Unit 1 from PPQs Flashcards

1
Q

amino acids in the membrane are hydrophobic/hydrophilic

A

Hydrophobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

amino acids out of the membrane are hydrophobic/hydrophilic

A

hydrophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

only target cells respond to a signal molecule because..

A

only target cells have receptor molecules for signalling molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is ensured by having only target cells having receptor molecules for signalling molecules

A

only target cells will respond to a signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

order of cell cycle stages

A

G1 - S - G2 - M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is p53 involved in

A

cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what protein is involved in cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, apoptosis

A

p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

structure of spindle fibres

A

spindle fibres are made of microtubules

spindle fibres are composed of hollow tubes made of tubulin

cell division requires remodelling of cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

spindle fibres in mitosis (4)

A

radiate from the centrosome

attach to chromosomes

spindle fibres contract

and separate chromatids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

function of NaK pump

A

maintaining osmotic balance

generation of ion concentration gradient for glucose symport

generation of ion concentration gradient in kidney tubules

Generates and maintains resting potential in neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what maintains osmotic balance

and

generates of ion concentration gradient for glucose symport, and maintenance of resting potential

A

function of NaK pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

role of ATP in altering the affinity of NaK pump for sodium ions

A

ATP binds to pump and conformational change of the pump occurs

This lowers the affinity of the pump for Na+ ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens when a competitive inhibitor binds to K+ attachment site on NaK pump

A

Prevent binding of K+ ions

Preventing de-phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can arise from a uncontrolled decrease in the rate of cell cycle

A

Degenerative disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can degenerative disease arise from

A

Uncontrolled decrease in the rate of cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mitosis phases in order

A

Prophase

Metaphase

Anaphase

Telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What forms photoreceptor proteins

A

Light sensitive molecule retinal and opsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

.

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is sensitivity achieved in cells

A

High degree of amplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does a high degree of amplification allow for

A

Light sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What extra wavelength are birds sensitive to

A

UV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does a hydrophobic hormone molecule cause an effect within target cell

A

The hormones diffuses through the cell membrane

It binds to receptors which switches transcription on/off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why can a signalling molecule have different effects in different tissues

A

Different tissues will have different responses to receptor binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why can a signalling molecule have different effects in different tissues

A

Different tissues will have different responses to receptor binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where are hydrophilic R groups of a soluable protein

A

Mostly at the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where are soluble protein found

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hydrophobic groups of insoluble proteins might do what

A

Cluster at centre of protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What may cluster at the centre of a protein in soluble proteins

A

Hydrophobic groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Membrane proteins can be what

A

Integral or peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What can be integral or peripheral

A

Membrane proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Some integral proteins are what

A

Transmembrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Example of transmembrane integral proteins

A

Channels

Transporters

Receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Channels

Transporters

Receptors

Are examples of..

A

Integral transmembrane proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

R group interactions in integral proteins

A

Hydrophobic R groups interact with hydrophobic region of membrane

Hydrophilic R groups interact with extraneous environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hydrophobic R groups interact with hydrophobic region of membrane

Hydrophilic R groups interact with extraneous environment

A

Integral membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

R group interactions of peripheral proteins

A

Hydrophilic R groups interacting with hydrophilic heads of phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Is the membrane hydrophobic or hydrophilic

A

Has hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What can’t cross the membrane

A

Polar substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What can cross the membrane

A

Non polar substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Oxygen, water and carbon dioxide can/came pass through the membrane

A

Can

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are needed for charged substances to pass the membrane

A

Protein channels, pumps, and transporters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What do transporter proteins do

A

Control ion concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of transport is channels

A

Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Transporter proteins changing

A

Change conformation to transport molecules across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What changes conformation to transport molecules across the membrane

A

Transporter proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Conformation change on active transport requires…

A

Energy from hydrolysis of ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are ligand gated channels opened/closed by

A

Binding of signal molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Voltage gated channels are controlled by what

A

Changes in ion concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

GLUT4 function

A

Transports glucose in fat cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

integral protein

A

found within membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

found within membrane

A

integral protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

the head of phospholipid is…

A

polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

the tail of phospholipid is…

A

non polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

peripheral proteins are found where

A

on the surface of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what part of phospholipids do integral proteins interact with

A

Hydrophilic head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

transmembrane

A

protein spans across the entire width of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

peripheral membrane proteins have what on their surface

A

hydrophilic R groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

how are peripheral proteins bound to the surface of membranes

A

mainly by ionic and hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

facilitated diffusion

A

passive transport of substances across the membrane through specific transmembrane proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

passive transport of substances across the membrane through specific transmembrane proteins

A

facilitated diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what allow for facilitated diffusion

A

channel proteins and transporter proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

channel proteins

A

multisubunit proteins with subunits arranged to form water filled pores that extend across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

multisubunit proteins with subunits arranged to form water filled pores that extend across the membrane

A

channel proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

how do transporter proteins work

A

bind to specific substances to be transported and undergo a conformational change to transfer molecule across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

bind to specific substances to be transported and undergo a conformational change to transfer molecule across the membrane

A

transporter proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

pump proteins use what transport

A

active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what do pump proteins require

A

energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

ATPases do what

A

hydrolyse ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what hydrolyse ATP

A

ATPases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what does the electrochemical gradient of a solute determine

A

the transport of the solute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

electrochemical gradient

A

concentration gradient and electrical potential gradient combine to form this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

membrane potential

A

when there is a difference in the electrical charge, created when there is a different between the two sides of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

membrane potential

A

when there is a difference in the electrical charge, created when there is a different between the two sides of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are the charges of inside and outside the cell?

A

net negative charge inside the cell

net positive charge outside the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what does the NaK pump in and out of the cell

A

3 sodium ions out of the cell

2 potassium ions into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

NaK pump steps (6)

A

the pump has a high affinity for sodium ions in the cell

binding occurs and the pump is phosphorylated by ATP

conformation of the protein changes. the affinity for sodium ions decreases, they are released out of the cell

potassium ions bind outside of the cell

dephosphorylation occurs and the conformation of the protein changes

potassium ions are brought into the cell and the original affinity is restored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how do multicellular organisms signal between cells

A

with extracellular signalling molecules

eg steroid hormones, peptide hormones, neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

receptor molecules/target cells

A

proteins with a binding site for a specific signalling molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what happens when a signalling molecule binds to a receptor

A

changes the conformation of the receptor, causing a response within the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

signalling molecules effect

A

may have different effects on different target cell types due to differences in the intracellular signalling molecules and pathways that are involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

hydrophobic signalling molecules and the membrane

A

diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayers of the membrane and bind to intracellular receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayers of the membrane and bind to intracellular receptors

A

hydrophobic signalling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what are hydrophobic signalling molecules receptors called

A

transcription factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

transcription factors

A

proteins that, when bound to DNA, can either stimulate or inhibit the initiation of transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

proteins that, when bound to DNA, can either stimulate or inhibit the initiation of transcription

A

transcription factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

examples of hydrophobic signalling molecules

A

oestrogen and testosterone, steroid hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

where to steroid hormones bind to

A

specific receptors in the cytosol or the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what happens when hydrophobic molecules bind to receptor

A

the hormone receptor complex moves to the nucleus where it binds to specific sites on DNA and affects gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

when does the hormone receptor complex moves to the nucleus where it binds to specific sites on DNA and affects gene expression

A

when the hormone binds to the receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

effect of hydrophobic signalling

A

binds to specific sites on DNA and affects gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

binds to specific sites on DNA and affects gene expression

A

hydrophobic signalling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what do hormone receptor complex bind to on DNA

A

specific DNA sequences called hormone response elements (HRE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what happens when hormone receptor complex binds to HREs

A

influences the rate of transcription with each steroid hormone affecting the gene expression of many different genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what influences the rate of transcription with each steroid hormone affecting the gene expression of many different genes

A

binding of hormone receptor complex to HRE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what do hydrophilic signalling molecules bind to

A

transmembrane receptors

do not enter the cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

transmembrane receptors

do not enter the cytosol

A

hydrophilic signalling molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

examples of hydrophilic signalling molecules

A

peptide hormones and neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

peptide hormones and neurotransmitters

A

hydrophilic signalling molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what happens when ligands bind to the extracellular face of transmembrane receptors

A

the receptors change conformation

the signal molecule does not enter the cell but the signal is transduced across the plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what do transmembrane receptors act as

A

signal transducers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

how do transmembrane receptors act as signal transducers

A

by converting the extracellular ligand binding event into a intracellular signals which alter the behaviour of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what do transduced hydrophilic signals often involve

A

G proteins or cascades of phosphorylation by kinase enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

G proteins or cascades of phosphorylation by kinase enzymes

A

transduced hydrophilic signals involve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

G proteins

A

relay signals from activated receptors (receptors that have bound to a signalling molecule) to target proteins such as enzymes and ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

relay signals from activated receptors (receptors that have bound to a signalling molecule) to target proteins such as enzymes and ion channels

A

G protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

phosphorylation cascades

A

one kinase activating the next in the sequence and so on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

one kinase activating the next in the sequence and so on

A

phosphorylation cascades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

insulin as an example of cascades of phosphorylation

A

the binding of the peptide hormone insulin to its receptor results in intracellular signalling cascades that triggers the recruitment of the GLUT4 glucose transporter proteins to the cell membrane of fat and muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what is diabetes caused by

A

type 1 - failure to produce insulin sufficiently

type 2 - loss of receptor function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

how to help with type 2 diabetes

A

exercise triggers recruitment of GLUT4

this can improve the uptake of glucose to fat and muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

treatment for type 1 diabetes

A

daily insulin injections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

nerve impulse

A

signal transmitted along a nerve fibre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

signal transmitted along a nerve fibre

A

nerve impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

resting membrane potential

A

no net flow of ions across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

no net flow of ions across the membrane

A

resting membrane potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what does the transmission if a nerve impulse require

A

changes in the membrane potential of the neurons plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

action potential

A

wave of electrical excitation along a neurons plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

wave of electrical excitation along a neurons plasma membrane

A

action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

depolarisation

A

sudden change in the membrane potential

usually from a relatively negative to positive internal charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

sudden change in the membrane potential

usually from a relatively negative to positive internal charge

A

depolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

why does depolarisation happen

A

entry of positive ions, triggering the opening of voltage gated sodium channels and further depolarisation occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

repolarisation

A

inactivation of the sodium channels and the opening of potassium channels restores the resting membrane potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

inactivation of the sodium channels and the opening of potassium channels restores the resting membrane potential

A

repolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

effect of neurotransmitters

A

triggers the opening of ligand gated ion channels at a synapse

ion movement occurs and there is a depolarisation between of the plasma membrane. if sufficient ion movement occurs, and the membrane is depolarised beyond a threshold value, the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels is triggered and sodium ions enter the cell down their electrochemical gradient

this leads to a rapid and large change in membrane potential. a short time after opening, sodium channels become inactivated. voltage gated potassium channels then open to allow potassium ions to move out of the cell and restore resting membrane potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

triggers the opening of ligand gated ion channels at a synapse

A

binding of neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what happens when ion movement occurs

A

there is depolarisation of plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

generation of action potential (5)

A

a stimulus starts the rapid change in voltage or action potential. this must reach above a threshold voltage to start membrane depolarisation

depolarisation caused by a rapid rise in membrane potential opening of the sodium channels in the cellular membrane. this results in a large influx of sodium ions

membrane repolarisation results from rapid sodium channel inactivation as well as a large efflux of potassium ions resulting from activated potassium channels

hyper polarisation - lowered membrane potential caused by the efflux of potassium ions and closing of potassium channels

resting state is when the membrane potential returns to resting voltage that occured before the stimulus occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

depolarisation of a patch of membrane causes what

A

neighbouring regions to depolarise and go through the same cycle as adjacent voltage gated sodium channels are opened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what happens when action potential reaches the end of the neuron

A

vesicles containing neurotransmitters to fuse with the membrane

the neurotransmitter is released and stimulate a response in a connecting cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

cytoskeleton

A

gives mechanical support and shape to cells

consist of different protein structures including microtubules which are found in all eukaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

gives mechanical support and shape to cells

consist of different protein structures including microtubules which are found in all eukaryotic cells

A

cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

microtubules

A

hollow cylinders composed of the protein tubulin

they radiate from the centrosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

hollow cylinders composed of the protein tubulin

they radiate from the centrosome

A

microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

what do microtubules control

A

the movement of membrane bound organelles and chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

what controls the movement of membrane bound organelles and chromosomes

A

microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what does cell division require

A

remodelling of the cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what do microtubules form from

A

the spindle fibres that are activate during cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what does the formation and breakdown of microtubules involve

A

polymerisation and depolymerisation of tubulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Hazard

A

Any source of potential damage, harm or adverse health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Any source of potential damage, harm or adverse health

A

Hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Risk

A

The likelihood of harm arising from exposure to a hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

The likelihood of harm arising from exposure to a hazard

A

Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Control measures examples

A

Appropriate handling techniques

Protective clothing and equipment

Aseptic techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Linear dilution

A

Range of dilutions that differ by an equal interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Range of dilutions that differ by an equal interval

A

Linear dilution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Log dilution

A

Range of dilutions that differ by a constant proportion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Range of dilutions that differ by a constant proportion

A

Log dilution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Linear dilution method

A

Different volumes of stock solutions added to different solvents

Each concentration is made individually and any measurement errors affects only one concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Different volumes of stock solutions added to different solvents

Each concentration is made individually and any measurement errors affects only one concentration

A

Linear dilution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Log dilution

A

Each dilution acts as the stock for the subsequent dilution

Earlier measurement errors are compounded in later dilutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Each dilution acts as the stock for the subsequent dilution

Earlier measurement errors are compounded in later dilutions

A

Log dilution method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Standard curve

A

Plot known measurements on a graph and use the line to determine an unknown value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Plot known measurements on a graph and use the line to determine an unknown value

A

Standard curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Buffer

A

Solution where adding acids or alkalis has a small effect on pH. This allows pH in a reaction mixture to be kept constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Solution where adding acids or alkalis has a small effect on pH. This allows pH in a reaction mixture to be kept constant

A

Buffer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Colorimeter use

A

Quantify concentration and turbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What quantifies concentration and turbidity

A

Colorimeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What to do before using colorimeter

A

Calibrate before use with a blank sample to provide a baseline reading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Calibrate before use with a blank sample to provide a baseline reading

A

Before using colorimeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

How does colorimeter work

A

Light is split into its component colours are filtered so there is one wavelength of light

This is passed through the sample solution where a detector picks up how much light has been absorbed or transmitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Light is split into its component colours are filtered so there is one wavelength of light

This is passed through the sample solution where a detector picks up how much light has been absorbed or transmitted

A

Colorimeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What can absorbance be used to determine

A

Determine concentration of a coloured solution using suitable wavelength filters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Determine concentration of a coloured solution using suitable wavelength filters

A

Using a colorimeters absorbance reading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What can a colorimeters percentage transmission be used to determine

A

Turbidity, such as cells in suspension

Higher transmission = less turbid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

How can you calculate turbidity

A

Measuring transmission with colorimeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What does a centrifuge do

A

Separate material according to density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What separates material according to density

A

Centrifuge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Supernatant

A

Less dense components remain in liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Less dense components remain in liquid

A

Supernatant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Pellet

A

More dense components stay here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

More dense components stay here

A

Pellet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What can chromatography separate based on

A

Substances such as amino acids and sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What can separate substances such as amino acids and sugars

A

Chromatography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

In chromatography, does the differing solubility in the solvent used determine

A

The speed each solute travels along the chromatogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

The speed each solute travels along the chromatogram is based on

A

The differing solubility in the solvent used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Paper chromatography overview

A

Simple process involving a strip of chromatography paper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Simple process involving a strip of chromatography paper

A

Paper chromatography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Thin layer chromatography overview

A

Thin layer of absorbent silica gel over a slide of glass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Advantages of TLC compared to paper chromatography

A

Runs faster

Gives better separations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Thin layer of absorbent silica gel over a slide of glass

A

Thin layer chromatography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Rf value calculation

A

Distance from origin to top of pigment / distance from origin to top of solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Distance from origin to top of pigment / distance from origin to top of solvent

A

Rf value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What is affinity chromatography used to separate

A

Proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Affinity chromatography (4)

A

A solid matrix or gel column is created with specific molecules (usually receptors) bound to the matrix or gel

Soluble target proteins in a mixture with a high affinity for these molecules become attached as the mixture passes down the column

Other non target molecules with a weaker affinity are washed out

Target proteins can then be removed from the receptors and retrieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

A solid matrix or gel column is created with specific molecules (usually receptors) bound to the matrix or gel

Soluble target proteins in a mixture with a high affinity for these molecules become attached as the mixture passes down the column

Other non target molecules with a weaker affinity are washed out

Target proteins can then be removed from the receptors and retrieved

A

Affinity chromatography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What can gel electrophoresis be used to separate

A

Proteins and nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What separates proteins and nucleic acids

A

Gel electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Gel electrophoresis method

A

Charged macromolecules move through an electric field applied to a gel matrix

Samples are loaded into wells in a gel and an electric current is ran through it. Charged molecules will love towards the opposite charge.

Smaller molecules travel faster than larger molecules so will travel further

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

two forms of gel electrophoresis

A

native gel

SDS PAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

what does native gel separate based on

A

molecules by shape, size and charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

separating molecules by shape, size and charge

A

native gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

what does SDS page separate based on

A

size alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

what separates molecules by size alone

A

SDS page gel electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

effect of native gel on molecule

A

they do not denature the molecule

so it can be separated based on shape, size and charge

196
Q

what gel electrophoresis doesn’t denature the protein

A

native gel

197
Q

how does SDS PAGE gel electrophoresis work

A

gives all molecules an equally negative charge and denatures them

198
Q

what gives all molecules an equally negative charge and denatures them

A

SDS PAGE gel electrophoresis

199
Q

isoelectric point (IEP)

A

the pH at which a soluble protein has no net charge and will precipitate out of a solution

200
Q

the pH at which a soluble protein has no net charge and will precipitate out of a solution

201
Q

separating based on IEP

A

if a solution is buffered to a specific pH, only the protein(s) that have an IEP of that pH will precipitate.

202
Q

if a solution is buffered to a specific pH, only the protein(s) that have an IEP of that pH will precipitate.

A

separating proteins based on IEP

203
Q

what can IEP be used alongside

A

gel electrophoresis

204
Q

using IEP and gel electrophoresis together

A

proteins migrate towards the charges until they reach an area with the pH of their IEP

a protein stops migrating through the gel at its IEP in the pH gradient because it has no net charge

205
Q

proteins migrate towards the charges until they reach an area with the pH of their IEP

a protein stops migrating through the gel at its IEP in the pH gradient because it has no net charge

A

using IEP and gel electrophoresis together

206
Q

immunoassay technique

A

used to detect and identify specific antibodies

207
Q

used to detect and identify specific antibodies

A

immunoassay techniques

208
Q

what do immunoassay techniques use

A

stocks of antibodies with the same specificity, known as monoclonal antibodies

209
Q

stocks of antibodies with the same specificity

A

monoclonal antibodies

210
Q

what is an antibody specific to the protein antigen linked to

A

a chemical label

211
Q

what is a chemical label linked to

A

an antibody specific to the protein antigen

212
Q

what is a chemical label

A

often a reporter enzyme producing a colour change but chemiluminescence, fluorescence and other reporters can be used

213
Q

often a reporter enzyme producing a colour change but chemiluminescence, fluorescence and other reporters can be used

A

chemical label

214
Q

what does an immunoassay using a specific antigen detect the presence of

A

antibodies to test diseases

215
Q

what does each antibody bind to

A

a specific antigen

216
Q

what binds to a specific antigen

217
Q

each _____ binds to a __________

antigen/antibody, antigen/antibody

A

each antibody binds to a specific antigen

218
Q

what can antibodies be used for in immunoassay techniques

A

detecting a target antigen

219
Q

antigens and antibodies in immunoassay techniques

A

antibodies can be used to detect a target antigen

220
Q

ELISA

A

analytical technique which uses antibodies to detect the presence of an antigen in a solution

221
Q

analytical technique which uses antibodies to detect the presence of an antigen in a solution

222
Q

when is western blotting used

A

after SDS PAGE gel electrophoresis

223
Q

what can you do after SDS PAGE gel electrophoresis

A

western blotting

224
Q

western blotting method (2)

A

the separated proteins from the gel are transferred onto a solid medium

the proteins can be identified using specification antibodies that have reporter enzymes attached

225
Q

the separated proteins from the gel are transferred onto a solid medium

the proteins can be identified using specification antibodies that have reporter enzymes attached

A

western blotting method

226
Q

bright field microscopy

A

used to observe whole organisms, parts of organisms, or thin sections of dissected tissue and individual cells

227
Q

used to observe whole organisms, parts of organisms, or thin sections of dissected tissue and individual cells

A

bright field microscopy

228
Q

thickness of tissue when doing bright field microscopy

A

must be thin enough for light to pass through

229
Q

fluorescence microscopy

A

uses specific fluorescent labels to bind to, and visualise, certain molecules or structures within cells or tissues

230
Q

uses specific fluorescent labels to bind to, and visualise, certain molecules or structures within cells or tissues

A

fluorescence microscopy

231
Q

purpose of aseptic technique

A

eliminate unwanted microbial contaminants when culturing microorganisms or cells

232
Q

what eliminates unwanted microbial contaminants when culturing microorganisms or cells

A

aseptic technique

233
Q

what does aseptic technique involve

A

the sterilisation of equipment and culture media by heat or chemical means

and

subsequent exclusion of microbial contaminants

234
Q

what can a microbial culture be started with

A

an inoculum of microbial cells on an agar medium

or

in a broth with suitable nutrients

235
Q

what can be started with…

an inoculum of microbial cells on an agar medium

or

in a broth with suitable nutrients

A

a microbial culture

236
Q

what must animal cells have added to their growth medium

A

growth factors from serum

237
Q

growth factors

A

proteins that promote cell growth and proliferation

238
Q

proteins that promote cell growth and proliferation

A

growth factors

239
Q

what cells need growth factors

A

animal cells

240
Q

two forms of cells

A

primary cell lines

tumour cell lines

241
Q

primary cell lines

A

can divide a limited number of times

242
Q

can divide a limited number of times

A

primary cell lines

243
Q

tumour cell lines

A

can preform unlimited divisions

244
Q

can preform unlimited divisions

A

tumour cell lines

245
Q

what does plating out a liquid microbial culture onto solid media allow for

A

the number of colony forming units to be counted and tue density of cells in the culture to be estimated

246
Q

what allows for number of colony forming units to be counted and tue density of cells in the culture to be estimated

A

plating out a liquid microbial culture on solid media

247
Q

what is often needed when counting cells

A

serial dilution

248
Q

what does serial dilution allow for

A

a suitable colony count

249
Q

what is a haemocytometer used for

A

to estimate the cell numbers in a liquid culture

250
Q

what is used to estimate the cell numbers in a liquid culture

A

haemocytometer

251
Q

what does total cell count count

A

living and dead cells

252
Q

what is required to identify and count viable cells

A

vital staining

253
Q

function of vital staining

A

to identify and count viable cells

254
Q

viable meaning

255
Q

how does vital staining work

A

functional cell membranes prevent dyes getting through so only dead cells become coloured

256
Q

viable cell count meaning

A

number of living cells

257
Q

genome

A

total genetic material in a cell

258
Q

total genetic material in a cell

259
Q

peoteome

A

entire series of proteins expressed by a genome

260
Q

entire series of proteins expressed by a genome

261
Q

why is the proteome greater than the genome

A

more than one protein can be produced from a single gene due to alternative RNA splicing

262
Q

the _________ is larger than the _________ due to alternative RNA splicing

A

proteome, genome

263
Q

in what organism is the the proteome larger than the genome

A

eukaryotes

264
Q

non coding RNA genes

A

genes that do not code for proteins

265
Q

genes that do not code for proteins

A

non coding RNA genes

266
Q

what happens to non coding RNA genes

A

they are transcribed to produce..
* tRNA
* rRNA
* RNA molecules that control the expression of other genes

267
Q

what are transcribed to produce..
* tRNA
* rRNA
* RNA molecules that control the expression of other genes

A

non coding RNA genes

268
Q

factors affecting protein expression

A
  • metabolic activity of the cell
  • cellular stress
  • response to signalling molecules
  • diseased vs healthy cells
269
Q
  • metabolic activity of the cell
  • cellular stress
  • response to signalling molecules
  • diseased vs healthy cells
A

factors affecting protein expression

270
Q

what do eukaryotic cells have which increase the total area of the membrane

A

system of internal membranes

271
Q

what does a system of internal membranes do

A

increase the total area of the membrane

272
Q

what cells have a system of internal membranes

A

eukaryotic

273
Q

eukaryotes surface area to volume ratio

A

relatively small surface area to volume ratio

274
Q

why do eukaryotes have a small surface area to volume ratio

A

due to their size

275
Q

problem with plasma membrane of eukaryotic cells

A

too small an area to carry out all the vital functions carried out by membranes

276
Q

endoplasmic reticulum

A

forms a network of membrane tubules continuous with the nuclear membrane

277
Q

forms a network of membrane tubules continuous with the nuclear membrane

A

endoplasmic reticulum

278
Q

golgi apparatus

A

series of flattened membrane discs. proteins from the ER are packaged and processed here

279
Q

series of flattened membrane discs. proteins from the ER are packaged and processed here

A

golgi apparatus

280
Q

lysosomes

A

membrane-bound organelles containing a variety of hydrolases that digest proteins, lipids, nucleic acids and carbohydrates

281
Q

membrane-bound organelles containing a variety of hydrolases that digest proteins, lipids, nucleic acids and carbohydrates

282
Q

vesicles

A

transport materials between membrane compartments

283
Q

transport materials between membrane compartments

284
Q

what are membranes made up of

A

lipids and proteins

285
Q

where are lipids and proteins synthesised

A

endoplasmic reticulum

286
Q

rough endoplasmic reticulum ribosomes

A

has ribosomes on its cytosolic face

287
Q

has ribosomes on its cytosolic face

288
Q

smooth endoplasmic reticulum ribosomes

A

lacks ribosomes

289
Q

ER that lacks ribosomes

290
Q

where are lipids synthesised

A

the SER, and then inserted into its membrane

291
Q

where does the synthesis of all proteins begin

A

in cytosolic ribosomes

292
Q

whats synthesis begins in the cytosolic ribosomes

A

all proteins

293
Q

where are cytosolic ribosomes

A

in the cytoplasm, not attached to the ER

294
Q

synthesis of cytosolic proteins (3)

A
  • begins in cytosolic ribosomes
  • is completed in the cytosolic ribosomes
  • the proteins remain in the cytosol
295
Q
  • begins in cytosolic ribosomes
  • is completed in the cytosolic ribosomes
  • the proteins remain in the cytosol
A

synthesis of cytosolic proteins

296
Q

cytosol

A

liquid part of the cytoplasm

297
Q

liquid part of the cytoplasm

298
Q

synthesis of transmembrane proteins (5)

A
  • begins at the cytosolic ribosomes
  • transmembrane proteins carry a signal sequence which halts translation
  • this signal directs the ribosome synthesising the protein to dock with the ER to form the RER
  • translation continues after docking and the protein is inserted into the membrane of the ER
  • once the proteins are in the ER, they are transported by vesicles that bud off from the ER and fuse with the golgi apparatus
299
Q
  • begins at the cytosolic ribosomes
  • transmembrane proteins carry a signal sequence which halts translation
  • this signal directs the ribosome synthesising the protein to dock with the ER to form the RER
  • translation continues after docking and the protein is inserted into the membrane of the ER
  • once the proteins are in the ER, they are transported by vesicles that bud off from the ER and fuse with the golgi apparatus
A

synthesis of transmembrane proteins

300
Q

how do proteins move around

A

move through golgi discs in vesicles that bud off from one disc to fuse with the next in the stack

301
Q

signal sequence

A

short stretch of amino acids at one end of the polypeptide that determines the eventual location of a protein in a cell

302
Q

short stretch of amino acids at one end of the polypeptide that determines the eventual location of a protein in a cell

A

signal sequence

303
Q

enzymes in proteins becoming carbohydrates

A

enzymes catalyse the addition of various sugars in multiple steps to form carbohydrates

304
Q

what happens to proteins as they move through the golgi

A

post translational modifications

305
Q

when do proteins undergo post translational modifications

A

when they move through the golgi

306
Q

major modification

A

addition of carbohydrate groups

307
Q

addition of carbohydrate groups

A

major modification

308
Q

vesicles that leave the golgi…

A

take proteins to the plasma membrane and lysosomes

309
Q

movement of vesicles

A

they move along microtubules to other membranes and fuse with them within the cell

310
Q

they move along microtubules to other membranes and fuse with them within the cell

311
Q

examples of secreted proteins

A

peptide hormones and digestive enzymes

312
Q

peptide hormones and digestive enzymes

A

secreted proteins

313
Q

what happens to secreted proteins in the secretory pathway (4)

A
  • translated in ribosomes on the RER and enter its lumen
  • the proteins move through the golgi apparatus and are then packaged into secretory vesicles
  • these vesicles move to and fuse with the plasma membrane, releasing the protein out of the cell
  • many secreted proteins are synthesised as inactive precursors and require proteolytic cleavage to produce proteins
314
Q
  • translated in ribosomes on the RER and enter its lumen
  • the proteins move through the golgi apparatus and are then packaged into secretory vesicles
  • these vesicles move to and fuse with the plasma membrane, releasing the protein out of the cell
  • many secreted proteins are synthesised as inactive precursors and require proteolytic cleavage to produce proteins
A

secretory proteins in the secretory pathway

315
Q

what is proteolytic cleavage

A

a form of post translational modification

316
Q

example of protein that requires proteolytic cleavage

A

digestive enzymes

317
Q

proteins are monomers/polymers

318
Q

amino acid sequence determines what

A

protein structure

319
Q

what are amino acids linked by

A

peptide bonds

320
Q

what are linked by peptide bonds

A

amino acids

321
Q

peptide bond

322
Q

what is an amino acid made up of

A
  • two functional groups:

amine (NH2)
carboxyl (COOH)

  • variable region called an R group
323
Q
  • two functional groups:

amine (NH2)
carboxyl (COOH)

  • variable region called an R group
A

amino acid

324
Q

basic R groups

A

amine group (NH2)

325
Q

amine group (NH2) property

326
Q

acidic R group

A

carboxyl (COOH)

327
Q

carboxyl (COOH) property

328
Q

polar R group

A

carbonyl (CO)

hydroxyl (OH)

amine (NH)

329
Q

property of:

carbonyl (CO)

hydroxyl (OH)

amine (NH)

330
Q

hydrophobic R group

A

hydrocarbon group (CH3)

331
Q

hydrocarbon group (CH3) property

A

hydrophobic

332
Q

basic R groups are positively/negatively charged

333
Q

acidic R groups are positively/negatively charged

A

negatively

334
Q

4 structures of protein

A

primary structure

secondary structure

tertiary structure

quaternary structure

335
Q

primary structure

secondary structure

tertiary structure

quaternary structure

A

four structures of a protein

336
Q

primary structure

A

sequence in which amino acids are synthesised into the polypeptide

337
Q

sequence in which amino acids are synthesised into the polypeptide

A

primary structure

338
Q

secondary structure of proteins

A

hydrogen bonding along the backbone of the protein results in regions of secondary structure

(alpha helices, parallel or anti parallel beta-pleated sheets, or turns)

339
Q

hydrogen bonding along the backbone of the protein results in regions of secondary structure

(alpha helices, parallel or anti parallel beta-pleated sheets, or turns)

A

secondary structure of proteins

340
Q

tertiary structure of proteins

A

polypeptide folds into a tertiary structure

this conformation is stabilised by interactions between R groups

341
Q

polypeptide folds into a tertiary structure

this conformation is stabilised by interactions between R groups

A

tertiary structure of proteins

342
Q

R group interactions

A
  • hydrophobic interactions
  • ionic bonds
  • LDFs
  • hydrogen bonds
  • disulfide bridge
343
Q
  • hydrophobic interactions
  • ionic bonds
  • LDFs
  • hydrogen bonds
  • disulfide bridge
A

R group interactions

344
Q

quaternary structure of proteins

A

this exists in proteins with two or more connected polypeptide subunits. it describes the spatial arrangement of the subunits

345
Q

this exists in proteins with two or more connected polypeptide subunits. it describes the spatial arrangement of the subunits

A

quaternary structure

346
Q

effect of increasing temperature on R group interactions

A

disrupts the interactions that hold the protein in shape

the protein begins to unfold and eventually becomes denatured

347
Q

disrupts the interactions that hold the protein in shape

the protein begins to unfold and eventually becomes denatured

A

effect of increasing temperature on R group interactions

348
Q

effect of changing pH on R group interactions

A

the charges of acidic and basic R groups are affected by pH

as pH increases or decreases from optimum, the normal ionic interactions between charged groups are lost

this gradually changes the conformation of the protein until it becomes denatured

349
Q

the charges of acidic and basic R groups are affected by pH

as pH increases or decreases from optimum, the normal ionic interactions between charged groups are lost

this gradually changes the conformation of the protein until it becomes denatured

A

effect of pH on R group interactions

350
Q

ligand

A

a substance that binds to a protein

351
Q

a substance that binds to a protein

352
Q

R groups and ligands

A

R groups not involved in protein folding can allow binding to ligands

353
Q

what can ligands bind to on proteins

A

R groups not involved in protein folding

354
Q

ligand binding sites on proteins

A

binding sites have complementary shape and chemistry to the ligand

355
Q

what happens when a ligand binds to a protein binding site

A

conformation of the protein changes which causes a functional change in the protein

356
Q

binding of what causes the conformation of the protein to change which causes a functional change in the protein

357
Q

what do allosteric interactions occur between

A

spatially distinct sites of proteins

358
Q

what occurs between spatially distinct sites of proteins

A

allosteric interactions

359
Q

what do many allosteric proteins consist of

A

multiple subunits (quaternary structure)

360
Q

what happens when a substance molecule binds to one site of an allosteric enzyme

A

increases the affinity of the other active sites for binding if subsequent substrate molecules

361
Q

what increases the affinity of the other active sites for binding if subsequent substrate molecules

A

the binding of a substrate molecule to one active site of an allosteric enzyme

362
Q

allosteric proteins with multiple subunits show what

A

cooperativity in binding

changes in binding at one subunit alters the affinity of the remaining subunits

363
Q

what proteins show cooperativity in binding

A

allosteric proteins

364
Q

allosteric enzymes have what

A

allosteric site

365
Q

what do modulators regulate

A

the activity of the enzyme

366
Q

what do modulators bind to

A

allosteric site of allosteric enzyme

367
Q

what regulate the activity of enzymes by binding to the allosteric site

A

modulators

368
Q

what do positive modulators do

A

increase the enzymes affinity for the substrate

369
Q

what modulators increase the enzymes affinity for the substrate

A

positive modulators

370
Q

what do negative modulators do

A

decreases the enzymes affinity for the substrate

371
Q

what modulators decreases the enzymes affinity for the substrate

A

negative modulators

372
Q

haemoglobin case study for allosteric enzyme

A

the binding and release of of oxygen at one subunit alters the affinity of the remaining subunits for oxygen

373
Q

oxygen dissociation curve

A

at low temperatures concentrations at subunits on haemoglobin are tight together and it is difficult for oxygen to be absorbed

once one oxygen molecule binds, the structure of haemoglobin relaxed and it is easier to bind to the other subunits

374
Q

effect of decrease in pH on haemoglobin

A

lowers the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, so the binding of oxygen is reduced

375
Q

effect of increase in temperature on haemoglobin

A

lowers the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, so the binding of oxygen is reduced

376
Q

what lowers the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, so the binding of oxygen is reduced

A

decrease in pH or increase in temperature

377
Q

what can cause reversible conformational changes in proteins

A

addition or removal of phosphate

378
Q

what does the addition or removal of phosphate to a protein

A

reversible conformational changes in proteins

379
Q

what is the addition or removal of phosphate from a protein

A

a common post translational modification

380
Q

how to make a protein from inactive to active

A

add phosphate group

381
Q

how to make a protein from active to inactive

A

remove phosphate

382
Q

what did kinase enzymes do

A

catalyse the transfer of a phosphate group to other proteins

the terminal phosphate of ATP is transferred to specific R groups in the protein

inactive -> active

383
Q

what enzyme catalyses the transfer of a phosphate group to other proteins

the terminal phosphate of ATP is transferred to specific R groups in the protein

384
Q

what do phosphatase enzymes do

A

catalyse the removal of a phosphate from a protein and add it to ADP, producing ATP

active -> inactive

385
Q

what enzyme catalyses the removal of a phosphate from a protein and add it to ADP, producing ATP

active -> inactive

A

phosphatase

386
Q

phosphorylation affect on protein

A

brings about conformational changes which can affect the activity of a protein

387
Q

retina

A

area within the eye that detects light and contains two types of photoreceptor cells, rod cells and cone cells

388
Q

area within the eye that detects light and contains two types of photoreceptor cells, rod cells and cone cells

389
Q

rod cells

A

functions in dim light but does not allow colour perception

390
Q

functions in dim light but does not allow colour perception

391
Q

cone cells

A

responsible for colour vision and only function in bright light

392
Q

responsible for colour vision and only function in bright light

A

cone cells

393
Q

retinal and opsin combine to form what..

A

the photoreceptors of the eye, rhodopsin

394
Q

retinal

A

light sensitive molecule

395
Q

light sensitive molecule

396
Q

opsin

A

membrane protein

397
Q

membrane protein in the eye

398
Q

retinal-opsin complex name in rod cells

399
Q

in what cells is the retinal-opsin complex called rhodopsin

400
Q

what does retinal do

A

absorbs a photon of light

401
Q

what happens when retinal absorbs a photon of light

A

rhodopsin changes conformation to photoexcited rhodopsin

402
Q

what happens when rhodopsin changes conformation to photoexcited rhodopsin

A

a cascade of proteins amplifies the signal

403
Q

what happens when rhodopsin changes conformation to photoexcited rhodopsin

A

a cascade of proteins amplifies the signal

404
Q

what happens when photoexcited rhodopsin activates a cascade

A

photoexcited rhodopsin activates a G protein called transducon which activates the enzyme phosphodiesterase (PDE)

405
Q

what happens when retinal absorbs a photon of light (5)

A
  • rhodopsin changes conformation to photoexcited rhodopsin. a cascade of proteins amplifies the signal
  • rhodopsin rhodopsin activates a G protein called transducon which activates the enzyme phosphodiesterase (PDE)
  • a single photoexcited molecule activates hundreds of molecules of G protein. each activated G protein activates one molecule of PDE. PDE catalyses the hydrolysis of a molecule called cyclic GMP (cGMP)
  • each active PDE molecule breaks down thousands of cGMP per second. the reduction in cGMP concentration (as a result of its hydrolysis) affects the function of ion channels in the membrane of rod cells
  • this results in the closure of ion channels in the membrane of the rod cells, which triggers nerve impulse in neurons in the retina
406
Q

in rod cells, a high degree of amplification results in what

A

rod cells being able to respond to low intensities of light

407
Q

what means rod cells are able to respond to low intensities of light

A

a very high degree of amplification

408
Q

different photoreceptor proteins in cone cells

A

different forms of opsin combine with retinal to give different photoreceptor proteins, each with a maximal sensitivity to specific wavelengths : red, green, blue, or UV

409
Q

cytoskeleton function

A

gives mechanical support and shape to cells

410
Q

where do microtubules come from t

A

they radiate from the microtubule organising centre (MTOC) / centrosome

411
Q

what radiate from the microtubule organising centre (MTOC) / centrosome

A

microtubules

412
Q

what do microtubules form in cell division

A

spindle fibres

413
Q

cytoskeleton must to what for cell division

414
Q

the formation and breakdown of microtubules involves what

A

the polymerisation and depolarisation of tubulin

415
Q

what involves the polymerisation and depolarisation of tubulin

A

the formation and breakdown of microtubules

416
Q

what does the cell cycle consist of

A
  • interphase
  • mitotic (M) phase
417
Q

what consists of..

  • interphase
  • mitotic (M) phase
A

cell cycle

418
Q

interphase

A

involves growth and DNA synthesis including:

  • G1 (growth)
  • S (DNA replication)
  • G2 (further growth)
419
Q

mitotic (M) phase

A

involves the process of mitosis and cytokinesis

420
Q

mitotic (M) phase

A

involves the process of mitosis and cytokinesis

421
Q

involves the process of mitosis and cytokinesis

A

mitotic (M) phase

422
Q

mitosis definition

A

the chromosomal material is separated by spindle microtubules

423
Q

the chromosomal material is separated by spindle microtubules

424
Q

cytokinesis

A

the cytoplasm is separated into two daughter cells

425
Q

the cytoplasm is separated into two daughter cells

A

cytokinesis

426
Q

mitosis acronym

427
Q

prophase

A

DNA condenses into chromosomes, each consisting of two sister chromatids

nuclear membrane breaks down

428
Q

DNA condenses into chromosomes, each consisting of two sister chromatids

nuclear membrane breaks down

429
Q

microtubules in prophase

A

spindle microtubules extend from the MTOC by polymerisation and attach to chromosomes via their kinetochores in the centromere region

430
Q

spindle microtubules extend from the MTOC by polymerisation and attach to chromosomes via their kinetochores in the centromere region

431
Q

metaphase

A

chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate (equator of the spindle)

432
Q

chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate (equator of the spindle)

433
Q

anaphase

A

spindle microtubules shorten by depolymerisation

sister chromatids are separated and chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles

434
Q

spindle microtubules shorten by depolymerisation

sister chromatids are separated and chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles

435
Q

telophase

A

chromosomes decondense and nuclear membrane forms around each set of chromosomes

436
Q

chromosomes decondense and nuclear membrane forms around each set of chromosomes

437
Q

Polymerisation of tubulin causes…

A

Microtubules to grow

438
Q

what causes microtubules to grow

A

Polymerisation of tubulin

439
Q

Depolymerisation of tubulin causes…

A

Shrinkage of microtubules

440
Q

What causes the shrinkage of microtubules

A

Depolymerisation of tubulin

441
Q

G1

A

Growth phase

442
Q

Growth phase

443
Q

S phase

A

DNA is replicated

444
Q

Phase when DNA is replicated

445
Q

G2 phase

A

Further growth phase

446
Q

Further growth phase

447
Q

Checkpoints in cell cycle

A

G0, G1, G2, and metaphase

448
Q

G0, G1, G2, and metaphase

A

Checkpoints in cell cycle

449
Q

Checkpoints definition

A

Mechanisms within the cell that assess its condition during the cell cycle and hand progression to the next phase unless certain requirements are met

450
Q

Mechanisms within the cell that assess its condition during the cell cycle and hand progression to the next phase unless certain requirements are met Mechanisms within the cell that assess its condition during the cell cycle and hand progression to the next phase unless certain requirements are met

A

Checkpoints

451
Q

G0 phase

A
  • Resting phase
  • some cells go here temporarily (lack of resources)
  • some cells are always in this phase and don’t divide
452
Q
  • Resting phase
  • some cells go here temporarily (lack of resources)
  • some cells are always in this phase and don’t divide
453
Q

Why would cells enter the G0 phase

A

If not enough cyclin is produced

454
Q

What happens if not enough cyclin is produced

A

Cells may enter the G0 phase

455
Q

G1 checkpoint

A
  • occurs towards the end of G1 and the size of the cell is checked to confirm that there is sufficient cell mass for daughter cells to be produced
  • dna damage monitored and damage can trigger the activation of several proteins, including p53
  • cyclin proteins that accumulate during cell growth are involved in regulating the cell cycle
  • cyclins combine with and activate cyclin-dependent kinases (CDK’s). Active cyclin-CDK complexes phosphorylate proteins that regulate the progression through the cell cycle. If sufficient phosphorylation is reached, progression occurs
  • retinoblastoma protein (Rb) acts as a tumour suppressor by inhibiting the transcription of genes that code for proteins needed for DNA replication
  • cells don’t enter the S phase if Rb is unphosphorylated, so they don’t undergo DNA replication. They can’t progress to the M phase to undergo cell division. Thus, Rb acts as a tumour suppressor
  • Cyclins build up and phosphorylation by cyclin-CDK inhibits Rb, which allows transcription of the genes that code for proteins needed for DNA replication. Cells progress from G1 to S phase where replication occurs
456
Q
  • occurs towards the end of G1 and the size of the cell is checked to confirm that there is sufficient cell mass for daughter cells to be produced
  • dna damage monitored and damage can trigger the activation of several proteins, including p53
  • cyclin proteins that accumulate during cell growth are involved in regulating the cell cycle
  • cyclins combine with and activate cyclin-dependent kinases (CDK’s). Active cyclin-CDK complexes phosphorylated proteins that regulate the progression through the cell cycle. If sufficient phosphorylation is reached, progression occurs
  • retinoblastoma protein (Rb) acts as a tumour suppressor by inhibiting the transcription of genes that code for proteins needed for DNA replication
  • cells don’t enter the S phase if Rb is unphosphorylated, so they don’t undergo DNA replication. They can’t progress to the M phase to undergo cell division. Thus, Rb acts as a tumour suppressor

Cyclins build up and phosphorylation by G1 cyclin-CDK inhibits the Rb protein, which allows transcription of the genes that code for proteins needed for DNA replication. Cells progress from G1 to S phase where replication occurs

A

G1 checkpoint

457
Q

p53 function

A

Can stimulate DNA repair, arrest the cell cycle, or cause cell death

458
Q

Can stimulate DNA repair, arrest the cell cycle, or cause cell death

459
Q

G2 checkpoint

A
  • The success of DNA replication and any damage to DNA is assessed
  • From here, cells progress into the M phase, where mitosis occurs
460
Q
  • The success of DNA replication and any damage to DNA is assessed
  • From here, cells progress into the M phase, where mitosis occurs
A

G2 checkpoint

461
Q

Metaphase checkpoint

A
  • a metaphase checkpoint controls progression from metaphase to anaphase
  • at the checkpoint, progression is halted until the chromosomes are aligned correctly on the metaphase plate and attached to the spindle microtubules
  • this checkpoint controls entry to anaphase
462
Q
  • a metaphase checkpoint controls progression from metaphase to anaphase
  • at the checkpoint, progression is halted until the chromosomes are aligned correctly on the metaphase plate and attached to the spindle microtubules
  • this checkpoint controls entry to anaphase
A

Metaphase checkpoint

463
Q

What does an uncontrolled increase increase in the rate of cell cycle cause

A

May result in tumour formation

464
Q

Proto-oncogene as example of tumour

A

Proto-oncogene is a normal gene, usually involved in the control of cell growth or division, that can mutate not form a tumour-promoting oncogene

465
Q

What can cause a degenerative disease

A

An uncontrolled reduction in the rate of cell cycle

466
Q

What does an uncontrolled reduction in the rate of cell cycle cause

A

Degenerative disease

467
Q

Alternation in the normal control of cell cycle is thought to lead to what

A

Expression of certain proteins associated with Alzheimer’s disease, eventually resulting in neuronal cell death

468
Q

Apoptosis

A

Programmed cell death, which can occur during normal growth and development, resulting in the removal of old or damaged cells or during metamorphosis in certain species

469
Q

Programmed cell death, which can occur during normal growth and development, resulting in the removal of old or damaged cells or during metamorphosis in certain species

470
Q

What can apoptosis be used for

A

Killing cells that have started to divide in an uncontrolled way during tumour formation

471
Q

What is apoptosis triggered by

A

Cell death signals, which can be external or internal

471
Q

What can cell death signals be

A
  • external
  • internal
472
Q

External cell death signals

A

The production of death signal molecules from lymphocytes

External death signal molecules bind to surface receptor protein and trigger a protein cascade within the cytoplasm

472
Q

The production of death signal molecules from lymphocytes

External death signal molecules bind to surface receptor protein and trigger a protein cascade within the cytoplasm

A

External cell death signals

472
Q

Internal cell death signals

A

DNA damage is an example of internal death signal or lack of cell growth factors

An internal death signal resulting from DNA damage causes activation of p53 rumour-suppressor protein

472
Q

DNA damage is an example of internal death signal or lack of cell growth factors

An internal death signal resulting from DNA damage causes activation of p53 rumour-suppressor protein

A

Internal death cell signals

473
Q

What do death signals result from

A

The activation of protease enzymes called caspases, which act in cascades to cause the destruction of the cell

473
Q

What happens when there is activation of protease enzymes - caspases, which act in cascades to cause the destruction of the cell

A

Death signals

474
Q

When might cells initiate apoptosis

A

In absence of growth factors

474
Q

What would cells do in absence of growth factors

A

Initiate apoptosis

474
Q

Extracellular space is hydrophilic/hydrophobic

A

Hydrophilic

476
Q

Polarity of inside the membrane

477
Q

Polarity of membrane surface

478
Q

What do all types of death signals results in

A

The activation of caspases (type of protease enzyme) that cause the destruction of the cell