Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

Indication for use

A
  • CNS, abdominal organs, bones, joints, skin, and soft tissue bacterial infections
  • colorectal, abdominal, gynecology surgery prophylaxis
  • C. difficle infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Propranolol (Inderal)

Class

A

Pharmacologic: nonselective beta-adrenergic agonist
Therapeutic: first-generation beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Isoniazid

ADE

A
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • CNS, GI effects
    -Allergies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cancer chemotherapy safety alerts

A
  1. High alert medication: can cause devastating effects to patients in the event of a medication error
  2. Hazardous drug requiring special handling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Leuprolide (Lupron)

Class

A

Pharmacologic: GnRH agonist
Therapeutic: androgen deprivation therapy/prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Amphotericin B (AmBisome)

indication for use

A

systemic fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Penicillin G

cross-sensitivity

A

to cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cyclophosphamide (generic only)

class

A

Pharmacologic: Alkylating agent
Therapeutic: Cytotoxic/anticancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Filgrastim (Neupogen)

lab values

A

can increase WBCs over 100,000 mm3

WBC differential (especially neutrophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cephalexin (Keflex)

ADE

A

hemolytic anemia
thrombophlebitis
bleeding
allergic reactions
C. diff infections
milk-protein hypersensitivity
carnitine deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clonidine (Catapres)

ADE

A

Xerostemia
rebound hypertension
drowsiness
toxic in pregnancy
potential for abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Warfarin (Coumadin)

lab values

A

INR 2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Heparin (unfractionated)

indication for use

A

venous thrombosis
deep vein thrombosis
pulmonary embolism
pregnancy
renal dialysis
disseminated intravascular coagulation
open heart surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sumatriptan (Imitrex)

indication for use

A

migraine headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Itraconazole (Sporanox)

class

A

Pharmacologic: Weakens the fungal cell wall: Azole
Therapeutic: broad-spectrum antifungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole [TMP/SMZ] (Bactrim, Septra)

potency

A

more potent together than separate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gentamicin

ADE

A

nephrotoxicity
ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Isoproterenol (Isuprel)

class

A

Pharmacologic: beta-selective adrenergic agonist
Therapeutic: sympathomimetic catecholamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin)

MOA

A

inhibits transpeptidases, activating autolysins to break down and destroy cell wall, resulting in bacterial ell lysis and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Oprelevkin (Interleukin-11)

MOA

A

Promotes proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells and megakaryocyte progenitor cells, which increases synthesis of megakaryocytes, creating many new platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ectoparasiticides

indication for use

A

lice
scabies
ticks
mites
fleas

22
Q

Tetracycline

MOA

A

binds to 30s ribosomal subunits, stopping addition of amino acids to peptide chain, stopping protein synthesis, resulting in suppression of bacterial growth

23
Q

Alteplase (Activase, tPA)

indication for use

A

acute MI
acute ischemic stroke
acute massive pulmonary embolism

24
Q

Bethanechol (Urecholine)

Antidote

A

Atropine (AtroPen)

25
Q

Imipenem (Primaxin)

MOA

A

Binds to PBP 1 and PBP 2 receptors,
weakens bacterial cell wall,
rupturing and killing bacterial cell

26
Q

Permethrin (Nix, Elimite)

MOA

A

disrupts nerve traffic in parasite, causing paralysis and death

27
Q

Interferon alfa 2A

MOA

A

binds to cell-surface receptors, enhancing immune response, keeping G0 dormant stopping proliferation of cancer cells

28
Q

Aspirin (ASA)

class

A

Pharmacologic: COX Inhibitor
Therapeutic: antiplatelet

29
Q

Epoetin alfa (Epogen)

MOA

A

stimulates production of red blood cells in the bone marrow

30
Q

Dopamine (generic only)

class

A

Pharmacologic: dose-dependent adrenergic agonist
Therapeutic: sympathomimetic catecholamine

31
Q

Albuterol (ventolin)

MOA

A

binds to beta2 adrenergic receptors
relaxes bronchial smooth muscle

32
Q

Morphine (Duramorph) and Meperidine (Demerol)

class

A

Pharmacologic: Pure opioid agonist
Therapeutic: opioid analgesic

33
Q

Metoprolol (lopressor)

class

A

Pharmacologic: selective beta1 adrenergic antagonist
Therapeutic: second generation beta blocker

34
Q

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

indication for use

A

Varicella zoster infections
Mucocutaneous herpes simplex infections
Herpes simplex genitalis

35
Q

Ergotamine

MOA

A

activates 5HT1b and d receptors of intracranial blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction, suppression of inflammatory neuropeptides

36
Q

Prozosin (Minipress)

ADE

A

orthostatic hypotension
reflex tachycardia
nasal congestion

37
Q

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

ADE

A

tendinitis/tendon rupture
phototoxicity
GI, CNS reactions
C. diff infections
Candida infections of pharynx/vagina

38
Q

Rifampin (Rifadin)

class

A

Pharmacologic: Bactericidal inhibitor of protein synthesis
Therapeutic: Broad-spectrum antibiotic/antitubercular

39
Q

Vancomycin (Vancocin)

indication for use

A

MRSA and S. epidermidis infections
C. diff infections
Severe infections in patients allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics

40
Q

Pancuronium

therapeutic effect

A

Muscle relaxer for surgery, mechanical ventilation, endotracheal intubation

41
Q

Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

class

A

Pharmacologic: Adrenergic agonist
Therapeutic: Sympathomimetic catecholamine

42
Q

Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)

class

A

Pharmacologic: Antimetabolite/folic acid analog
Therapeutic: Cytotoxic/anticancer

43
Q

Doxorubicin (adriamycin)

indication for use

A

neoplastic diseases
solid tumors and disseminated cancers
Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas
sarcomas of soft tissue and bone
carcinomas of lung, stomach, breast, ovary, testes, thyroid

44
Q

Erythromycin

cytochrome P450

A

inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes, stopping bacterial protein synthesis

affects PQRST interval

45
Q

Neostigmine (Bloxiverz)

indication for use

A

Myasthenia gravis
Reversal of competitive (nondepolarizing) neuromuscular blockade

46
Q

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

indication for use/timing

A

Indication: Influenza A and B
Timing: 75mg 2x/day, effects within 48 hours

47
Q

Tramadol (ultram)

class

A

Pharmacologic: Non-opioid centrally acting agonist
Therapeutic: Non-opioid analgesic

48
Q

Tamoxifen (Soltamox)

indication for use

A

treatment and prevention of breast cancer

49
Q

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

MOA

A

irreversibly blocks receptors on platelet stopping platelet aggregation

50
Q

Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)

ADE

A

Peripheral neuropathy
Hepatotoxicity
birth defects
hematologic effects
pulmonary reactions
GI effects