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451 - Pharmacology > Unit 1: Tissue > Flashcards

Unit 1: Tissue Flashcards

1
Q

All cells are in contact with extracellular macromolecules that make up the _______ (think of this as a big grid that holds the cells in place)

A

extracellular matrix

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2
Q

_____ are chemicals made by cells that affect other cells growth and activity.

A

cytokines

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3
Q

Migration of cells: Cells may travel in the body to ____ locations.

A

different

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4
Q

_____ is when cells travel to a site due to the effects of cytokines.

A

chemotaxis

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5
Q

Cytokines are chemicals produced by other cells at the ______ of injury.

A

target site

i.e. lymphocytes migrate due to the effects of lymphokines

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6
Q

Cells must communicate and recognize both undifferentiated and specialized cell as as being ______ status (self-host)

A

same-organism

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7
Q

Receptor proteins on cell surfaces serve as recognition _______.

A

identifiers

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8
Q

There are many types of ____ junctions.

A

cell

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9
Q

______ are cell junction bodies between cells.

A

Desmosomes

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10
Q

Tight junctions are cell junctions that prevent _____.

A

diffusion

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11
Q

____ junctions are types of cell junctions that enhance communication.

A

Gap

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12
Q

Cells are specialized, but lose ability to perform some functions, including _____ in the more highly differentiated.

A

replication

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13
Q

_____ yields the different types of tissues that make up the different organ systems.

A

differentiation

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14
Q

Specialized tissues arise out of the three _______.

A

embryonic tissue types

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15
Q

______ tissue develops into nerves, eyes, and skin.

A

ectoderm

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16
Q

_____ tissue develops into mesenchymal - muscle and GU)

A

mesoderm

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17
Q

_____ tissue develops into visceral organs.

A

endoderm

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18
Q

Epithelial tissue may be smooth, or have microvilli and/or ____.

A

cilia

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19
Q

______ tissue is organized into simple, stratified, or psuedostratified.

A

epithelial

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20
Q

Simple epithelial tissue is ____ layer.

A

one

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21
Q

Stratified epithelial tissue is ____ layer (s)

A

two

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22
Q

Pseudostratified epithelial tissue looks stratified but is ____ layer.

A

one

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23
Q

The three basic shapes of epithelial tissue are squamous, cuboidal, and _____.

A

columnar

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24
Q

Connective tissue (CT) makes up the body’s _____.

A

framework

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25
Q

Connective tissue is made up of ground substance (fluid/gel) with _______.

A

fibroblasts (produce fibers)

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26
Q

The three basic types of fibers found in connective tissue include collagenous, _____, and _____.

A

elastic

reticular

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27
Q

Collagenous fibers are not elastic, but ____.

A

protein

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28
Q

Elastic fibers are made of ____ protein and memranes.

A

elastin

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29
Q

Reticular fibers form the stroma or parenchyma (acutal tissue) of visceral organs and ______.

A

bone marrow

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30
Q

There are three types of _____ tissue that deal with all specialized movement (contraction/relaxation)

A

muscle tissue

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31
Q

The three types of muscle tissue.

A

skeletal
cardiac
smooth

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32
Q

Neural tissue is made up of neurons specialized for conduction and initiation of the ______ information processing and transmission.

A

electrical impulses

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33
Q

Neurons are made of cell body, the soma, axon(s), and _____.

A

multiple dendrites

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34
Q

Cells in tissues are usually _____ and have a specific cytoplasmic to nuclear ratio.

A

organized

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35
Q

Changes in tissues that result from cell changes include ______ with increased cell size and increased organelles to support the cell, but there is no increase in actual _____.

A

hypertrophy

cell number

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36
Q

____ is the reduction in cell size and organelles, but again, no change in cell number.

A

atrophy

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37
Q

_____ involves an increase in cell number.

A

hyperplasia

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38
Q

____ is the reversible replacement of one cell type with another and can lead over time to dysplasia (abnormal cells and organization), which in turn can lead to neoplasia (cancer).

A

metaplasia

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39
Q

Tissues undergo hyperplasia for _____ reasons.

A

various

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40
Q

Hormonal hyperplasia (female breast tissue response to female hormones of puberty and pregnancy) is a ____ form of hyperplsia.

A

physiologic

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41
Q

_______ hyperplasia (liver regenerates to replace lost tissue after surgical removal of a lobe of the liver) and is a form of physiologic hyperplasia.

A

compensatory

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42
Q

______ hyperplasia involves hyperplasia that can led to the continuum towardss dysplasia and neoplasia (cancer)

A

pathologic

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43
Q

One type of dysplasia is “carcinoma in situ” and is ____.

A

non invasive

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44
Q

Metaplsia may occur in some types of _____.

A

cancer development

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45
Q

One theory of cancer development is that the effects of _____ that damage DNA and the DNA is not repaired.

A

carcinogens

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46
Q

One theory of cancer development is that the effects of carcinogens that mutate prot-oncogenes, covert them to _____.

A

onccogenes (i.e. p53)

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47
Q

Cancer can also be endogenously produced substances (hormones) that promote the growth of ____.

A

tumors

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48
Q

In post Menopausal women, since the ovaries have stopped producing estrogen, the main source of estrogen is from body fat. THus, overweight PM women have more estrogen production. And, obese women are at higher risk of developing ______, a cancer that can be stimulated by estrogen.

A

breast cancer

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49
Q

There is a balance between protective (anti-cancer) factors and _____ factors in our environment and diet.

A

carcinogenic

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50
Q

Things that _____ carcinogenic activation include vitamin A, C, and E, selenium, cruciferous vegetables, geneistein (soy), and epigallocatechin gallate (green tea)

A

inhibit

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51
Q

_____ agents block activated carcinogens from accessing DNA target. Dietary initiators of detoxification enzymes: Plant phenols (ellogic acid, fruits, vegetables), Epigallocatechin gallate (green tea), Isothiocyanantes, flavones, and coumarins (all parts of plants)

A

inhibiting

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52
Q

Agents that inhibit _____ and progression include retinols, carotenids, protease inhibitors, phenols and polyphenols (fruits and vegetables).

A

promotion

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53
Q

Most theories of cancer consider the development to be a ______ from previous abnormal cell changes.

A

continuum

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54
Q

Hyperplasia to dysplasia to _____; metaplasia develps in some cancers.

A

neoplasia

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55
Q

Development of cancer as a continuum is the basis of ______ for abnormal cell types to intervene with therapeutics before outright cancer develops.

A

screening

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56
Q

With metastasis there are three ways to travel: direct invasion, hematologic, or _____.

A

lymphatic

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57
Q

Carcinoma in situ (CIS) is not invasive and remains in the place where it started, some people call it _____.

A

precancer

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58
Q

Most cancers travel to other parts of the body, this is called _____.

A

metastasis

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59
Q

Metastasis can be LOCAL (very close to the original cancer) or _____ (far away in the body)

A

distant

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60
Q

Metastasis can be locally invasive - traveling to adjacent tissues by ______.

A

direct invasion

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61
Q

The cancer cells can also travel further via _____ spread (in the bloodstream). Or they can travel via ____ spread (using lymph channels)

A

hematologic

lymphatic

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62
Q

There are common sites of distant metastasis and these cause ____ symptoms.

A

specific

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63
Q

Different types of cancer have ______methods of metastasis and also specific locations for metastasis. (i.e. ovarian cancer often goes to lung and _____)

A

preferred

bone

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64
Q

Cancer in the brain can cause symptoms such as headaches, seizures, and ______.

A

vertigo

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65
Q

Cancer in the _____ can result in lymphadenopathy.

A

lymph nodes

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66
Q

Cancer in the respiratory system can result in cough, hemoptysis, and _____.

A

dyspnea

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67
Q

Cancer in the liver can result in hepatomegaly and ______.

A

jaundice

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68
Q

Skeletal cancer can cause pain and ____.

A

fractures

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69
Q

_____ by healthy living and avoidance of cancer-inducing environmental factors (i.e. ionizing radiation)

A

prevention

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70
Q

If cancer is diagnosed, then the focus changes to prevent metastasis and _____.

A

recurrence

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71
Q

____ to determine histologic type of cancer and degree of invasiveness.

A

biopsy

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72
Q

____ to determine the histological type and spread of the cancer and is usually linked to choice of treatment and also prognosis.

A

staging

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73
Q

Staging of ovarian caner video

A

?

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74
Q

_____ node biopsy to determine spread to lymph nodes. The _____ is the watcher of the initial spread beyond the cancer site.

A

sentinel

sentinel

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75
Q

_____ of cancer means the cancer has reappeared in the body after completion of treatment or previous determination of no evidence of disease (____)

A

recurrence

NED

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76
Q

During general assessment of well-being and ability to perform activities of daily life (ADL) in the cancer patient. Various scoring systems exist, one commonly used is the ________ score.

A

WHO/ECOG/Zubrod

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77
Q

Karnofsky Scale

A

refer to notes pg 8

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78
Q

Zubrod Scale

A

refer to notes pg 8

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79
Q

Hypoxia (anoxia) are sometimes used ______.

A

interchangeably

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80
Q

Hypoxia means reduced ____.

A

O2

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81
Q

Anoxia means _____ of O2.

A

complete lack

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82
Q

Loss of oxygen means that aerobic respiration _____ (less ATP produced), than no ATP at all is produced when glycogen stores are depleted from using anaerobic respiration. Na/K pump and Ca pumps can’t work (require ATP) & cell swells with Na/Water; then Ca+2 enters cell and poisons mitochondria –> ____. Reversible until mitochondria is poisoned.

A

ceases

cell death

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83
Q

Conditions resulting from oxygen dysregulation such as _________ causing angina or infarct, coronary thrombosis causing infarct.

A

coronary ischemia

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84
Q

Conditions resulting from oxygen dysregulation such as cerebral ischemia (TIA) and cerebral infarct (_____)

A

thrombosis, CVA

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85
Q

A _____ is an uncharged atom or molecule that has a free unpaired electron; can be formed by ionizing radiation or _____ - these tend to want to combine with other chemicals and thus cause damage; in humans, secondary inflammation results due to release of toxic intracellular chemcials.

A

radical

chemicals

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86
Q

Free Radicals - oxidatin - sort of too much oxygen?

A

? pg 10

87
Q

Oxidation can result in ____ of lipids which destroy cell membranes, lose selective permeability, cell swells and bursts.

A

peroxidation

88
Q

Oxidation can result in ____ poisoning when carbon tet is converted by the liver enzyme to free radical CCI3.

A

CCI4

89
Q

Some evidence suggests that vitamin C and E stabilizes free radicals and are therefore called _____ (found in fruits and vegetables in cancer-reducing diets)

A

anti-oxidants

90
Q

Poisons act in ____.

A

different ways

91
Q

____ is a poison that affects almost all organs.

A

Lead (Pb)

92
Q

_____ is a poison displaces O2 from hemoglobin.

A

Carbon Monoxide (CO)

93
Q

_____ is a poison that results as a toxic buildup of acetaldehyde affecting liver, stomach, brain and heart.

A

ethanol

94
Q

______ effect cell structure and enzymes, enzymatic pathways.

A

Abnormal genes

95
Q

Genetic factors cause ______ with possible cell/organ/organism death (i.e.e sickle cell anemia)

A

cell malfunction

96
Q

Macrophases, lymphokins, ______, antibodies bind receptor sites and interferes with cell function/regulation.

A

proteases

97
Q

________ alters cell membranes, affecting cell volume with swelling and death due to Na/K pump.

A

Complement

98
Q

This interaction is designed to fight infection and deal with tissue damage but if our response is too _____, we cause damage to our own tissues with the response.

A

excessive

99
Q

Thermal injury includes freezing and ____.

A

burning.

100
Q

The changes seen in this burned (scalded) foot from a thermal burn from hot water include firs-degree (redness) and second-degree (______) changes.

A

blistering

101
Q

The blister (bullae) includes fluid accumulation _____. This is the result of the breakdown of normal skin layers and increased permeability of the small blood vessels (capillaries) due to the effects of ____.

A

under the skin

inflammation

102
Q

Nutritional imbalances result in _____ of essential nutrients.

A

insufficiency

103
Q

Macronutrients provide ____ (protein, fat, carbohydrate)

A

energy

104
Q

Micronutrient include substances necessary for life, usually coenzymes or cofactors - help your enzymes work in ______.

A

biochemical pathways

105
Q

Vita means ____.

A

vital

106
Q

Min means ____.

A

minimum for life

107
Q

_____ are often enzyme co-factors that affect all levels of metabolism.

A

vitamins

108
Q

Vitamin A can affect _____.

A

visual pigments

109
Q

Vitamin B6 can affect _____.

A

amino acid reactions

110
Q

Vitamin C can affect connective and ____ tissue repair.

A

epithelial

111
Q

Anemias can occur due to B12 and ______ deficiencies.

A

folic acid

112
Q

Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets and poor _____.

A

fracture healing

113
Q

Pressure changes include _______, low-pressure injuries, pressure ulcers (decubitus ulcers).

A

blast injuries

114
Q

Due to pressure changes decompression sickness with nitrogen bubbling out of blood and _____ and forming emboli.

A

blocking capillaries

115
Q

Due to pressure changes ______ (low oxygen causes compensatory blood flow to the viscera and lungs).

A

high-altitude pulmonary edema

116
Q

____ degeneration can result from injury that leads to changes in water balance.

A

hydropic degeneration

117
Q

Water imbalance causes cellular swelling and damage to the internal ______.

A

cell structures

118
Q

DNA damaged in mitosis/meiosis when chromosomes are vulnerable, usually be _____.

A

free radical attack

119
Q

Ionizing radiation leads to transformation of cell into ______.

A

abnormal tissues

120
Q

_____ are caused by bacteria, viruses, and parasites invade and destroy, produce toxins, or cause damaging hypersensitivity immune reactions.

A

infections

121
Q

HIV attacks the ____ cell, which is a type of T-lymphocyte (the T helper cell white blood cell). In turn the decreased activity of the CD4 cell results in reduced activity of other immune and inflammatory _____. Overall effect makes individuals more susceptible to infection. In the meantime, more virions (virus particles) are being manufactured and released to the body, worsening the infection.

A

CD4

cell action

122
Q

Apoptosis vs Necrosis ?

A

?

123
Q

Different tissues have different patterns of necrotic ____.

A

change

124
Q

____ necrosis occurs in the kidneys, heart and lungs.

A

coagulative

125
Q

_____ necrosis occurs in neurons and glial cells; and due to inflammation from bacterial infection.

A

liquefactive

126
Q

____ necrosis occurs from TB and has a cheesy appearance.

A

caseous

127
Q

____ necrosis occurs in the breast, pancreas, other abdominal organs (lipases form fatty acids = soaps)

A

Fat

128
Q

_____ necrosis is seen in hypoxia and subsequent bacterial infection (dry = coagulative necrosis, wet = neutrophil invasion and liquefactive necrosis)

A

gangrenous

129
Q

___ gangrene is an anaerobic byproduct of Clostridium infection produces gas bubbles in tissues

A

gas

130
Q

______ seems to be limited to 80-100 years (cross-cultural, multi-ethnic)

A

Lifespan

131
Q

Life expectancy among genders and races (& socio-economic groups) varies due to standard of living, _______ (diet risk taking, etc)

A

cultural behaviors

132
Q

Women have a ____ life expectancy than men, possibly due to cardiovascular disease developing later in life.

A

higher

133
Q

Somatic mutation theory states cells are programmed to mutate and die after a _______ of divisions (ceiling to possible number of cell divisions of all human cells:; possibly due to accumulated defects in mitochnodria over time (can’t extract energy from foodstuffs) This is often referred to as the _______ (cells can can only replicate 40-60 times, then processes break down and “programmed cell death” (apoptosis) occurs.

A

limited number

Hayflick Limit

134
Q

______ theory also called the complexity theory (really a chaos theory) of _______ in DNA transcription and translation & the inability of the cells and organs to function together in response to the normal stresses of the environment. This results in adaptive dysfunction and organ derangements leading to organism disease as well as the normal process of aging and death. Helps explain associated neurological changes.

A

Catastrophic

accumulated mistakes

135
Q

Neuroendocrine theory states that the brain is ______ to stop producing needed hormonal factors.

A

programmed

136
Q

Extracellular degenerative theory states the accumulation of disease over time is due to ________

A

environmental factors.

137
Q

_____ factors of aging include diet, physical activity, and environmental pollutants.

A

modifiable

138
Q

Medical somatic (entire organism) death is defined in the medical field as permanent cessation of _______ as certified by healthcare provider (states have varying laws - some require secondary confirmation)

A

vital functions

139
Q

_________ somatic (entire organism) death is when the would has left the body.

A

Ecclesiastical

140
Q

_______ somatic death is presumed dead/disappearance for proven period.

A

legal

141
Q

The legal definition of the timing of death is when someone was last ____ alive.

A

seen

142
Q

_______ about the timing of death includes state of digestion, body heat, rigor, lividity, PM changes.

A

Ancillary evidence

143
Q

When somatic (entire organism) death occurs multiple changes take place and it is obvious there is no breathing or _____.

A

circulation

144
Q

_____ mortis is when the temperature drops 1-1.5 degrees F per hour, is 1/2 normal in 12 hours, then at 24 hours equals temp of the environment.

A

Algor

145
Q

____ mortis is when blood drains to dependent parts gives purple color, starts in 3 hours, gradual rise over the next 36 hours

A

Livor

146
Q

____ mortis involves muscle stiffening occurs within a few hours. Lack of ATP causes muscle stiffening since muscle relaxation is dependent on ATP. THen, muscle relaxation by 12-14 hours due to tissue liquefaction. As liquefaction progresses (postmortem autolysis) there is discoloration (hemoglobin degradation) & bloating/swelling (gases form due to bacterial anaerobic metabolism). Starts in 6 hours, peaks 12-24 hours, gone in 36 hours.

A

Rigor

147
Q

Tests of death are used to disprove catalepsy, sock, _____, etc.

A

overdose

148
Q

_____ tests include loss of movement, loss of reflexes (cornmeal, motor, pain), drying of cornea, softening of eyeballs, cessation of heart beat, no BP, no bleeding from arteries, cessation of respiratin, loss of body heat, PM lividity, rigor mortis, flat EEG, “railroad tracks” on retina.

A

clinical

149
Q

________ is when decomposition of vital part occurs, aka mummification.

A

absolute indication

150
Q

____ death is certified by health care provider, 80% of deaths. May be slow and expected (i.e. cancer), or sudden and unexpected (i.e. drowning, drug hypersensitivity anaphylaxis.

A

Natural

151
Q

_____ death is certified by ME or coroner. Includes homicide (murder, manslaughter, criminal negligence), trauma & injury (hidden or obvious).

A

Unnatural

152
Q

Death certification ascribes an immediate ____ of death as a consequence of disease.

A

cause

153
Q

State health departments keep and develop summary data, and compiled nationally by the ______.

A

National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS)

154
Q

Leading causes of death have changed since 1900 (_____ were #1 then). Now noninfectious chronic disease leader is (CVD & _____)

A

infectious diseases

cancer

155
Q

Underlying cause of death is the _______, without which life would have been prolonged the longest.

A

disease entity

156
Q

The ______ to an organism or individual cell’s response to injury or invasion.

A

immune response

157
Q

The three types of immune response

A

innate
acquired
passive

158
Q

_____ immunity is not directed at specific diseases, comprise general defenses.

A

innate

159
Q

Phagocytosis by WBC and tissue macrophases is an example of ____ immunity.

A

innate

160
Q

Stomach acid and digestive enzymes are an example of ____ immunity.

A

innate

161
Q

Skin barrier with low pH is an example of ____ immunity.

A

innate

162
Q

Blood chemicals that destroy toxins and bacteria are an example of ______ immunity.

A

innate

163
Q

Lysozyme: mucolytic polysaccharide that attacks and dissolves bacteria is an example of ____ immunity.

A

innate

164
Q

Basic polypeptides that inactivate some gram-positive bacteria are an example of ____ immunity.

A

innate

165
Q

Complement system that destroys bacteria is an example of ____ immunity.

A

innate

166
Q

Natural killer lymphocytes: recognize and destroy foreign cells, tumor cell, infected cells are an example of ____ immunity.

A

innate

167
Q

Eosinophils kill parasites by punching holes in their cell membrane are an example of ____ immunity.

A

innate

168
Q

innate immunity video

A

?

169
Q

______ immunity is a specific targeted immune response to antigens.

A

Acquired

170
Q

_______ are usually large molecules that share certain characteristics

A

antigens

171
Q

Bacterial cell walls and some toxins share certain characteristics and are examples of ______.

A

antigens

172
Q

Some smaller molecules combine with larger antigenic molecules can become antigenic with _______ exposure.

A

repeated

173
Q

Dust, animal dander and urushiol (poison ivy) are examples of smaller molecules that combined with larger antigenic molecules and become _____ after repeated exposure.

A

antigens

174
Q

______ are a specific type of white blood cell that originate from the “lymphoid” stem cell line - they are the basis of acquired immunity.

A

lymphocytes

175
Q

Primary lymphoid tissue is where the cells ______ and are differentiated to mature cells (bone marrow, thymus)

A

originate

176
Q

Secondary lymphoid tissue is where the activated cells reside for _____.

A

months to years

177
Q

____ immunity is made up of immune globulins (immunoglobulins, antibodies) given to you preformed by someone else.

A

passive

178
Q

A mother giving fetus immunoglobulins serves as immune system for first few months of infant life (maternal-fetal) is an example of ______.

A

passive immunity

179
Q

Injecting immunoglobulin (gamma globulin) to prophylaxis against viral infection after exposure is an example of _____ immunity.

A

passive

180
Q

The MPS ( Monocyte-Phagocyte) macrophage system is part of the ____ system. (phagocytosis by macrophages)

A

innate

181
Q

The MPS or Monocyte-Phagocyte (macrophage) system also interacts with teh system responsible for ______ immunity.

A

acquired

182
Q

White blood cells (WBC) called _____ migrate to tissues, take up residence there and become macrophages. It is the same cell, it just changed its name depending on where you find it. Monocytes are found in ______. Macrophages in _____.

A

monocytes
blood
tissues

183
Q

Most invading organisms are first phagocytized by tissue ______.

A

macrophages

184
Q

Interaction with lymphocytes involves processing the antigen and presenting it to the lymphocytes, which can then mount an _____ immune response.

A

acquired

185
Q

Macrophages also secrete activating substances (i.e. interleukin - 1) that promotes growth and reproduction of ______. Therefore, the lymphocytes are extemely dependent on these WBC.

A

lymphocytes

186
Q

The two types of acquired immunity

A

humoral (secretory) system

Cell mediated response

187
Q

The Humoral (Secretory) system has two parts

A

antibodies(imunoglobulins, Ig)

complement system

188
Q

In acquired immunity, in the ____ system, antibodies (immunoglobulins, Ig) are made by activated B-lymphocytes in response to a particular antigen.

A

humoral (secretory)

189
Q

In acquired immunity, in the humoral system, in the complement system a series of chemicals that respond to injury by creating an ______ response. They are found in blood and tissues, made by the _____.

A

inflammatory response

liver ???

190
Q

Another type of acquired immunity called cell mediated response is the cellular action of ____ in tissues. The action of other types of WBC (basophils, esoinophils, polymophonucelear cells and t-lymphocytes occur as well.

A

macrophages

191
Q

Lymphocytes are a type of ____.

A

white blood cell

192
Q

Two types of lymphocytes

A

B cells

T cells

193
Q

Primary lymphoid tissue is found in the bone marrow and the _____.

A

thymus

194
Q

The bone marrow is where the lymphocytes _______.

A

originate

195
Q

The thymus is where lymphocytes are processed to _____.

A

maturity

196
Q

The secondary lymphoid tissue is found in the spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, and Peyer’s patches (_______). Location of “memory” lymphocytes (B cells and T cells) that are committed to acting against a specific antigen.

A

small intestine

197
Q

______ are small “foreign” environmental proteins that are capable of stimulating an immune response.

A

antigens

198
Q

The liver and bone marrow process lymphocytes into B-cells (the B comes from the Bursa of Fabricius, in birds); this processing commits these cells to respond to certain ______. They then migrate to the __________ and are clone populations that can react to antigen that may be presented to them. The activation of B-cells into plasma cells means they are now making _______(Ab((immunoglobulin, Ig) proteins as a host response to foreign antigen.

A

antigens
secondary lymphoid tissue
antibody

199
Q

In the ____ immune response they manufacture immunoglobulins (Ig) (antibodies)(gammaglobulins).

A

primary

200
Q

In the primary immune response macrophage (WBC monocyte that has taken up residence in the tissues) engulfs antigen by phagocytosis and presents it to the B-cell (antigenic stimulus).______ become activated, turning into a plasma cell, which can now manufacture proteins called antibodies (immunoglobulins, gamma globulins) + primary response. All of the above activities (macrophage presentation of antigen, B-cell activation to plasma cell) require the presence of the t-lymphocete called ______.

A

B-cell

T helper cells (CD4 cells)

201
Q

There are ___ types of immunoglobulins

A

5

202
Q

The 5 types of immunoglobulins

A 
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgD
203
Q

The primary immunoglobulin response is ____, which is the acute phase serum that is drawn when patient first presents with symptoms.

A

IgM

204
Q

The secondary immunoglobulin response is ____.

A

IgG

205
Q

Convalescent phase serum that is drawn when a patient has recovered also indicates immunity, such as testing for _____ after vaccination.

A

immunity

206
Q

Allergic response triggers ______ immunoglobulins.

A

IgE

207
Q

Local (mucosal, secretory): immunoglobulin response is _____ in the tonsils & upper airways.

A

IgA

208
Q

Agglutination is when Ig molecules bind with antigen and cause _____ of bacterial organisms.

A

clumping

209
Q

Precipitation is when toxin drops out of solution ???

A

????

210
Q

______ is when the active site of the antigen is rendered harmless because it is covered up. (i.e. with viral infections

A

Neutralization

211
Q

Directly rupture cell membranes of invading organisms is referred to as _____.

A

lysis

212
Q

The antigen-antibody complex activation of inflammatory and complement systems: Ag-Ig complex activates the complement and ________ .

A

inflammatory systems

213
Q

Opsonization is the coating of antigen helps macrophages to phagocytize bacteria and antigens (note that for this reason, immunoglobulins are also called ______

A

opsonins

214
Q

Degranulation of mast cell by _____ occurs when there is a release of histamine (triggers inflammatory response) Every time you have an immune response you also trigger an _____.

A

IgE

inflammatory

451 - Pharmacology (6 decks)

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