Unit 1 -Cancer + Eyes Flashcards

1
Q

what is cancer

A

uncontrolled cell growth (proliferation) it is able to develop anywhere, effects all ages, sexes, ethinic groups, increased risk as you age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hyperplasia

A

multiplication of cells due to increased cell division. Cell that normally die do not due to enzyme telomerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Enzyme Telomerase

A

an enzyme that helps maintain the length of telomeres which are protective caps at the end of chromosomes. They shorten each time a cell divides and when the become too short the cell stops dividing or dies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Metaplasia

A

The cell looks normal. Not the type of cells that are normally found in that tissue or area. A mature cell is replaces with another type of mature cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dysplasia

A

Abnormal change in cells as they multiply- shape, size, appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Carcinoma

A

Maligant cells, can be insitu/invasive (in original place or not). Type of cancer that originates in epithelial cell, most common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

cancer patho cells

A

Normal, hyperplasia, mild dysphasia, carnoma in situ, cancer invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 stages of cancer developement

A

initiation, promotion, progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Initation of cancer developement

A

Mutation of the cell DNA during replication or carcinogen exposure, genetic markers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Promotion of cancer development

A

Altered cell replication and continues to mutate this is preventable if caught in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Progression of cancer developemnet

A

Tumour growth, tumour movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Non modifiable risk factors

A

genetics, age, biological sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Modifiable risk factors

A

carcinogen, exposure, obesity, smoking, alcohol nitrates, dietary fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Do genetics have to so with cancer?

A

in some cases yes, for example women with BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutation have up to 85% chanace of developing breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Role of immune system in cancer

A

Recognize as foreign and Destry in cancer cells arizr from bodys own cells so see slow immune response as they do not see the threat as foreign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cytotoxic T cells

A

slow tumour growth. They recognize and destroy cancer cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Natural Killer cells

A

Lyse cancer cells. Recognize and eliminate cancer cells without requiring prior activation by specific agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Macrophages

A

respond to tumour markers and destroy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

B Lymphocytes

A

create antibodies to fight off inf, diseases this includes cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tumour markers

A

tumour cells produces an antigen or marker in response to certain cancer cells. Can be found in the blood urine, tumoour tissue. May be utilized as a diagnosistic tool, as a baseline marker, a tool to monitor response to treatment and a sign of reccurence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Types of tumour markers

A

AFP, CA125, CA19-9, CEA, HCG, PSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do cancer cells escape the immune system

A

Supress T cells, Escape the immune survalence, immune system decelops a tolerance to bad neighbours, supress teh immune sytem, blovk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Subjective assessment

A

fatigue, lump or thickened area, weight changes including unintended loss or gain, skin changes such as yellowing, darkening ir redness of the skin, changes in bowel or bladder habits, persistent cough or trouble breathing, diffculty swallowing, hoarseness, persistent indigestions, persistent unexplained muscle or joint pain, persistant unexplained fever or night sweats, unexplained belssing or bruising, family history of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ways to remember signs of an abnormal assessment

A

C: Changes in bowel/baldder habits
A: Sore that does not heal
U: Unualsal bleeding or discharge
T: Thicking or lump in breast or other places
I: Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
O:Obvious chnages in warts or moles
N: Nagging cough or persistent hoarseness
U: Unexplained weight loss
P: Pernicous Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lab tests

A

Cytology (ex. Pap smear, looking at the shape of cells) Hematology, Chemistry, tumour markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Diagnostic tests

A

Scope- gastroscopy, sigmoidoscopy, colonoscopy
CT/MRI
Mammogram
Radio-isotope scans
Genertic markers
Bone marrow biopsy
Biopsy
Lumbar puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Biopsy Types

A

Needle Biopsy, Incisional biopsy, Excisional biopsy, Endoscopic Biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Needle Biopsy

A

Cells and tissue fragement bone marrow (The needle into the spine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Incisional biopsy

A

Punch of tissue (skin lesion, tissue sample) Skin cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Excisional Biopsy

A

REmoval of an entire tumour/ Mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Endoscopic

A

GI, GU, Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cancer Stage 0

A

cancer in situe
-Remove/monitor it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cancer stage 1

A

Tumor limited to the tissue of organ, localized tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cancer stage 2

A

Limited to local spread, with an orgin and does not exceed it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Stage 3 cancer

A

extensive local and regional spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Stage 4 cancer

A

Metastasis, they spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Nurses role in time of diagnosis

A

communicate, support, listen, relationship developement, answer question, explain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Do not do during time of diagnosis

A

“everything will be okay” , be impatient, rush through assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Metastasis

A

establishment of microenviornement spread throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is TMN

A

T: extent of the tumour (size, number, location)
N: Extent of spread to the lymph nodes
M: Presence of metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

3 treatments

A

Cure, control, palpitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Surgery and cancer

A

Remove tumour and surrounding tissue, cure localized cancer, ineffective if metastasis, follow up with radiation
(Common in skin and thyroid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Radiation

A

radiation releases free radicals free radials damage DNA and stop ability, uses high enefery radiation to shrink the tumour and kill cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Chemotherapy

A

Reformation of new blood vessels.
Targets bone marrow, hair follicles, endothelial cells (any reproducing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Ways to administer Chemotherapy

A

PO, IV< IM, Inter cavity, intrathecal, intra arterial, intra peritoneal, intra vesicular, SC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

3 Principles of Cancer chemotherapy

A

Cytotoxic (Kills the cell)
Cytostatic (Inhibit tumour growth)
Induce cell differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Complications from chemo

A

Fatigue, bone marrow suprression, WBC inf (neutropenia), GI cells stomatitis, Integrated cells, alopecia, RBC anemia, hepatoxicity, Nadir (lowest point a pateints RBC can go)

48
Q

How does chemo cause this damage?

A

A number of blood cells that divide rapidly can be damaged along with cancer cells during chemo.

WBC help protect the body from inf, low levels indicates neutropenia and is more likely to get infection.

RBC carry oxygen throughout the body. Low levels is known as anemia. This leads to fatigue and more serious complications

PLatelets are the structure that stops bleeding, low levels is called thrombocytopenia, can cause bruising and bleeding.

Hair follicles are effected casuing alopecia

Cells lining the stomach can be affected by chemo and can cause vomiting and diarreah

49
Q

Lab chemistry

A

NA, K, Uream Creatinine

50
Q

Immunotherapy

A

Cytokines, monoclonal antibodies, vaccine, gene therapy

51
Q

Targeted therapy

A

Monoclonal antibodies, small molecules inhbitors, differentiang agents

52
Q

when cancer is the invading agent the cancer cells are able to learn to

A

mimic the immune system and adapt to it, using immune mechanism to protect protect themselves

53
Q

Cells in microenvironment

A

Dendritic, T cells, T regulatory cell, macrophages, natural killer cells, stomal cells

54
Q

Objective nursing assessment

A

CNS, CVS, GI, Nutrition, GU, Inf, Endocrine, PAIN, Psychosocial

55
Q

Interventions to do in cancer

A

Diagnose, treat, prevent spread, support, med: treat symptoms, cancer, complications

56
Q

Referalls to use

A

omcology, socail work, PT, OT, Nutrition, Clinical psychology, Pallitive, Pain clinic, support groups, pharmacy

57
Q

How to evaluate if treatment is working

A

Bloodwork, biopsy, ultrasound, follow up

58
Q

Screening for breast cancer

A

mammogram, Takes images to detect any growth of tumours

59
Q

Subjective assessment gor breast cancer

A

routine screening, health history, symptoms

60
Q

Objective assessment breast cancer

A

General axillary and superclavicular lymphadenothy (lymph nodes), Integ change, Resp change, Jaundice, Ascites, hepatomegaly, reproductive

61
Q

Male breast cancer

A

Usually found in the nipple area, hard nontender mass, more involvnment with lympnodes, e

62
Q

Breast cancer medication

A

Estrogen receptor blockers, aromatase inhibitor, estrogen receptor modulator, biological targeted therapy

63
Q

Environmental lung cancer risk factors

A

smoking, coal dust, air pollution, Radon gas, asbestos, ionizing radiation

64
Q

Is lung cancer genetic

A

yes, some people are genetically predisposed

65
Q

after the age of 55-74 what screening is done for cancer

A

Straight to treatment adter 75 years of age

66
Q

subjective data for lung cancer

A

smoking, Asbestos exposure, occupational hazard, personal or family history of lung cancer, outdoor exposure to air pollution, exposure to radiation, immunocomprimised

67
Q

objective assessment for lung cancer

A

integ, resp, cv, neuro, msk

68
Q

non small lung cancers

A

account for most lung cancers
Apenocarcinoma (periphery of lung, from goblet cell)
Squamous cell carcinoma (centreally located from columnar epithelial cells that become squamous epithelial cells)
-Unucual shape and squished in

69
Q

Small cells lung cancer

A

not as common, centerally located, from small immature neuroendocrine cells

70
Q

Therapy for lung cancer

A

surgical, radiation, chemo, biotherapy, meds, o2

71
Q

Screening for prostate cancer

A

Starting at age 50
-PSA (prostate specific antigen blood test)(the finger, should feel like a tip of the nose), Digital rectal exam (done after PSA)

72
Q

Subjective data assessment for prostate cancer

A

-Trouble urinating, age, sexual dysfunction, health history, symptoms

73
Q

objective assessment for PRostatea cancer

A

general, urinary, MSK, PSA

74
Q

treatement for Prostate cancer

A

conservative therapy (meds to treat the symptoms), Surgical therapy, radiation therapy, Androgen synthesis inhibitor and androgen receptor blocker

75
Q

TURP

A

Transurethral resection fo the prostate (it blasts the prostate and sucks it out)

76
Q

Subjective assessment

A

age 50 and older, ETOH (Over 4 drinks a week), IBS, smoking, polyps, Fx hx, Obesity, increased consumption of red meat.

77
Q

screening for Colorectal cancer

A

Stool based FIT or gFOBT, Visual structural exams

78
Q

Subjective data to collect for colorectal exam

A

health hx, weakness, fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, N and V, change in bowel habits, abd and lwo back pain

79
Q

Age relation to cancer

A

increased changes with age

80
Q

what is cataracts

A

Anythign that disrupts the crystalline lens fibre homeostasis eventually results in cataracts. Often age related, there is a crystalized lens that goes over the eyes.

81
Q

What med can cause cataracts

A

cortocosteroids

82
Q

what can cause cataracts

A

age, drugs, systematic illness such as diabetes, atopy, myotonic dystrophy, trauma, latrogen radiation, rential surgery

83
Q

Symptoms of cataracts

A

Increasing difficulty with vision at night, sensitivty to light and glare, cloudy film over vision, seeing halo arounf light, frequent changes in eyeglassess or less, increasing nearsightedness, fading yellowing of colour, double vision in a single eye

84
Q

Clinical presentation of cataracts

A

opacity within the lens, cortex, nuclear, sub scapular, dilation drops can help to see clearer

85
Q

Risk factor for catarcts

A

increasing age, diabetes, excessive exposure to siunlight, smoking, obesity, previous injury or inflammation, previous eye surgery, prolonged use of corticosteroids, excessive alcohol

86
Q

diagnostic test for cataracts

A

glare test, visual acuity drops significantly, clinical exam, biometry: Corneal curvature and a-scan ultrasound

87
Q

Treatment for cataracts

A

perscription glasses, extra light for detailed near task, magnifying glasses, limit tasks that are need fine vision, avoid driving in the dark

88
Q

possible complications for catarcts surgery

A

Infection 1:14000, posterior capsule rupture/dropeed nucleus1:1500 , rentinal detachement 1:500 , persistent swelling elevated 1:100 intracolular pressure 1:30-50

89
Q

what is the most common cause of blindness in canada

A

age related macular degeneration

90
Q

what is Dry atriphic AMD presentation

A

most common type 905, macular cell atrophy, slow adn progressive, painless, developement of drusen (yellow extracellular deposits)

91
Q

Wet presentation (neovascular AMD, exudate AMD)

A

Visual disortion, such as straight lines seeming bent, sudden, painless, center at vision loss in one or both eyes, a well defined blurry spot in vision, general haziness in overal vision

92
Q

Does macular degeneration effect peripheral vision

A

NO, so it often does in cause complete blindness

93
Q

What is happening in wet exadative

A

Abupt onset of worsening symptoms, new blood vessel growth in chorids that bleed through rentinal pigment epithelium, vessels leak, scar tissue forms, untreated leads to blindness

94
Q

Treatment for dry macular degeneration

A

smokinf cessation, sun protection, antiosidant suppliment, ARED 2 formula

95
Q

Treatment for wet degeneration

A

intravitreal anti-vegf ing, Avastin, Lucentis, eylea
-Lazer treatment for older people

96
Q

Treatment for wet and dry degeneration

A

Low vision rehabilitation:
Hand’/stand magnifiers, Microspcope, CCTV, Eccentric viewing lighting

97
Q

Nursing management for Macular degeneration

A

MI (smoking cessation), Advocate continuing supplement during med reviews. FOr wet frequency is really important, assisting with low vision aids

98
Q

Treatment frequency for wet AMD

A

Every 4 weeks x3 then treat and extend

99
Q

What is glaucoma effecting

A

the optic nerve

100
Q

Patho of glaucoma

A

Decreased ocular perfusion pressure, High IOP, Low BP or both
-Ocular nerve atrophy
-peripheral vision loss
-High IOP occurs

101
Q

What is the optic nerve

A

a bundle of more than 1 million nerve fibers that carry visual messages. You have one connecting the back of each eye (your retina) to your brain. Damage to an optic nerve can cause vision loss

102
Q

Normal intraocular pressure

A

10-21 mmHg

103
Q

Primary glaucoma vs secondary glaucoma

A

Primary open angle glaucoma: Most prevalent, angle open but fluid too slow
Primary closure glaucoma: the drainage angle is blocked, causing a sudden or grdual rise in IOP
Secondary open angle glaucoma: Exfoliation syndrome, pigmeent dispersion symndrome, storage weber syndrome
Angle closure: ICE syndrome, choriodal effusion, tamoxifen

104
Q

Risk factors for glaucoma

A

age, family history, sleep apnea, diabetes, steroids and other med, hyperthyroidism, hypertension, reynauds, migraine, topical steriods

105
Q

Tests

A

Measuring intraocular pressure, testing for optic nerve damage, checking for areas of vision loss, measuring corneal thickness, inspecting the drainage angle

106
Q

Symptoms of chronic glaucoma

A

difficulty with orientation adn mobility (bumping into things), pathchy blindness in periphery, tunnel vision

107
Q

Acute angle glaucoma

A

Severe (11/10) headache and eye pain, N and V, Blurred vision, Halos around lights, eye redness

108
Q

Treatment for glaucoma

A

-NEED treatment or they will go blind
-Drops, surgery

109
Q

Decrease aqeuous production treatment

A

Beta-blocker, alpha-adrenergic, carbonic anhydrase, inhibitor
Surgery: lazer cycloabalation

110
Q

Increase water aqueous outflow

A

Drops: prostaglandin Analogues, Nitric oxide, Muscarinic agonist, Rho Kinase
Surgery: Selective laser trabeculoplasty, microinicisional drainage device, Trabeculectomy

111
Q

Prostglandin eye drops

A

increase the outflow of the fluid within the eye and reduce pressure. Can cause mild redening, stinging, and changes in pigment aswell as blurred vision

112
Q

Beta Blocker eye drops

A

these reduce the production of fluid in your eye, thereby lowering the pressure in your eye, possible side effects include difficulty breathing, slwoed heart rate, lower blood pressure, impotence and fatigue

113
Q

Alpha adrenergic agonist eye drops

A

reduce the production of aqueos hummer. side effects include irregular heart rate, high bp, fatigue, red, itchy, swollen eyes

114
Q

Miotic or collinergic agents

A

These increase the outflow of fluid from your eye. An example is pilocarpine. Side effects include smaller pupils, possible blurred vision or dim vision and brow ache. Rarely used for medical therapy

115
Q

when does acute angle glaucoma become an emergency

A

when pressure goes over 70, vision can be lost within hours

116
Q

what to do for someone in an acute glaucoma crisis

A

decrease aqeous production (timolol, bromonidine) admin IV mannitol, no PGA