Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which events fulfill the definition of a failed laryngoscope intubation? Name Two.

A
  1. Airway not successfully intubated within 5-10 minutes
  2. Glottis not intubated after 4 attempts
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2
Q

What percentage of anesthesia induced atelectasis occurs in anesthetized patients?

A

90%

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3
Q

What is the only anesthetic not associated with anesthetic induced atelectasis?

A

Ketamine

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4
Q

What percentage of the lung is atelectatic during uneventful general anesthesia?

A

15-20%

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5
Q

How does stimulating noradrenergic, noncholinergic mechanisms affect bronchiolar smooth muscle tone?

A

Leads to bronchoconstriction through the release of tachykinins, vasoactive intestinal peptide, adenosine, and calcitonin gene-related peptide

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6
Q

What does agonizing the acetylcholine M3 receptors lead to?

A

Bronchoconstriction

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7
Q

How does an influx of calcium into the bronchial smooth muscle affect the tone?

A

It increases the tone (Bronchoconstriction)

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8
Q

How does the stimulation of a2-receptors affect bronchial smooth muscle?

A

Relaxes the smooth muscle

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9
Q

Which nerve is most likely injured following the placement of an LMA? Which cranial nerve? Which others?

A
  1. Hypoglossal (CN12)

Also - the lingual and RLN

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10
Q

What is most likely to cause a nerve injury with an LMA?

A

Overinflation of the cuff

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11
Q

Which type of patients are at higher risk of difficult extubating?

A
  1. Abnormal or complicated airway issues like dental damage during intubation
  2. Surgical issues create airway issues like cervical fusion
  3. General risk factors such as OSA or neuromuscular weakness
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12
Q

Does a supine patient create an increased risk of difficult extubation?

A

No

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13
Q

What is the recommended time that a patient stops smoking before surgery?

A

8 weeks

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14
Q

When does the Hgb P50 return to normal after smoking cessation?

A

12 weeks

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15
Q

What is the P50 of Hgb? What is normal ?

A

When 50% of hgb is saturated with oxygen.

Normal is approximately 27 mmHg

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16
Q

Carbon monoxide binds to Hgb at what rate compared to oxygen?

A

240 times - this reduces the amount of available O2 to tissues

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17
Q

What type of shift does smoking / carbon monoxide cause?

A

A leftward shift because it forces the Hgb to hold onto the oxygen

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18
Q

Smoking cessation causes which shift on the P50?

A

A right shift

-Allows O2 onto the Hgb which is released to the body to improve oxygenation

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19
Q

What is seen at the 48–72-hour mark of smoking cessation?

A

Increased secretions and a more reactive airway

20
Q

What is seen at the 2–4-week mark of smoking cessation?

A

Decreased secretions and less reactive airway

21
Q

What is seen at the 4-6-week mark of smoking cessation?

A

Immune system and metabolism normalize

Return of pulmonary function

22
Q

What is seen at the 8-12-week mark of smoking cessation?

A

Improved mucociliary transport and small airway function

23
Q

Carotid bodies are linked to? Carotid sinuses are linked to?

A

Bodies - chemoreceptors

Sinuses - baroreceptors

24
Q

What is the pathway of from peripheral chemoreceptors to the brain?

A
  1. Carotid bodies >
    Carotid sinus n. (Hering’s) >
    Glossopharyngeal n. (CN9) >
    Dorsal center of medulla
    2.
    Transverse aortic arch >
    Vagus n. (CN10)>
    Dorsal center of medulla
25
Q

What can decrease the glossopharyngeal afferent nerve activity? What happens because of this?

A

Opioids + Benzodiazepines + >0.1 Mac of volatile gases

Hypoxemia and hypercapnic respiratory insufficiency

26
Q

Which drugs must always be given during an awake fiber optic intubation ?

A
  • Antisialogogue
    -Local anesthetic
    -Topical vasoconstrictor
27
Q

Which drugs should be avoided during an awake fiber optic intubation?

A

Propofol + narcotics

28
Q

What signs and symptoms will be seen with a post obstructive pulmonary edema?

A

(also called negative pressure pulmonary edema)

-SOB
-Pink frothy secretions
-Tachypnea
-SpO2 < 95%
-Cough

29
Q

What is the most accurate description of the respiratory effect of obesity?

A

Increased respiratory rate

30
Q

What happens to dead space with obesity?

31
Q

What happens to residual volume with obesity?

32
Q

What happens to FRC with obesity?

A

Decreased due to decreased ERV

33
Q

What does your FRC include?

34
Q

What does your Inspiratory Capacity include?

A

IRV and TV

35
Q

What happens to IRV with obesity?

A

Slightly increased

36
Q

After identifying a grade 4 Cormack Lehane view, what are the next best steps?

A
  1. Alternate approach
  2. Optimal external laryngeal manipulation
37
Q

Contraindications to a supraglottic airway?

A

Delayed gastric emptying

Intestinal blockage

Subglottic obstruction

38
Q

Can a supraglottic airway be used in a T&A?

A

I GUESS????!!!!!

39
Q

What does the Plateau pressure measure?

A

The pressure in small airways after reaching the target tidal volume

(no airflow)

40
Q

Does airway resistance affect Plateau pressure?

41
Q

Which conditions most likely affect Plateau pressures?

A

Pulmonary edema

Pneumothorax

Subq emphysema

42
Q

Which conditions affect peak pressures?

A

Kinked tube
ET obstruction
Acute asthma
Bronchospasm

43
Q

In order to maintain tracheal capillary perfusion, what is the highest cuff pressure? What is normal capillary perfusion ?

A

Anything less than 25

Normal is 20

44
Q

Which type of lung disease is caused by intraabdominal pressure?

A

Restrictive

45
Q

Which pulmonary functions are reduced with an unsupported airway?

A

FRC
Respiratory compliance
Arterial oxygenation

46
Q

What is the first step when a patient begins vomiting while holding cricoid pressure?

A

Release cricoid

47
Q

Which injury is likely a contraindication for ET intubation?

A

Laryngeal cartilage disruption