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unit 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

what is a metabolic pathway?

A

an integrated series of enzyme-controlled reactions

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2
Q

what is metabolism?

A

all the reactions taking place within a cell

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3
Q

catabolic

A

breakdown, releasing energy

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4
Q

catabolic example

A

aerobic respiration

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5
Q

anabolic

A

built up, requiring energy

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6
Q

anabolic example

A

protein synthesis

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7
Q

what types of steps are there in metabolic pathways?

A

reversible
irreversible
alternative routes

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8
Q

what do irreversible and reversible steps in a metabolic pathway do?

A

allows the process to be kept under tight control

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9
Q

what do alternative routes in a metabolic pathway do

A

allow steps to be bypassed

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10
Q

what do inner membranes do?

A

enables metabolic activity to be localised

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11
Q

examples of organelles that are membrane bound

A

mitochondria
chloroplast

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12
Q

what makes up the membrane?

A

proteins
phospholipids

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13
Q

types of proteins in the membrane

A

pores
pumps
enzymes

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14
Q

what do pores in the membrane do?

A

allow diffusion of specific molecules across the membrane

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15
Q

what do pumps in the membrane do?

A

transports molecules against the concentration gradient

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16
Q

what do enzymes in the membrane do?

A

speed up the rate of biochemical reactions in the cell

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17
Q

what is the activation energy?

A

minimum energy required by colliding particles to form an
activated complex

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18
Q

what effect do enzymes have on activation energy?

A

lowers it

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19
Q

what is an induced fit?

A

when the active site changes shape to better fit the substrate after the substrate binds

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20
Q

what are the effects of an induced fit?

A

ensures the active site comes into close contact with the substrate molecules
increases the chance of a reaction taking place

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21
Q

describe affinity during a reaction

A

substrates have high affinity for active site
products have low affinity for reaction site so they separate

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22
Q

what does a competitive inhibitor do?

A

competes with the substrate for the available active site

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23
Q

how do competitive inhibitors reduce the rate of reaction?

A

active sites are blocked so substrate molecule cannot bind

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24
Q

effect of substrate concentration on competitive inhibition?

A

reverse the effect

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25
Q

what does a non-competitive inhibitor do?

A

does not combine directly with the active site on the enzyme

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26
Q

how does a non-competitive inhibitor reduce the rate of reaction?

A

changes the shape of the enzyme, indirectly changing the shape of the active site
prevents the substrate from binding

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27
Q

effect of substrate concentration on non-competitive inhibition?

A

cannot be reversed

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28
Q

feedback inhibition

A

As the concentration of an end product reaches a certain concentration, some of it binds to the enzyme earlier in the pathway, inhibiting this enzyme
This blocks the pathway and prevents further synthesis of the end product

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29
Q

what is the key role of ATP in cells?

A

transfer energy to cellular processes which require energy
muscle contractions

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30
Q

where does glycolysis take place?

A

cytoplasm

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31
Q

what stages of respiration require oxygen?

A

citric acid cycle
electron transport chain

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32
Q

what is ATP required for in glycolysis?

A

the phosphorylation og glucose

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33
Q

what does dehydrogenase do?

A

removes hydrogen ions and electrons from glucose

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34
Q

what enzyme carries hydrogen ions and electrons to stage 3?

A

NAD in the form NADH

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35
Q

where does the citric acid cycle take place?

A

matrix of the mitochondria

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36
Q

what is pyruvate converted into?

A

acetyl which combines with coenzymeA to form acetyl coenzymeA

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37
Q

how is citrate formed?

A

acetyl from acetyl coenzymeA combines with oxaloacetate

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38
Q

how is oxaloacetate regenerated?

A

Through a series of enzyme controlled reactions, citrate is converted back into oxaloacetate

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39
Q

what gas is released during the citric acid cycle?

A

carbon dioxide

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40
Q

where does dehydrogenase work?

A

glycolysis
citric acid cycle

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41
Q

where does the electron transport chain take place?

A

inner mitochondrial membrane

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42
Q

what is the electron transport chain?

A

a series of carrier proteins attached to the inner mitochondrial membrane

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43
Q

where do hydrogen ions and electrons get passed to?

A

the electron transport chain

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44
Q

role of electrons in the electron transport chain

A

electrons passed along the membrane releasing energy

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45
Q

what is the energy from electrons used for?

A

pumps hydrogen ions across the membrane

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46
Q

how is ATP generated in the electron transport chain?

A

the hydrogen ions flow back through the membrane through ATP synthase which generates ATP

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47
Q

what do the hydrogen ions do once they have flown through ATP synthase?

A

combine with the electrons and oxygen to form water

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48
Q

what is the final hydrogen acceptor?

A

oxygen

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49
Q

where does fermentation take place?

A

cytoplasm

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50
Q

when does fermentation take place?

A

if there is an absence of oxygen

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51
Q

what fermentation reaction is reversible?

A

animals
not yeast and plant

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52
Q

fermentation in animal cells

A

glucose - pyruvate - lactate

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53
Q

fermentation in yeast and plant cells

A

glucose - pyruvate - ethanol + carbon dioxide

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54
Q

what is metabolic rate?

A

The quantity of energy consumed by an organism per unit of time

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55
Q

what can metabolic rate be measured as?

A

The volume of oxygen consumed oer unit of time
The volume of carbon dioxide produced per unit of time
The heat produced per unit of time

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56
Q

what can metabolic rate be measured using?

A

Respirometer
Calorimeter
Carbon dioxide probe
Oxygen probe

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57
Q

how does a respirometer work?

A

CO2 produced by respiration is absorbed by a carbon dioxide absorption material
As oxygen is used up, the level of the liquid will rise
This is measured to see the volume of oxygen used per unit of time

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58
Q

metabolic rates from highest to lowest

A

Birds and mammals
Reptiles and amphibians
Fish

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59
Q

why do higher metabolic rates need a better circulatory system?

A

to allow efficient delivery of oxygen to their cells

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60
Q

what type of circulatory system do birds and mammals have?

A

complete double

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61
Q

what type of circulatory system do reptiles and amphibians have?

A

incomplete double

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62
Q

what type of circulatory system do fish have?

A

single

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63
Q

benefits of birds and mammals circulatory system?

A

no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood due to the septum in the ventricles
blood can be pumped at a higher pressure

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64
Q

features of birds and mammals circulatory system?

A

2 atria and ventricles
chambers separated by septum
blood moves through heart twice in each circuit

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65
Q

features of reptiles and amphibians circulatory system?

A

2 atria
1 ventricle

66
Q

why is the circulatory system of reptiles and amphibians less efficient?

A

ventricle contains no septum so deoxygenated and oxygenated blood mixes

67
Q

pressure of blood in a circulatory system of a fish

A

high pressure to gills
low pressure at capillaries

68
Q

features of a fish circulatory system?

A

1 atrium and ventricle
blood only passes through the heart once in each circuit

69
Q

example of abiotic factors that can affect an organisms ability to maintain its metabolic rate?

A

pH
salinity
temperature

69
Q

what is a conformer?

A

organism whose internal environment is dependant on their external environment

69
Q

how do conformers maintain optimum metabolic rate?

A

behavioural responses

70
Q

example of a conformers behavioural response

A

lizard bask in the sun to absord heat energy

71
Q

what do behavioural responses do for conformers?

A

Allows them to tolerate variation in their external environment

72
Q

advantage to conformers

A

low metabolic costs so saves energy

73
Q

how do regulators maintain their internal environment?

A

use negative feedback control

73
Q

advantage to regulators?

A

Can live in a wide range of ecological niches

73
Q

disadvantage to conformers

A

Narrow range of ecological niches as its less adaptable to environmental change

73
Q

what is a regulator?

A

organisms who maintain their internal environment regardless of their external environment

74
Q

disadvantage to regulators?

A

high metabolic costs

74
Q

what is the process in homeostasis?

A

requires energy from metabolism
is controlled by negative feedback
is essential in thermoregulation

74
Q

what is homeostasis?

A

where an organism maintains a constant internal environment irrespective of the external environment

75
Q

what is negative feedback control?

A

used by regulators to achieve homeostasis

76
Q

what makes up the negative feedback system?

A

set point
receptors
messages
effectors

77
Q

what do receptors do?

A

detect the level of a factor

78
Q

what do messages do?

A

sent if levels are too high/low

79
Q

how are messages sent around the body?

A

electrical impulses are sent to the effectors through nerves

80
Q

what is the hypothalamus?

A

temperature monitoring unit of your brain

81
Q

what is thermoregulation?

A

the process of regulating temperature to maintain homeostasis
a type of negative feedback control

82
Q

why is thermoregulation important?

A

optimal enzyme activity
high diffusion rates

83
Q

what does the body do to cool down?

A

sweating
vasodilation
decrease metabolic rate

84
Q

sweating

A

Body heat is used to evaporate water in the sweat cooling your skin

85
Q

vasodilation

A

This is an increased blood flow to the skin which increases heat loss

86
Q

decreasing metabolic rate

A

less heat produced

87
Q

what does the body do in response to a decrease in temperature?

A

shiver
vasoconstriction
hair erector muscles contract
increase metabolic rate

88
Q

shivering

A

Muscle contraction generates heat

89
Q

vasoconstriction

A

This is a decreased blood flow to the skin which decreases heat loss

90
Q

hair erector muscles contract

A

traps layer of insulating air

91
Q

increased metabolic rate

A

more heat produced

92
Q

surviving adverse conditions

A

dormancy

93
Q

avoiding adverse conditions

A

migration

94
Q

what is dormancy?

A

part of an organisms’ lifestyle to allow survival during a period of time when the costs of continued normal metabolic activity would be too high.

95
Q

effect of dormancy

A

Metabolic rate
Heart rate
Breathing rate
Body temperature

96
Q

two categories of dormancy?

A

predictive
consequential

97
Q

positive to dormancy

A

animal avoids adverse conditions while spending minimal energy

98
Q

predictive dormancy

A

occurs before the onset of adverse conditions

99
Q

consequential dormancy

A

Occurs after the onset of adverse conditions

100
Q

advantage to consequential dormancy

A

the organism can remain active for longer and take advantage of available resources

101
Q

disadvantage to consequential dormancy

A

a sudden severe change in an abiotic factor may kill off many organisms before they become dormant

102
Q

types of dormancy?

A

hibernation
aestivation
daily torpor

103
Q

hibernation

A

survive during winter/low temperatures

104
Q

aestivation

A

survive during drought/high temperatures

105
Q

daily torpor

A

A daily period of reduced activity in some animals with high metabolic rates

106
Q

what is mirgation?

A

avoids metabolic adversity by expending energy to relocate to a more suitable environment

107
Q

advantage to migration

A

avoids metabolic adversity caused by low temperatures and shortage of food

108
Q

disadvantage to migration

A

huge energy expenditure to get a more suitable environment

109
Q

how do animals know to migrate?

A

innate or learned behaviour

110
Q

what is innate behaviour?

A

inherited and instinctive

111
Q

what is learned behaviour?

A

gained by previous migration or experience

112
Q

what are specialised techniques used for?

A

used to study long-distance migration

113
Q

types of specialised techniques

A

satellite tracking
leg rings

114
Q

satellite tracking

A

emits signals which ic picked up by receivers

115
Q

leg rings

A

if a bird is recaptures, the number on the bird is reported and where they found it to collect data

116
Q

types of microorganisms

A

archaea
bacteria
some species of eukaryotes

117
Q

why are microorganisms useful?

A

Adaptability
Ease of cultivation
Speed of growth
Produce useful products
Food substrate is often cheap

118
Q

microorganism metabolism

A

use a wide variety of substrates and produce useful products

119
Q

what does a growth medium require for the growth of microorganisms?

A

raw materials for biosynthesis
energy source

120
Q

examples of raw materials for biosynthesis

A

vitamins
fatty acids
amino acids

121
Q

how does the growth medium get an energy source?

A

from chemical substrates
from light in photosynthetic organisms

122
Q

what are the ways that raw materials can be found in the growth medium?

A

many microorganisms produce them
others get them supplied

123
Q

culture conditions

A

sterility
temperature
oxygen levels
pH

124
Q

effects of sterility in growth media

A

Reduce competition with desired micro organisms for nutrients
Reduce the risk of spoilage of the product

125
Q

why does temperature need to be monitored in growth media?

A

Keeps enzymes at their optimum temperature

126
Q

why do oxygen levels need to be monitored in growth media?

A

Allows aerobic respiration to occur preventing fermentation

127
Q

why does pH need to be monitored in growth media?

A

Keeps enzymes at their optimum pH
Buffer or the addition of acids can control this

128
Q

phases of growth

A

lag
log/exponential
stationary
death

129
Q

lag phase

A

enzymes are induced to metabolise substrates

130
Q

log/exponential phase

A

Contains the most rapid growth of microorganisms due to plentiful nutrients

131
Q

stationary phase

A

Nutrients in the culture media become depleted
Production of toxic metabolites
Secondary metabolites are also produced

132
Q

example of a secondary metabolite produced?

A

antibiotic

133
Q

what to secondary metabolites do?

A

These metabolites confer an ecological advantage by allowing the microorganisms which produce them to outcompete other microorganisms

134
Q

death phase

A

Toxic accumulation of metabolites
Lack of nutrients in the culture

135
Q

total cell count

A

The total number of cells present including live and dead cells

136
Q

viable cell count

A

The total number of living cells present

137
Q

advantage of viable cell count

A

shows the death phase where cell numbers are decreasing

138
Q

how can wild strains of microorganisms be improved?

A

mutagenesis
recombinant DNA technology

139
Q

what can result in mutations?

A

exposure to UV light
radiation
mutagenic chemicals

140
Q

restriction endonuclease role

A

Cuts open plasmids and specific genes (restriction site) out of chromosomes leaving sticky ends

141
Q

how are complementary sticky ends achieved?

A

when the same restriction endonuclease is used to cut open the plasmids and the gene

142
Q

role of ligase

A

Seals the gene into the plasmid
Forms a recombinant plasmid containing recombinant DNA

143
Q

what is a vector?

A

DNA molecule used to carry foreign genetic information into another cell

144
Q

what is used as vectors in recombinant DNA technology?

A

Plasmids and artificial chromosomes

145
Q

difference between plasmids and artificial chromosomes

A

artificial chromosomes are preferable as vectors when larger fragments of DNA is required to be inserted

146
Q

what do plasmids and artificial chromosomes contain?

A

restriction site
regulatory sequence
origin of replication
selectable marker

147
Q

restriction site

A

Target sequences of DNA where specific restriction endonuclease cut

148
Q

regulatory sequence

A

Control gene expression of the vectors own gene and the inserted gene

149
Q

origin of replication

A

Allows self-replication of the vector

150
Q

2 advantages to a selectable marker

A

resistance to a selective agent that would normally kill it
ensures only the microorganism with the vector will grow in the presence of the selective agent

151
Q

safety mechanism to growing microorganisms

A

genes are often introduced that prevent the survival of the microorganism in an external environment

152
Q

what is the result of expressing plant or animal DNA in bacteria DNA?

A

polypeptide being folded incorrectly

153
Q
A

Higher biology (3 decks)

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