reactions within the cells so that the physiological changes that support life can take place more quickly.

The rate at which these reactions take place is totally dependent upon the enzyme, often increasing them by one hundred thousand to one million times.

115
Q

How does an enzyme work?

A
  1. The substrate binds to active site of enzyme
  2. Enzyme and substrate usually change their shape to fit each other perfectly, thus forming an enzyme-substrate complex.
  3. The reaction occurs, forming products that are then released.
  4. The enzyme is free to bind to other substrate molecules.
116
Q

What are antioxidants?

A
  • Antioxidants are molecules that fight free radicals in your body. (Defence in order to limit the damage that can occur as a result of oxygen-based reactions)
  • Free radicals are compounds that can cause harm if their levels become too high in your body. They’re linked to multiple illnesses, including diabetes, heart disease, and cancer.
  • Your body has its own antioxidant defences to keep free radicals in check.
  • Dietary antioxidants can also be acquired from the food that we eat
  • the body’s antioxidant enzymes require nutrients such as vitamins A, C, E and minerals including zinc, selenium, copper and manganese in order to function properly.
  • Research suggests that regular exercisers do have a much higher level of their natural antioxidant enzymes to help protect them
117
Q

Name sources of antioxidant nutrients.

A
  • vitamin C – citrus fruits, green veg, peppers, tomatoes, potatoes
  • vitamin E – unrefined veg oils, egg yolks, whole grains, almonds, nuts, green leafy veg
  • zinc – oysters, ginger root, lamb, nuts, grains, eggs, peas
  • selenium – grains, meats, fish, brazil nuts, tuna, shellfish, dairy
118
Q

Why is it important to stress that those engaging in regular and especially intense exercise, need to ensure that their diet is better than the average to ensure high nutrient densities?

A

Because exercise increases oxidative stress through increased oxygen consumption.

Also as we get older, we lose the battle against environmental damage from radiation, pollution and increasingly poor diets.

119
Q

How do we ensure that the body can function nearer its optimal level?

A

With a variety of vitamins and minerals from many different sources.

This should help limit any damage caused by exercise, including injuries, and to help promote recovery caused by myofibril damage (DOMS).

120
Q

What are the Dietary Reference Values (DRV’s)?

A

Nutrient reference tables used to provide guidance on the levels of vitamins and minerals required by the body.

121
Q

What to the DRV’s provide?

A

The DRV’s basically provide estimated guidelines for the energy and nutrient needs of healthy people in the population, though they do not take into account exercise needs.

122
Q

Why is it questionable as to how relevant the values of DRV’s provided actually are?

A

The British Nutrition Foundation states that ‘DRV’s are estimates of the requirements for groups of people and are not recommendations or goals for individuals.

They are also only estimates based on 4 systems of estimated or average values of nutrients.

Trainers and clients need to understand that these values are not going to provide any individualised nutrient guidance and will not ensure that they will be taking in adequate nutrition to support the growth, repair and energy expenditure during exercise as this has not been factored into any of the nutrient guidance.

123
Q

What is the current system used to provide minimum nutrient requirements?

A

The Recommended Daily Intake (RDI).

124
Q

What specific population groups may be more likely to experience nutritional deficiency and should be investigated more closely to ensure they are receiving enough nutrition for the needs?

A

These groups include but are not limited to:

  • children
  • elderly
  • pregnant and lactating women
  • those with chronic disease conditions

Due to the increased demand on the body for growth, the wear and tear of life or the additional stress on the body caused by each of these circumstances the nutritional requirements may actually be much different than the typical recommended daily intakes.

125
Q

Give a general overview of vitamins supplements. Such as, which vitamins are best ingested through food, etc.

A
  • Fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K are best sourced from natural sources where they are present in fats, oils or oil capsules, rather than in tablets or pills.
  • Vitamin B-complex supplements only contain only 8-12 of the different types of B vitamins - you do not get all of them through a tablet.
  • Almost all vitamin C in supplements are made in a laboratory and are usually pharmaceutical grade ascorbic acid
  • vitamin C in natural foods comes as part of a complex including minerals; something called rutin and other analogs which help buffer the vitamin and increase bioavailability
  • When taking calcium, but only if the tables uses a natural food extract it is called calcium hydroxyapatite.
  • Multivitamin supplements are clearly lacking many of the natural types of nutrients such as all of the B, D, E and K vitamins
126
Q

What is a key point to understand about supplements?

A

A key point to understand is that supplements are only designed to support a nutrient-rich diet, they are not a quick fix solution for a poor quality diet.

However, carefully evaluated, high-quality nutritional supplements can provide good support to health when taken in correct dosages under the direction of a suitably qualified registered nutritionist or dietician.

127
Q

The digestive system.

A
  • can be seen as the body’s own food-processing factory
  • It provides two critical functions: digestion and absorption of nutrients.
  • large food molecules are broken down into smaller more manageable units before they can be assimilated through chemical and mechanical digestion.
  • Many of the components of the digestive system secrete special substances called enzymes
  • each enzyme will only work on specific nutrients
  • takes place within the gastrointestinal tract (GI tract) (a hollow tube that runs from the mouth to the anus)
128
Q

What organs make up the GI tract?

A
  • mouth
  • pharynx
  • oesophagus
  • stomach
  • small/large intestines
  • anus
129
Q

In the digestive system, what is the role of the mouth?

A

Mastication – mechanical chewing

Saliva – moistens food, protects teeth against decay, contains an enzyme

Salivary amylase – begins to break down larger carbohydrate molecules

130
Q

In the digestive system, what is the role of the oesophagus?

A

Peristalsis travels food down to the stomach.

131
Q

In the digestive system, what is the role of the stomach?

A

Gastric juices contain acid and enzymes

Hydrochloric acid – kills bacteria

Pepsin – breaks proteins into shorter chain peptides

132
Q
A
133
Q

In the digestive system, what is the role of the pancreas?

A

Pancreatic juices contain enzymes

Lipase – breaks fat into fatty acids

Amylase – CHO into glucose

Trypsin – proteins into amino acids

134
Q

In the digestive system, what is the role of the liver?

A

Food doesn’t pass through the liver

Produces bile acids – emulsifies fats, or mixes fats with water

135
Q

In the digestive system, what is the role of the gall bladder?

A

A storage reservoir for bile acids

136
Q

In the digestive system, what is the role of the small intestine?

A

The main site of digestion and absorption

Pancreas and gall bladder empty into 1st section –

duodenum villi absorbs nutrients into the blood

137
Q

In the digestive system, what is the role of the large intestine?

A

The colon absorbs any remaining water, vitamins and minerals

Bacteria – produce some vitamins and fight infection in the intestine

Rectum stores faeces

138
Q

In the digestive system, what is the role of the anus?

A

Opening for the elimination of waste

139
Q

What do food labels have to identify by law?

A
  • macronutrient and calorie values
  • Ingredients are listed in descending weight order
  • manufacturers details
  • a total volume or weight
  • a date mark or best before date
  • storage instructions
  • potential allergens in the product
140
Q

What was the surprising result of a study conducted in 2005 about food labelling?

A
  • that out of 70 products tested for 570 nutrients only 7% actually matched the stated values, and
  • almost 1/5 contained levels outside of the generous 20% margin of error
141
Q

What is the FSA and what is its role?

A

The Food Standards Agency set up on 3rd April 2000 is responsible for governing the control and sale of food in the UK.

They are an independent body that helps in protecting public interests with regard to our food, and serve in an advisory role to promote food legislation.

The FSA were responsible for the food model that guides both corporate and consumer alike, ‘The Eatwell Plate.’

142
Q

Marketing terminology
Many terminologies are being used misleadingly.

Name some terms how the food regulations state they should be used.

A
  • fresh – ‘to differentiate food sold a short time after harvest’
  • pure – ‘single ingredient foods…or to highlight the quality of ingredients of a food’
  • natural – ‘comprised of natural ingredients, not the work of man’ • authentic – ‘remains unchanged…originates from the area implied by its name’
  • home-made – ‘made in the home, or of domestic manufacture’
  • traditional – ‘a method of preparation that has existed for a significant period’
  • farmhouse – ‘other than bread, it should refer to that produced on a farm’
  • original – ‘a method of preparation that has remained essentially unchanged overtime’
143
Q

Are there are no specific guidelines for using the terms ‘light, low, reduced or high’?

A

No, but they should not mislead

144
Q

The food labelling ‘reduced or low fat’ - what does that have to mean?

A

that it must be at least 25% lower in fat, but often calories are maintained by adding other ingredients

145
Q

The food labelling ‘low calorie’ - what does that have to mean?

A

must have lower calories than the original, but no set level

146
Q

The food labelling ‘sugar-free’ - what does that have to mean?

A

sugar has not been added, but almost always an artificial sweetener has been used for taste

147
Q

Refined sugars In many cases, these sweetening compounds are mildly addictive, contain empty calories and help to increase sales. Commonly added sugars and caloric sweeteners are:

A
  • sugar
  • dextrose
  • glucose syrup
  • glucose-fructose syrup
  • inverted sugar syrup
  • high fructose corn starch
  • mannitol
  • xylitol
  • sorbitol
  • maltodextrin
148
Q

What is Monosodium glutamate (MSG)?

A
  • An isolated amino acid that acts as a flavour enhancer
  • has been found to have addictive qualities.
  • has been linked with obesity due to its effects on the hypothalamic region of the brain and the net resulting influence on appetite.
  • MSG (E621) is only required by law to be included on the ingredients list if it is added in its pure form.
149
Q

What ingredients will indicate the presence of monosodium glutamate?

A
  • yeast extract
  • hydrolysed protein
  • whey protein isolate
  • soy protein isolate
  • carrageenan
  • most ‘natural’ flavourings
150
Q

What are all the major sweeteners used in the food industry are categorised by some experts?

A

As ‘excitotoxins’ that stimulate the sensory areas of the brain and potentially craving sensations and appetite.

It is clearly an advantage to manufacturing companies to increase the sweetness of a product and add a mildly addictive compound that will lead, in the long run, to more being ingested and ultimately purchased

151
Q

What can you say about Aspartame (E951)?

A
  • sold under other brand names such as NutraSweet, Equal and Spoonful
  • The American Food and Drug Administration has received more complaints about aspartame than any other additive in history
  • Aspartame has been linked with a number of health conditions such as high blood pressure, seizures, depression, numbness, aching muscles and dizziness.
152
Q
A
153
Q

What can you say about Sucralose (E955)?

A
  • sold under the brand name Splenda.
  • Scientific tests have linked high intakes to shrinking of the thymus gland and enlargement of the liver and kidneys, reduced growth, decreased red blood cell count and diarrhoea.
154
Q

What can you say about Acesulfame K (E950)?

A
  • stimulates insulin which causes hypoglycaemia when a response higher than is needed follows a low-calorie intake
155
Q

What can you say about Saccharin (E954)?

A
  • has had a shaky history of approved and condemned status.
  • It is currently listed as an ‘anticipated human carcinogen’ which in sensitive individuals may cause irritability, insomnia, headaches, itching or diarrhoea.
156
Q

Aerobic training requires fuel, which can be provided by what?

A
  • fat
  • carbohydrate
  • protein
157
Q

Working at lower intensities, a greater percentage of what will be utilised for energy?

A

Fat

158
Q

With the rising intensity of exercise a progressively higher amount of what will be drawn into the fuel equation?

A

carbohydrate

159
Q

The choices for the serious exerciser or the dedicated athlete can be narrowed down to the following:

A
  • the use of food alone
  • the sole reliance on sports drinks and/or protein shakes
  • a combination of food plus sports drinks
  • a combination of food plus protein shakes
  • a combination of food plus water
160
Q

What do the aerobic system and the anaerobic (lactate) system utilise to fuel activity?

A
  • the aerobic system is able to utilise both fats and carbohydrates
  • the anaerobic (lactate) system uses only carbohydrate.
161
Q

What scientific research exists to the key question whether the idea of high-intensity exercise being purely anaerobic is correct?

A
  • Bulbulian, 1986, research into an elite 5-mile cross country run: anaerobic work contributed to 58% of total work
  • Medbo, 1989, short term exhaustive cycling: aerobic system contributed 40% energy during a 30-second sprint, 50% of a 1-minute sprint and 65% of a 2-minute sprint.
  • Duffield, 2004 study on 100m and 200m sprinting:

100m → Male → 21% aer. → 79% an.

Female → 25% aer. → 75% an.

200m → Male → 28% aer. → 72% an.

Female → 33% aer. → 69% an.

It is clear from these three studies that both aerobic and anaerobic energy systems contribute to exercise regardless of the intensity, although it does appear to change the longer the duration

162
Q

Pre-exercise meal - high or low glycaemic index?

A

The majority of studies show that there may be slightly more favourable metabolic conditions with regards to insulin levels during exercise associated with low GI foods than with high GI alternatives.

The conclusion is that athletes probably perform the same on both pre-race meals.

More important is the fuel during exercise.

Athletes should consume adequate amounts of carbohydrate drinks during endurance exercise and may feel free to choose their pre-exercise meal according to their personal preferences

163
Q
A
164
Q

What have different studies indicated about ingesting carbohydrates being acceptable?

A
  • if the session is longer than an hour
  • if the match or race is longer than 90 minutes
  • if a pre-exercise meal is not possible (such as early morning intensive training)
165
Q

Why may isotonic drinks during exercise be effective?

A
  • delay the onset of fatigue and to improve performance in endurance athletes
  • One study found that ingesting an isotonic drink during endurance training is as effective as a pre-training carbohydrate meal.
  • The replacement of fluid provided by the isotonic drink is also a direct advantage.
166
Q

After intensive exercise, the muscles are more sensitive to the effects of insulin thus enabling a more efficient replacement of lost glycogen. This process is particularly evident during the first two hours following the training session.

By what is the rapid synthesis of muscle glycogen stores aided?

A

By the immediate intake of high GI carbohydrate.

167
Q

Why high glycaemic index CHO post-exercise?

A
  • increased glucose availability
  • increased insulin
  • increased glucose uptake
  • increased glycogen synthesis
168
Q

Some studies have advised what guidelines on the glycaemic index?

A
  • post-training: 1 gram CHO (high carbohydrate) per kilogram body mass every two hours (50 grams per meal)
  • first intake within 15 min post-training
  • intake over 24 hours: 7 –10 grams CHO per kilogram (500 –700 grams of CHO per day)
169
Q

What are the guidelines for people undertaking lower intensities of training, where a greater amount of fat will be utilised with some possible loss of glycogen?

A
  • aim to stay within energy balance
  • create an energy deficit of 250 kcal if trying to lose body fat
  • fulfil CHO needs, chose from moderate to low GI foods
  • try to provide energy that can be metabolised, don’t mix high CHO with high fat
  • smaller portions and regular meals favour the oxidation of nutrients
  • micronutrients should be high
  • fibre should be adequate
  • include adequate protein
  • EFA’s should be eaten in balance
170
Q

What is an isotonic drink?

A

They serve two main roles, notably the replacement of fluid and the provision of fuel in the form of carbohydrate.

Isotonic drinks have a similar balance of dissolved solids to the blood. This helps provide a faster rate of absorption of fuel whilst maintaining reasonable hydration. They also contain the necessary electrolytes or salts lost through increased sweating during intensive exertion.

171
Q

Many of the commercial sports drinks have other additives which are less desirable. It is not uncommon to find isotonic drinks that have sweeteners and colourings in them.

Aspartame and acesulfame K are common sweeteners (see food additives chapter) and have undesirable side effects.

Another option is to make your own equivalent of a sports drink.

Name 2 options.

A
  • dissolve 60g glucose into 1 litre of water and add 1/5 teaspoon of natural unprocessed salt
  • mix 500ml of unsweetened fruit juice with 500ml of water and add 1/5 teaspoon of natural unprocessed salt (paralympics.org.uk)
172
Q

The sugar, salt, caffeine and alcohol levels will all influence fluid balance in some way. Even food contributes somewhat to overall cellular hydration levels.

What may additional factors that may change the levels of water needed?

A
  • environmental temperature
  • amount of lean muscle mass
  • frequency, intensity and type of exercise
173
Q

Several different health professionals recommend that water intake should be guided by drinking how much?

A

half of the body weight in pounds in fluid ounces of water e.g. a 150lb person should drink 75 fluid ounces of water

75kg person 2.30 litres.

174
Q

Name positive facts about Protein shakes.

A
  • Whey protein is found in milk, which averages about 6.5% protein, of which about 20% is whey protein.
  • In its natural state, it has the highest biological value to the body of any protein, due to its high concentration of essential and branched-chain amino acids.
  • useful to the body in many ways, one of which is in the repair and growth of muscle tissues
175
Q

Name important considerations about protein shakes.

A
  • whey is a waste liquid by-product from cheese manufacture.
  • often dried at high temperatures for speed of manufacture – above 60ºC these fragile proteins become denatured, which destroys their ability to function
  • manufacturers use sugars, sweeteners, colours and flavours to improve palatability
  • often very low in fat – proteins need fat for proper metabolism and use.
  • often backed up by self-funded research, if any – this does not provide an independent, objective view
  • prices now are highly inflated due to market demand generated by clever advertising
176
Q

It is important to recognise that protein shakes were only intended to supplement, not replace good food.

The body is designed to absorb and metabolise real, untainted food and protein sources.

If a supplement is required then what points should be considered before purchasing?

A
  • to seek cold-processed protein powders, manufactured below 50 ºC
  • no added sugars, sweeteners, colours or flavours
  • mix with whole organic milk, as fats are necessary for protein metabolism
177
Q

What is the goal of weight management?

A
  • To prevent the accumulation of excess body fat and
  • for those who are already overweight, to reduce body fat to an acceptably safe level in order to prevent the health risks associated with obesity
178
Q

What is the ultimate answer to successfully managing weight?

A

Eating according to one’s metabolism.

179
Q

It would be beneficial to overview the main approaches prior to embarking on a discussion of the main concerns surrounding weight management.

What will help the client make an informed decision about choosing a diet?

A

Empathetic, accurate and clear communication.

180
Q

Give the reasoning and the problems associated with the dietary method “fasting”.

A

Reasoning:

  • helps to detoxify many systems of the body
  • creates negative energy balance – weight loss
  • rests the digestive system

Problems:

  • risk of dehydration
  • lack of essential nutrients
  • lack of energy
  • increased headaches, aches and pains, allergies and bad breath
181
Q

Give the reasoning and the problems associated with the dietary method “very low calorie “.

A

Reasoning:

  • the doctor supervised replacement shakes and bars
  • often only 800 kcal/day
  • fortified with daily requirements of vitamins and minerals
  • designed for the obese to achieve rapid weight loss

Problems:

  • fatigue, constipation, nausea or diarrhoea
  • possible gall stone formation
  • low bioavailability of many of fortified nutrients
  • only a short term approach
182
Q

Give the reasoning and the problems associated with the dietary method “Calorie counting groups”.

A

Reasoning:

  • group involvement creates accountability
  • calorie intake controlled
  • guidance of foods to eat provided

Problems:

  • tends to be a short term fix
  • ‘yoyo’ dieting cycle common
  • nutrient intake may be compromised
183
Q

Give the reasoning and the problems associated with the dietary method “Meal replacement”.

A

Reasoning:

  • control the intake of food with calorie counted meals and shakes
  • usually 1200-1500 kcal
  • removes the complexity of calorie counting for consumer

Problems:

  • boredom and taste fatigue
  • lack of energy
  • low bioavailability of many of fortified nutrients
  • low adherence
184
Q

Give the reasoning and the problems associated with the dietary method “Food combining”.

A

Reasoning:

  • CHO digest better in alkali environment
  • proteins digest better in an acidic environment
  • foods should be separated and eaten at different times

Problems:

  • erratic blood sugar responses from high CHO to no CHO
  • very restrictive meals
  • may lack vitamin A, D, B12, zinc and calcium due to low animal intake
185
Q

Give the reasoning and the problems associated with the dietary method “Fat-burning supplements”.

A

Reasoning:

  • create a thermogenic effect in the body
  • boost the metabolism to burn body fat

Problems:

  • may cause illness – even heart attack, seizures and stroke
  • may cause arrhythmia
  • may cause depression, nervousness or insomnia
186
Q

What is adipose tissue?

A

Adipose tissue, or fat, is an anatomical term for loose connective tissue composed of adipocytes. Its main role is to store energy in the form of fat, although it also cushions and insulates the body.

187
Q

What do the adipocytes do?

A

store excess dietary fat and energy in the form of triglycerides.

Circulating lipoproteins serve as transport vehicles for lipids within the bloodstream.

Lipoprotein lipase (LPL) acts on lipid-containing lipoproteins sent out to the adipose tissue from the liver, causing them to unload triglycerides into adipocytes.

188
Q

Adipose tissue is also capable of storing excess energy from overconsumption of carbohydrate.

If excess carbohydrate is consumed over several consecutive days leading to a positive energy balance, what is the result?

A

An increase in body fat (Acheson et al, 1988).

Glucose enters the adipose tissue where under the influence of insulin, it is synthesised into fat and stored as triglycerides.

It is more likely when insulin levels are elevated.

189
Q

Adipocytes may either increase in size or under certain environmental conditions, increase in number. Either change will lead to a net increase in the amount of body fat on an individuals frame.

Some scientists have theorised that overfeeding during childhood, especially puberty, may stimulate what?

A

(Malina and Bouchard 1991): it may stimulate an increase in the number of total fat cells.

Perhaps genetics do play a role in the total number of fat cells, but it is unlikely that this factor will predestine an individual to become obese. Environmental factors at any age will influence the fat-storing capacity of those adipocytes.

190
Q

What is the difference between males and females when it comes to the distribution of body fat?

A
  • An excess of central or abdominal fat is more common in males and may be referred to as an ‘android’ or ‘apple’ body shape.
  • Peripherally distributed fatness is more common with females and may be referred to as a ‘gynoid’ or ‘pear’ body shape
191
Q

There are several different methods commonly used and established in good practice for assessing body composition and determining health risks associated with both total weight and body shape.

Name 3.

A
  • Body Mass Index (BMI)
  • Abdominal Circumference
  • Hip to Waist Ratio
192
Q

What information does BMI provide?

A

on the amount of body weight found within each square metre of the body and is measured using kg/m2.

It is calculated by dividing body weight in kg by height in metres squared.

193
Q

Fat stored in the abdominal region (as opposed to legs, hips and arms) is considered to be a greater risk factor for diseases of what?

A

the cardiovascular system. Health risk increases in line with increasing waist: hip ratio. The measure of the waist is simply divided by the measure around the widest point of the hips.

194
Q

Explain the starvation response.

A
  • As fat cells increase in size they produce more leptin, and the levels of leptin are directly proportional to the levels of body fat or adipose tissue
  • Fat loss will reduce leptin levels, whilst fat gain will cause a corresponding increase
  • If a reduction in body fat happens too quickly some studies have postulated that it may initiate the starvation response
195
Q

Where is the starvation response thought to be originated from?

A

The starvation response is thought to have originated from our hunter-gatherer evolutionary ancestors.

As the body often went for long periods without food when meat was scarce, it developed a way of preserving its most valuable energy store, body fat, in order to assure longer survival.

It also reduced daily calorie needs by reducing the volume of ‘energy-hungry’ muscle tissue, thereby lowering metabolism.

196
Q

Explain Set point vs. settling point.

A

set point theory: we possess a genetically determined level of body fat and that any attempt to alter this level will cause metabolic adjustments designed to regain the previous “set point”.

Settling point theory: suggests that the human body is influenced by many environmental factors. The body will respond to these factors and find a point at which to ‘settle’ into a state of equilibrium. These influencing factors may include genetics, weather, eating habits, exercise and daily lifestyle. Settling point theory implies that we can affect an individuals’ long term body composition by altering the environmental factors associated with weight gain.

197
Q

What is Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)?

A

This is the sum total of all the reactions that occur in the body when at complete rest and no digestion is occurring.

This is usually expressed as the number of calories needed to sustain those reactions.

198
Q

What is Thermal Effect of Food (TEF)?

A

Refers to the amount of energy expended by the body through the ingestion, digestion, absorption, utilisation and storage of food.

The TEF accounts for between 6-10% of daily energy expenditure for men and between 6-7% for women

199
Q

What is Thermal Effect of Activity (TEA)?

A

The thermal effect of activity includes planned and unplanned levels of physical activity and the amount of energy required in support.

Since research clearly indicates that low levels of activity are heavily implicated in the development of obesity, it follows that increasing levels of activity must play a major role in reversing this process.

TEA is the most variable component of energy expenditure and accounts for approximately 20% - 40% of total energy expenditure.

200
Q

What is the Total Daily Energy Expenditure (TDEE)?

A

TDEE is the amount of calories we need on a daily basis to fuel all the functions, exercise and activity of the body.

201
Q

If one begins a new exercise regime at the same time as starting a calorie-controlled diet, this new exercise routine and increased energy expenditure will need to be supported if the adaptations and growth in fitness are to happen.

In order to reduce the possibility of starvation response, any calorie deficit should be pitched no higher than what?

A

no higher than 250 calories less than the TDEE.

202
Q

What happens when you to establish a negative energy balance to reduce body fat?

A

Research indicates that if the energy deficit is too great then body fat is more likely to return, possibly to an even greater level.

203
Q

What is a priority for an effective weight management programme?

A

to lose body fat, whilst retaining as much FFM or lean mass as possible thereby minimising the fall in metabolic rate.

The American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) have suggested that to achieve this, a weight loss of - 1lb per week (ideally from body fat) is recommended.

204
Q

The 1lb per week reduction in body weight may be achieved through several different strategies. Which are they?

A
  • diet restriction alone: reduce dietary intake by 500 kcal per day
  • exercise intervention alone: increase exercise/activity by 500 kcal per day
  • exercise and dietary restriction combined: increase exercise/activity by 250 kcal and reduce dietary intake by 250 kcal
  • some other combination of dietary restriction and exercise-related energy expenditure accounting for 500kcal deficit
205
Q

What factors need to be considered in the weight loss diet to provide sufficient nutrients required for health and normal functioning?

A
  • frequency of meals
  • effects of insulin
  • biochemical individuality
  • macronutrient balance
206
Q

What impact does the frequency of meals have?

A

in order to minimise the loss of FFM and to avoid the subsequent fall in metabolism, regular meals throughout the day seem the most appropriate approach.

A minimum of 3 meals a day is advised

207
Q

What are the influences of blood glucose and insulin on dieting?

A

Higher insulin levels will encourage a faster rate of glucose converted and stored in adipose tissue.

High glycaemic index foods and refined carbohydrates tend to cause insulin levels to ‘spike’ in an attempt to control rocketing blood glucose levels.

This will favour fat storage and suppress the burning of fat as fuel. Spiking often results in a subsequent crash in blood glucose, which creates tiredness and hunger and may, in turn, lead to overeating.

208
Q

What is Biochemical individuality?

A

Biochemical individuality is the concept that the nutritional and chemical make-up of each person is unique and that dietary and other needs therefore vary from person to person. People have unique biochemical profiles based upon their own genetic structure, nutrition, and environment.

209
Q

What does Macronutrient balance mean?

A

That the intake of each macronutrient is equal to its needs within the body. This means that we have to be able to metabolise and utilise the protein, carbohydrates and fats that we ingest.

210
Q

What happens to a macronutrient ingested in excess of our ability to utilise it?

A

It will be either stored or excreted.

211
Q

Is only excess fat stored as fat in the body?

A

No. Excess protein, excess carbohydrates and excess fat can also contribute to increased body fat.

212
Q

The increased intake or decreased intake of any one macronutrient will cause a change in the way the other two macronutrients may be metabolised by the body to meet energy or nutritional requirements.
What are the combinations in nature between protein and fat - carbohydrate and fats?

A

In nature, most foods that contain a significant source of protein also house a significant portion of fats. This is due to the necessary role that fats and fat-soluble nutrients play in metabolising proteins.

In nature also, it is often found that high carbohydrate foods have smaller proportions of fats and proteins

213
Q

What could a possible guideline be in trying to meet a suitable macronutrient balance?

A

An inverse relationship between carbohydrates and fats/proteins.

214
Q

Modern systems for weight management

Whole food carbohydrate diet

What does the research say?

A

high carbohydrate, lower fat diets still constitute the mainstream approach:

  • diets consisting of unrefined low glycaemic index carbohydrates alongside sufficient levels of monounsaturated fat have been shown to produce prolonged satiety. Therefore, they provide an effective method for reducing calorie intake and achieving long-term weight control (Ball et al, 2003)
  • maintaining a carbohydrate-based diet, but substituting saturated fat for greater amounts of monounsaturated fat, has been implicated with a reduced risk of CHD in overweight insulin-resistant individuals (Connor and Connor, 1997)
215
Q

Modern systems for weight management

Whole food carbohydrate diet

What are the dietary guidelines?

A
  • cut out processed foods to reduce trans fatty acids
  • reduce refined high glycaemic index carbohydrates
  • reduce saturated fat and emphasise the monounsaturated fat intake
  • include oily fish or flax oil for omega 3 fatty acids
  • maintain a ratio of 2:1 or 1:1 of omega 6 to omega 3 fatty acids
  • include plenty of fresh fruit and vegetables
  • include plenty of unrefined low to moderate glycaemic carbohydrates
216
Q

Modern systems for weight management

Ketogenic diets

What is the principle?

A

high-fat

moderate protein

low carbohydrate

The reduction in carbohydrate reduces blood glucose causing the body to undergo metabolic changes.

The body responds by relying more on ingested fats for energy.

Research has also shown a rise in the use of fatty acids from reserves within the adipose tissue.

These fatty acids circulate to the liver where they are converted into smaller fragments and released back into circulation. These fragments are called keto acids or ketone bodies and are easily utilised by various tissues as fuel.

The individual is said to be in a ketogenic state under these environmental conditions.

217
Q

Modern systems for weight management

Ketogenic diets

What does the research say?

A
  • higher protein/fat diets with reduced carbohydrate intake appear to improve blood lipid profiles in some individuals (Wolfe, 1995)
  • replacing carbohydrate with protein/fat from meat, poultry, and dairy foods, produced beneficial metabolic effects and no detectable effects on markers of bone turnover or calcium secretion (Farnsworth et al, 2003)
  • researchers found that low carbohydrate diets appeared to be effective for short-term weight loss in overweight adolescents, and did not harm the lipid profiles (Sondike et al, 2003).
  • Caution with such diets was still advised
218
Q

Modern systems for weight management

Ketogenic diets

What are the guidelines?

A
  • the classic ketogenic diet contains a 4:1 ratio of fat by weight to combined protein and carbohydrates
  • protein intake is usually targeted at 1g per kg body weight per day
  • the Atkins diet typically had a higher protein intake than the classic ketogenic approach
  • reduction in starchy carbohydrates including some fruits and vegetables, bread, rice, pasta, grains and sugar
  • the initiation phase may limit carbohydrates to as low as 20g per day which increases once moving into the ongoing maintenance phase by 5g of carbohydrates more per day across each week until an optimal level is found
  • increase sources of fats like butter, cream, olive oil and particularly coconut oil
219
Q

Modern systems for weight management

Ketogenic diets

Is the ketogenic diet suitable for everyone?

A

Whilst some individuals may thrive on these ketogenic diets, they are by no means suitable for everyone, and are associated with some inherent risk factors.

Concerns include increased fat intake and CHD risk, protein turnover and kidney function and blood acidity and calcium reduction in bones.

They may well suit a proportion of individuals, providing improvements in fat loss, insulin resistance and blood lipid profiles. They may equally be less suited to others, especially people with a history of kidney function problems

220
Q

Modern systems for weight management

Palaeolithic diet

What is the concept?

A

The basic argument centres on the fact that 99.9% of our genes were formed 10,000 years ago by the beginning of the Neolithic or agricultural era. By logical argument proponents of this argument suggest that we are better suited to the Palaeolithic (over 10,000 years ago) diet, since this is what we evolved with.

221
Q
A
222
Q

Modern systems for weight management

Palaeolithic diet

What are the dietary guidelines?

A
  • approximately 30% protein intake, varied according to season. Protein should come from wild game meat such as venison, bison, rabbit and fowl (Eaton and Konner, 1983)
  • an ideal ratio of 1:1 up to possibly 1:4 omega 6 to omega 3 fatty acids
  • a greater percentage of monounsaturated fat and less saturated fat
  • carbohydrates are limited to seasonal fruit, wild vegetables, roots, legumes and nuts
  • the hunter-gatherer lifestyle was very physically active, an important component relating to this diet
223
Q

The basis of the Palaeolithic diet is a return to the foods that would have been available to us in a Stone Age setting, whilst avoiding the modern mass agricultural foods available today that would not likely have been present.

What foods should be avoided according to this diet?

A
  • all grains e.g. wheat, rye, barley, oats etc.
  • all-grain products e.g. bread and pasta
  • all processed food
  • milk and dairy products
  • all pulses e.g. beans of any kind, including string beans, peas,
  • cashews
  • potatoes and sweet potatoes
  • sugar
224
Q

The basis of the Palaeolithic diet is a return to the foods that would have been available to us in a Stone Age setting, whilst avoiding the modern mass agricultural foods available today that would not likely have been present.

What foods should be included according to this diet?

A
  • a variety of organic meat, poultry
  • organic organ meats e.g. liver and kidneys
  • organic free-range eggs
  • plenty of fruits (strawberries, raspberries, blueberries etc)
  • plenty of root vegetables (carrots, turnips, parsnips, swedes, radishes etc)
  • plenty of broad green-leafed vegetables (lettuce and spinach leaves, kale etc)
  • bulbs (onions, garlic)
  • nuts and seeds
225
Q

What are the considerations with the Palaeolithic diet?

A
  • not suitable for everyone
  • restrictive and some may find it hard to adhere to
  • the lack of dairy products may result in poor calcium intake although dark green leafy vegetables are a plant source of calcium and magnesium
  • the exclusion of processed food is an improvement for everyone
  • recognise the importance of increased fruit and vegetables and an improved ratio of omega 3 to omega 6 essential fats
  • increased intake of saturated fat
  • a significant percentage of fat within most red meat is in fact monounsaturated, which experts have identified as being beneficial to health
  • The amount of saturated fat within domesticated livestock tends to be higher than within the original Palaeolithic wild game.
226
Q

What are anorexia and bulimia nervosa?

A

Eating disorders that lead to underweight

227
Q

What are usually root causes to anorexia and bulimia nervosa?

A

Psychological in nature.

228
Q

Will nutritional advice be sufficient when one is suffering from anorexia and bulimia?

A

No, appropriate professional help should be sought if or when dealing with individuals suspected of suffering from one of these challenging conditions.

229
Q

Prior to collecting a client’s personal information on health and diet, it is vital for the health professional to obtain what?

A

That the health professional has obtained a written and signed ‘informed consent’ form.

230
Q

Who does a written consent protect and against what?

A

This will protect both the trainer and client and ensure that sensitive information remains confidential and that the client doesn’t receive any unexpected surprises with the type or level of service as they have been ‘informed’ prior to the nutrition service beginning.

231
Q

Name methods on how to collect client details.

A
  • questionnaires e.g. lifestyle, PAR-Q, medical, nutritional
  • completed food diary
  • interviewing / consulting
  • short and long term observation e.g. body language, long term behaviours, habits, reactions, emotions, health
  • nutritional testing / assessing
232
Q

Why is it very important that a sufficient amount of accurate information is gathered by any nutrition or health and fitness professional prior to offering advice and direction?

A

This will help in more fully understanding the clients’ current situation in relation to where they really need to be. This will also serve as the foundation to determine the correct, individualised stages of change to ease and guide a client through a series of adjustments to their current lifestyle and food habits.

233
Q

What is do be considered when gathering information through interviewing?

A
  • communicate clearly and effectively to be sure knowledge shared is understood by both the trainer and the client
  • generate enthusiasm and motivation for change
  • be aware of the effect of their personal attitudes and beliefs and avoid being too judgemental
  • understand the constraints on an individuals’ health and nutrition behaviour, including family, employment, cultural and religious considerations
  • foresee any obstacles that may reduce adherence to nutritional change and investigate tactfully using appropriate questioning
  • determine a variety of options suitable to the clients’ lifestyle that will move them towards their goals
234
Q

Why is good communication important for single consultations and longer programmes?

A
  • communication is essential to a professional relationship.
  • the trainer must determine what style or method of communication best suits the client and then adapt their style to match
  • communication is a primary skill needed to convey knowledge to other people
  • communication is a vital key to retaining or losing clients. Once a trainer starts to communicate effectively they can build rapport, relate, empathise, explain, understand, motivate, question and laugh with a client
  • good communicators build good relationships. This is because they can convey what they want or need in a form the other person understands. However, they are also able to understand what the other person is feeling and needs.
235
Q

Conditions which promote effective consultation / interview

A

The room:

  • comfortable, bright, airy, warm or cool (as appropriate)
  • no barriers e.g. a desk between people
  • comfortable chairs, not opposite each other but angled to allow for eye contact, but also to enable client to break eye contact easily whilst they think about their responses
  • no loud noises or distractions, professional privacy to be maintained
  • no prominent clocks

The consultant:

  • genuine, a person of integrity, open-minded
  • having unconditional regard for the client
  • posture and body language should be welcoming
236
Q

The clients’ PAR-Q, lifestyle, medical and nutrition questionnaire can serve as a basis for which to follow a stream of viable questioning and it will help to identify potential barriers and solutions such as:

A
  • time available to purchase food, and prepare meals
  • family commitments that may hinder efforts
  • employment commitments and degree of priority
  • potential support network
  • social habits and activities that support or hinder
  • health problems that may require more specialist care
237
Q

Nutrition questionnaires may not be answered truthfully. How can the personal trainer get a better inside of the nutrition of their clients?

A

With the help of a food diary.

238
Q

What needs to be considered when using a food diary?

A
  • complete diary after each meal, not at the end of the day
  • record accurately what was eaten
  • identify amounts eaten
  • identify food brands and quality of food where possible
  • note the time of intake
  • specify any fluid intake e.g. water, coffee, soft drinks
  • note when activity or exercise was done
  • assess energy, mood, and mental clarity 1-2 hours after food was eaten
239
Q

What are basic things to consider when interpreting a food diary?

A
  • amount of carbohydrate in the daily diet
  • level of refinement of carbohydrate foods
  • energy, mood and mental response to high carbohydrate intake
  • varied fruit and vegetable intake
  • amount of protein in the daily diet
  • inclusion of protein in each meal
  • quality of the sources of protein
  • energy, mood and mental response to high protein intake
  • amount of fat in the daily diet
  • types of fat included
  • quality of the sources of fat in the diet
  • sources of omega 6 to omega 3 and the current ratio
  • timing of meals generally throughout the day
  • how food fits in around the working day and family commitments
  • food intake around activity, exercise and other key stressors
  • regularly eaten foods that may form part of the subconscious, addictive pattern
  • fluid intake and how this measures up to guidelines and additional exercise needs
  • alcohol habits and intake
  • additives that are ingested regularly and the potential side effects
  • ‘go-to’ foods that serve to satisfy when quick and convenient options are a must
  • look for repetitive eating patterns with little variety
240
Q

After analyzing the food diary, it is important to be able to provide both positive feedback and highlight areas of attention that need to be improved upon. The health professional should not determine the goals beforehand and arrive at the feedback session with a set of goals to impose upon the client.

Some clients may have many areas that need to be worked upon that could prove to be too vast for a client to get to grips with in one go.

How do you go about this?

A

The areas of needed change should be prioritised by considering which are most nutritionally important, but also which would be the easiest changes to make.

241
Q

Having gained a new perspective on the issues and concerns, it becomes possible for the client to identify goals and ways in which these might be achieved.

The important thing about this stage is that the client is allowed time to talk through the potential areas of change by considering the likely consequences of change, both positive and negative.

By discussing the possible options, what will the trainer discover?

A

The trainer will discover much more about the client’s attitude and beliefs and the way in which they think about the different dietary habits and behaviours they have.

This will also aid the client in developing ownership of agreed goals and the strategy that is decided upon.

242
Q

What may be the client’s objectives when it comes to nutrition?

A
  • body fat reduction or weight loss
  • muscular development
  • eating to achieve optimal health
  • fuelling exercise and/or sport
243
Q

Explain the SMART goal principle.

A

S - specific statement of the objective

M - measurable in order to provide comparative progress

A - agreed by the client involved

R - realistic whilst still providing a challenge

T - time framed to focus effort and attention

244
Q

Explain The performance equation (G. Tim Gallwey).

A

Clients who are able to remain focused on their potential, act in accordance with their objectives and take 100% responsibility for their outcome are rarely distracted by interference.

Some sabotage their potential through their own psychological interference, particularly through lack of motivation and the perpetuation of their own limiting beliefs and opinions about themselves or the methods being used to make change occur.

245
Q

Why is it important to investigate concerns and identify barriers?

A

It’s a tool that will aid the trainer to assess where a client is in relation to their efforts to alter their lifestyle. Given this understanding, suitable behavioural change strategies can then be implemented.

246
Q

When a person prepares to make changes, he or she needs to take account of things he or she liked about the old lifestyle. They need to accept that the reasons for the old behaviour will still be around and will sometimes seem to be more important than the reasons for changing. It will be important to develop strategies for handling such ‘temptation’.

What may be examples of the kind of barriers that may be faced?

A
  • client enjoyed the taste of less healthy food
  • comfort eating to improve feelings and emotions during stressful times
  • financial concerns over cost of better quality food
  • family members, spouse or partner may not want to change
  • time constraints may support low quality, convenience eating
  • they have become accustomed to certain habits and routines that are difficult to break
247
Q

There are many ways and tools which a nutritional advisor or personal trainer can use to support the client whilst they strive to keep their focus on the objectives at hand.
Name a few.

A
  • Self monitoring
  • Reinforcement
  • Behavioural contracts
  • Provide praise
  • Encourage paired or group participation
  • Recruit supportive ‘other’
  • Periodic testing for positive reinforcement
  • Use behavioural change strategies
  • Charting progress
  • Reward systems
248
Q

For the nutritional success of the client, a network of professionals may be needed.

Which professionals could it include?

A
  • Doctor
  • Spouse
  • Employer
  • Fitness Instructor
  • Psychologist
  • Friends
  • Personal Trainer
  • Dietician
249
Q

In regards to Data Protection, nutritionists or trainers must satisfy which two obligations?

A

First obligation, adhere to the following:

  • information is fairly and lawfully processed
  • the information is used for the limited purposes intended and known by the client
  • there is adequate information for the required purpose
  • the information held is all relevant and not beyond the purpose or needs
  • all information is accurate and current
  • information should only be stored or held on file for the required time period
  • information is stored in fire-proof lockable filing cabinets, or under password protection on a computer
  • information should not breach an individual’s rights
  • information should not be passed on to others without the individual’s permission, and should not be used outside the EC unless adequate protection for the individual is in place

Second obligation:
Inform the information commissioner. A form can be completed online at www.dpr.gov.uk

250
Q

Explain the pros and cons of the Harris Benedict Formula.

A

Uses factors of height, weight, age, and sex to determine basal metabolic rate (BMR). This makes it more accurate than determining calorie needs based on total bodyweight alone.

The only variable it does not take into consideration is the amount of lean body mass. Therefore, the equation will be very accurate in all but the extremely muscular (it will underestimate caloric needs) and the extremely over fat (it will over estimate caloric needs).

251
Q

The Harris Benedict Formula

What is the formula for male and female?

A

Men: BMR = 66 + (13.7 x weight in kg) + (5 x height in cm) – (6.8 x age)
Women: BMR = 655 + (9.6 x weight in kg) + (1.8 x height in cm) – (4.7 x age)

252
Q

After calculating your basal metabolic rate, what are the multiplications for different lifestyles?

A

Activity Multiplier

  • Sedentary BMR x 1.2 (little or no exercise, desk job)
  • Lightly active BMR x 1.375 (light exercise/sports 1-3 days/week)
  • Mod.Active BMR x 1.55 (moderate exercise/sports 3-5 days/week)
  • Very Active BMR x 1.725 (hard exercise/sports 6-7 days/week)
  • Extra Active BMR x 1.9 (hard daily exercise/sports and physical job)