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unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What did French historian Aries argue about children in the Middle Ages?

A

Children were viewed as miniature adults, not a distinct stage in life

This perspective was reflected in art, clothing, and literature of the time.

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2
Q

What was the treatment of children during Colonial times in America?

A

Harsh treatment, including beatings, opioids to keep quiet, and forced labor

This was influenced by puritan beliefs regarding original sin.

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3
Q

According to Locke, what is the nature of children?

A

Children are born as a blank slate (tabula rasa)

Locke believed that parents should mold children from infancy.

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4
Q

What concept did Rousseau introduce regarding children’s nature?

A

Children are born good (noble savages) but can be corrupted by society

Rousseau emphasized the importance of learning from experience.

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5
Q

What significant changes occurred in child development theories in the mid-1700s to early 1800s?

A

Emergence of first children’s books, hospitals, games, and labor laws

Influenced by new ideas from Locke and Rousseau.

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6
Q

What was the impact of the Industrial Revolution on developmental psychology?

A

Led to a demand for broadly educated employees and questions about child development

This contributed to the emergence of developmental psychology in the late 1800s.

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7
Q

What does ‘ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny’ mean?

A

Development of individuals reflects the development of species

Suggests that child growth demonstrates evolutionary stages.

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8
Q

What method did G. Stanley Hall develop in child development research?

A

The questionnaire, improving upon baby biographies

This method allowed for systematic collection of data from multiple children.

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9
Q

What is classical conditioning as demonstrated by Pavlov?

A

Learning through association between stimuli

Pavlov’s experiments involved dogs salivating at the sound of a bell.

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10
Q

What was the Little Albert experiment?

A

Conditioned a child to fear a white rat by pairing it with a loud noise

Conducted by John Watson, illustrating classical conditioning.

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11
Q

What are the three components of Freud’s personality theory?

A
  • Id: pleasure principle
  • Ego: reality principle
  • Superego: moral principles

Freud emphasized the influence of early childhood on personality.

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12
Q

What is operant conditioning according to B.F. Skinner?

A

Learning through consequences, using reinforcement and punishment

Skinner viewed children as passive recipients of socialization.

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13
Q

What does Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory entail?

A

Stages of cognitive development: Sensorimotor, Preoperational, Concrete Operational, Formal Operational

Piaget emphasized that children are active participants in their own development.

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14
Q

What is the significance of the Bobo doll study conducted by Albert Bandura?

A

Demonstrated observational learning and vicarious reinforcement

Children imitated aggressive behavior after watching adults interact with the doll.

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15
Q

What does Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory emphasize?

A

Cognitive development is a product of social interactions within a cultural context

Highlights the importance of the Zone of Proximal Development.

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16
Q

What is the difference between reliability and validity in research measures?

A

Reliability is repeatability; validity is measuring what it’s supposed to measure

Reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity.

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17
Q

What are the advantages of longitudinal studies?

A
  • Can observe change over time
  • Can predict early variables
  • Reduces cohort effects

However, they can be time-consuming and costly.

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18
Q

What are some limitations of correlational studies?

A

Cannot determine cause and effect relationships

Allows for predictions but not definitive conclusions.

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19
Q

What is the purpose of the ecological systems theory by Bronfenbrenner?

A

To highlight the multiple layers of influence on a child’s development

Includes individual, microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.

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20
Q

What is longitudinal design?

A

A single group of participants is tested repeatedly over time.

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21
Q

What are the pros of longitudinal design?

A
  • Can look at change over time
  • Can predict early variables
  • Reduces confounds
  • No cohort effect
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22
Q

What are the cons of longitudinal design?

A
  • Time-consuming
  • Expensive
  • High dropout rates
  • Selective dropout of certain participants
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23
Q

Define ‘time of testing effects’.

A

A confound between age and time of testing.

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24
Q

What are practice effects?

A

Participants have more practice with the test as they get older.

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25
What is the importance of converging evidence?
Different research approaches lead to similar conclusions.
26
Why is research with children conducted?
To learn and understand children.
27
What is informed consent?
Participants are told the purpose, risks/benefits, and alternatives of the research.
28
Who provides informed consent for minors?
Parents or legal guardians.
29
What are variables in research?
Characteristics that can take on different levels or values.
30
What is central tendency?
A value that is central or representative of the whole group.
31
What does the mean represent in descriptive statistics?
The average value of a set of variables.
32
Define median.
The middle score in a data set.
33
Define mode.
The most frequent score in a data set.
34
What is variability?
A measure of individual differences within a group.
35
What does range indicate in statistics?
The difference between the highest and lowest scores.
36
What is standard deviation?
A mathematical index of the degree to which scores differ from the mean.
37
What are inferential statistics?
Mathematical procedures used to draw inferences about a population based on a sample.
38
What defines a population in research?
A large complete group of people that are alike in at least one respect.
39
What is a sample?
A representative subset of a population.
40
When is an effect declared significant?
If it occurs infrequently (e.g., < 5% of the time) purely by chance.
41
What are the three periods of prenatal development?
* Zygote * Embryo * Fetus
42
What occurs during the zygote stage?
Fertilization and initial cell division.
43
What is the major task during the embryo stage?
Rapid development of all major internal and external structures.
44
What are the three germ layers formed during embryonic development?
* Endoderm * Ectoderm * Mesoderm
45
What is the primary task of the fetus stage?
Further development of already formed organs and increase in size and weight.
46
When is a baby considered full term?
38 weeks after conception (40 weeks of pregnancy).
47
What sensory experiences does a fetus have?
* Taste * Sound
48
What are teratogens?
Non-genetic agents that can cause malformations during prenatal development.
49
What is teratology?
The study of teratogens.
50
What was the impact of thalidomide during pregnancy?
Caused defective limbs.
51
What is fetal alcohol syndrome?
A condition resulting from chronic heavy alcohol use during pregnancy.
52
What is habituation?
Loss of attention to a repeated stimulus.
53
What is dishabituation?
Renewal of attention when a habituated stimulus changes.
54
What does the visual preference paradigm assess?
Discrimination between two stimuli based on looking time.
55
What is the familiarization-novelty paradigm?
Combines aspects of habituation and visual preference to assess recognition.
56
What does the visual cliff assess?
Depth perception in infants.
57
What is social referencing?
Using emotional cues of others to guide behavior.
58
What is the significance of impending collision?
Infants show signs of avoiding an object approaching their face.
59
what is a critical period
any limited time period during development when an external event must occur if it is to have a particular event.
60
what is a false beliefs about critical period for bonding?
skin to skin contact: evident in sheep and goats but found not true Feeding: babies become attached to those who feed them Harlow's study of rhesus monkeys
61
what was Bowlby's theory?
attachment develops much more gradually in humans and reflects a 2 way relationship - imprinting - predisposed
62
What is Bowlby's first phases of human attachment and development?
undiscriminating social responsibleness: 2-3 months - baby has behaviors that encourage and maintain interactions with adults
63
What is Bowlby's second phase of human attachment and development?
Discriminating social responsibleness: up to 7 months: respond differently to different people and do it more often to familiar people but still friendly towards strangers, if baby is destressed strangers can comfort them
64
what is Bowlby's third phase of human attachment and development?
True or "full-blown" attachment = relatively enduring emotional tie to a specific other person ( 2.5 years)
65
signs of a secure base?
- Proximity maintenance: baby wants to stay close - separation protest - stranger wariness
66
features that attract adults to babies
smiles, sucking/grasping, gazing, crying, cuteness, size
67
features that attract babies to adults
large, round, shiny, complex, contrast, moving, 3 D, human voices, rocking, warmth, fuzziness
68
rodell & slaby study
proximal mode: touch and rock but did not make eye contact/talk/smile Distal mode: make eye contact/talk but no physical contact) non-interactive: nothing - liked distal women the best
69
Bowlby's take on individual differences
- Bowlby viewed attachment as a universal adaptive characteristics of the species; viewed from an ethological perspective - But there are individual differences in the quality of the attachment relationship (in the ability to use the attachment figure as a secure base)
70
type B: secure
plays comfortable with the toys prior to separation and reacts possibly when stranger comes in and doesn’t stay that close to mom prior to separation, play reduced when mother leaves and child is distressed. When the mother returns the child goes to her immediately and calms down quickly and is able to go back to playing
71
type A: avoidant
doesn’t pay that much attention to where mom is before separation, not that distressed when mom leaves and usually stranger can do a good job comforting. When mom returns the child usually ignores her
72
Type C: resistant/ambivalent
fussy before separation, distressed when mom leaves. When mom returns the child will seek out comport but resist it by wanting to be put back down and still upset. Don’t return readily to play and remains upset
73
Type D: disorganized/disoriented
: don’t have a consistent strategy, weary of the parent as they are of the stranger. Associated with abuse or neglect  Wasn’t added till later
74
Maternal predictors of secure attachment
sensitivity, acceptance, cooperation, accessibility = genral responsiveness * type B is high on all 4 of these characteristics
75
"consequences" of secure attachment
o Socially competent with peers o Good self-esteem o Curious o Cope well w/novelty and failure o Good problem solvers o Independent o Few behavior problems

child psy (4 decks)

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