Unit 11, CH.15 Flashcards

1
Q

Holland’s (1997) RIASEC interest types.

A

Each career interest type is accompanied by a descriptive label (e.g., “Doer”) borrowed from the Strong Interest Inventory. The representative careers for each type were taken from public domain RIASEC marker scales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

interest measure

A

in the context of vocational assessment and preemployment counseling as an instrument designed to evaluate testtakers’ likes, dislikes, leisure activities, curiosities, and involvements in various pursuits for the purpose of comparison with groups of members of various occupations and professions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How well do interest measures predict the kind of work in which individuals will be successful and happy?

A

The researchers found that when a good match existed between a subject’s aptitude in high school and the level of his or her current job, performance was likely to be evaluated positively by the employer. When a poor match existed, a poor performance rating was more likely. Some research suggests that the predictive efficiency of interest measures may be enhanced if they are used in combination with other measures such as measures of confidence and self-efficacy (Chartrand et al., 2002; Rottinghaus et al., 2003), personality (Larson & Borgen, 2002; Staggs et al., 2003), or a portfolio project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

O*NET Ability Profiler

A

a freely available aptitude test developed by the U.S. Department of Labor. It consists of nine job-relevant ability tests: verbal ability, arithmetic reasoning, computation, spatial ability, form perception, clerical perception, motor coordination, finger dexterity, and manual dexterity. Although the O*NET Ability Profiler is not an intelligence test, it has strong correlations with traditional intelligence tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

integrity test

A

we may speak of an integrity test, specifically designed to predict employee theft, honesty, adherence to established procedures, and/or potential for violence. Such narrowly defined personality tests used in the context of employment-related research and practice have been characterized as criterion-focused occupational personality scales, abbreviated as “COPS”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 TYPES OF INTEGRITY TESTS

A

overt integrity tests (which may straightforwardly ask the examinee questions like “Do you always tell the truth?”) and personality-based measures, which resemble in many ways objective personality inventories. Items on the latter type of test may be far more subtle than on the former. The lack of face validity in such personality-based measures may work to the advantage of the test user in terms of obtaining integrity test responses that well, “have integrity.” After all, how many people that are motivated to get a job would admit to lying, cheating, and stealing? Responses to items on the personality-based measures are likely to be interpreted with reference to the responses of groups of people known to have or lack integrity (as defined by the particular test).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

.The most fundamental personality distinction made by Jung and emphasized by Myers and Briggs

A

was whether one’s primary attitude was inward turning (introversion) or outward turning (extroversion). Introverts direct their mental energy inward and are energized by reflection. Extroverts are energized by interacting with the external, social world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

myers briggs test validity

A

A meta-analysis of published studies did indicate that the test and its scales tended to be internally consistent and stable over time, although some variations were observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

second-order meta-analysis

A

(a meta-analysis that summarizes other meta-analyses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Extraversion was also positively correlated with good work performance—but why?

A

In follow-up research, Barrick et al. (2002) found that extraverted individuals were more motivated to achieve status, which in turn, predicted higher work performance ratings. Clearly, the relationship between personality and work performance is not straightforward; some personality traits seem helpful with regard to some, but not all types of jobs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cross-Cultural Adaptability Inventory

A

). The CCAI is a self-administered and self-scored instrument designed to provide information on the testtaker’s ability to adapt to other cultures. Testtakers respond to 50 items written in a six-point Likert format. The test yields information about one’s readiness to adapt to new situations, tolerate ambiguity, maintain one’s personal identity in new surroundings, and interact with people from other cultures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

one of the most important instruments of assessment relevant to a career decision

A

an be a questionnaire devised by assessees themselves, one that is not designed for administration to a prospective employee. Rather, it is written by the assessee and designed for administration to a person established in the career the assessee is contemplating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

careert transition, vs position change, vs occupation change

A

career transition was operationally defined as task change (a shift to other types of tasks but essentially the same job), position change (a shift in jobs with the same employer), or occupation change (a shift in duties and work settings). The test authors presented evidence for the test’s reliability as well as evidence they described as “promising” for the construct validity of this instrument.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

screening/selection/classification/placement

A

-, screening refers to a relatively superficial process of evaluation based on certain minimal standards, criteria, or requirements.
-Selection refers to a process whereby each person evaluated for a position will be either accepted or rejected for that position
- classification does not imply acceptance or rejection but rather a rating, categorization, or “pigeonholing” with respect to two or more criteria.
-. Placement is a disposition, transfer, or assignment to a group or category that may be made on the basis of one criterion. If, for example, you took a college-level course while still in high school, the score you earned on the advanced placement test in that subject area may have been the sole criterion used to place you in an appropriate section of that college course upon your acceptance to college.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The Goal of the OSS Assessment Program

A

a system of procedures which would reveal the personalities of OSS recruits to the extent providing ground for sufficiently reliable predictions of their usefulness to the organization during the remaining years of the war”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

organismic assessment

A

evaluation of the total person) as their objective. No single psychological test would measure isolated psychological attributes

17
Q

leaderless group technique vs in basket technique

A

e in-basket technique. This technique simulates the way a manager or an executive deals with an in-basket filled with mail, memos, announcements, and various other notices and directives. Assessees are instructed that they have only a limited amount of time, usually two or three hours, to deal with all the items in the basket (more commonly a manila envelope). Through posttest interviews and an examination of the way the assessee handled the materials, assessors can make judgments concerning variables such as organizing and planning, problem solving, decision making, creativity, leadership, and written communication skills.

18
Q

assessment center

A

he term actually denotes an organizationally standardized procedure for evaluation involving multiple assessment techniques such as paper-and-pencil tests and situational performance tests.

19
Q

physical test

A

physical test may be defined as measurement that entails evaluation of one’s somatic health and intactness, and observable sensory and motor abilities.

20
Q

Immunoassay Test pros and cons

A

mploys the subject’s urine to determine the presence or absence of drugs in the body by identifying the metabolized by-products of the drug (metabolites). Although widely used in workplace settings, the test can be criticized for its inability to specify the precise amount of the drug that was taken, when it was taken, and which of several possible drugs in a particular category was taken. Further, there is no way to estimate the degree of impairment that occurred in response to the drug.

21
Q

Productivity

A

output or value yielded relative to work effort made.

22
Q

forced distribution technique vs critical incidents technique

A

-This procedure involves distributing a predetermined number or percentage of assessees into various categories that describe performance (such as unsatisfactory, poor, fair, average, good, superior). Another index of on-the-job performance is number of absences within a given period.
-The critical incidents technique (Flanagan & Burns, 1955) involves the supervisor recording positive and negative employee behaviors. The supervisor catalogues the notations according to various categories (e.g., dependability or initiative) for ready reference when an evaluation needs to be made.

23
Q

job-seeking factor found to be most important

A

steady job. The least important factor was found to be working with friends and neighbors. Praise for good work was a close runner-up for least important. In interpreting the findings, Champagne cautioned that “the factors reported here relate to the job-seeking behavior of the unskilled and are not measures of how to retain and motivate the unskilled once employed . . .What prompts a person to accept a job is not necessarily the same as what prompts a person to retain a job or do well

24
Q

intrinsic vs extrinsic motivation

A

In intrinsic motivation, the primary driving force stems from things such as the individual’s involvement in work or satisfaction with work products. In extrinsic motivation, the primary driving force stems from rewards, such as salary and bonuses, or from constraints, such as job loss.

25
Burnout
“a psychological syndrome of emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and reduced personal accomplishment that can occur among individuals who work with other people in some capacity” (Maslach et al., 1997, p. 192). In this definition, emotional exhaustion refers to an inability to give of oneself emotionally to others, and depersonalization refers to distancing from other people and even developing cynical attitudes toward them.
26
attitude / job satisfaction/ implicit attitude
presumably learned disposition to react in some characteristic manner to a particular stimulus. -has been defined as “a pleasurable or positive emotional state resulting from the appraisal of one’s job or job experiences” - nonconscious, automatic association in memory that produces a disposition to react in some characteristic manner to a particular stimulus
27
organizational commitment
refers to a person’s feelings of loyalty to, identification with, and involvement in an organization.
28
organizational culture
totality of socially transmitted behavior patterns characteristic of a particular organization or company, including: the structure of the organization and the roles within it; the leadership style; the prevailing values, norms, sanctions, and support mechanisms; and the past traditions and folklore, methods of enculturation, and characteristic ways of interacting with people and institutions outside of the culture (such as customers, suppliers, the competition, government agencies, and the general public).
29
Consumer psychology
branch of social psychology that deals primarily with the development, advertising, and marketing of products and services.
30
The major disadvantages of mail questionnaires
(1) the possibility of no response at all from the intended recipient of the survey (for whatever reason—the survey was never delivered or was thrown out as junk mail as soon as it arrived); (2) the possibility of response from someone (perhaps a family member) who was not the intended recipient of the survey; and (3) the possibility of a late—and hence useless for tabulation purposes—response. If large numbers of people fail to respond to a mail questionnaire, then it is impossible to determine whether those individuals who did respond are representative of those who did not.
31
consumer panel. In vs diary panel
Many commercial research firms maintain a list of a large number of people or families who have agreed to respond to questionnaires that are sent to them. The people who make up this list are referred to as a consumer panel. In return for their participation, panel members may receive incentives such as cash and free samples of all the products about which they are asked to respond. One special type of panel is called a diary panel. Respondents on such a panel must keep detailed records of their behavior.
32
Motivation research methods
include individual interviews and focus groups. These two qualitative research methods are used to examine, in depth, the reactions of consumers who are representative of the group of people who use a particular product or service. Unlike quantitative research, which typically involves large numbers of subjects and elaborate statistical analyses, qualitative research typically involves few respondents and little or no statistical analysis. The emphasis in the latter type of research is not on quantity (of subjects or of data) but on the qualities of whatever is under study.
33
A focus group
group interview led by a trained, independent moderator who, ideally, has a knowledge of group discussion facilitation techniques and group dynamics.3 As their name implies, focus groups are designed to focus group discussion on something, such as a particular commercial, a concept for a new product, or packaging for a new product. Focus groups usually consist of 6 to 12 participants who may have been recruited off the floor of a shopping mall or selected in advance to meet some preset qualifications for participation
34
dimensional qualitative research
approach to qualitative research that seeks to ensure a study is comprehensive and systematic from a psychological perspective by guiding the study design and proposed questions for discussion on the basis of “BASIC ID” dimensions. BASIC ID includes behavior affect sensation imagery cignition interperosnal relationships and drugs
35
changes cohen made to lazarus intiial dimensional qualitative research approach and why
dimensional qualitative research is an approach to qualitative research that seeks to ensure a study is comprehensive and systematic from a psychological perspective by guiding the study design and proposed questions for discussion on the basis of “BASIC ID” dimensions. BASIC ID is an acronym for the key dimensions in Lazarus’s approach to diagnosis and intervention. The letters stand for behavior, affect, sensation, imagery, cognition, interpersonal relations, and drugs. Cohen’s adaptation of Lazarus’s work adds an eighth dimension, a sociocultural one, thus adding an s to the acronym and changing it to its plural form (BASIC IDS). Reflecting on this approach, Cohen wrote,