UNIT 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The exercise assigned for the day must be studied _______________ in order to facilitate ease of pre-laboratory discussion.

A

BEFORE coming to class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Working area must be cleaned with ________________ before and after laboratory exercises.

A

1:10 dilution of 5% Sodium hypochlorite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the dilution of 5% Sodium hypochlorite

A

1:10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If bleach is unavailable, a similar disinfectant can be
used instead, like

A

Diluted Lysol solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Color of plastic bag. For infectious and contaminated materials such as used cotton, tissue, gloves, culture media, and used disposable Petri dishes

A

Yellow plastic bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Color of plastic bag. For contaminated sharps like needles

A

Red puncture proof container

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All Personal Protective Equipment (PPEs) must be worn _________ the bacteriology laboratory only and must be _________ when leaving the laboratory premises.

A

inside ; removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is CLSI

A

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Set minimum standards for regulation of health facilities and services in the Philippines

A

Department of Health – Health Facilities and Services Regulatory Bureau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Issue permits to construct, License to Operate and Cert. of Accreditation

A

Department of Health – Health Facilities and Services Regulatory Bureau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

General laboratory safety and infection control guidelines

A

CLSI (Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Provide all employees (including the clinical laboratory personnel) with a safe work environment

A

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Route of infection. Aerosols may form during centrifugation of unstopped tubes or from heating cultures or specimens too rapidly

A

Airborne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Route of infection. Leakage from a container that holds contaminated specimens

A

Airborne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Route of infection. Result of failure to wash hands or eating, drinking, smoking, applying cosmetics, or pipetting with the mouth

A

Ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Route of infection. Result from needlesticks, broken glass, animal bites, or small scratches on the fingers

A

Direct Inoculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Route of infection. Such as through the conjunctiva of the eye

A

Mucous Membrane Contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Route of infection. Infectious sources include ticks, fleas, and mosquitoes, which may harbor various microorganisms

A

Arthropod Vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Orientation and continuing education for employees

A

Safety Education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

policy and procedures

A

Safety manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

set of preventive measures designed to reduce the risk of HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne pathogens in the health care setting

A

Universal Precaution by CDC (1987)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

apply to all human blood and all other body fluids that contain visible blood

A

Universal Precaution by CDC (1987)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Combination of Universal Precautions & Body Substance Isolation to minimize risk of infection transmission

A

Standard Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
All blood, tissue, body fluid, secretions and excretions (except sweat) are considered potentially infectious
Standard Precautions
26
device that encloses a workspace in such a way as to protect workers from aerosol
Biosafety cabinet
27
Air that contains the infectious material is sterilized by heat, UV light, or by passage through a ________
HEPA filter
28
What is HEPA
High Efficiency Particulate Air
29
BSC Class. allow room (unsterilized) air to pass into the cabinet and around the area and material within, sterilizing only the air to be exhausted
BSC Class I
30
Common BSC/BSL in the microbiology laboratory
BSC Class IIA, BSL 2
31
BSC Class. Sterilize air that flows over the infectious material, as well as air to be exhausted.
BSC Class II
32
Class II Type. Is self-contained, and 70% of the air is recirculated into the work area
Class II, Type A
33
Class II Type. Discharged outside the building
Class II, Type B
34
BSC Class. completely enclosed, ventilated, with negative pressure, leak-tight construction and attached rubber gloves.
BSC Class III
35
BSC Class. Supply air is drawn in through HEPA filters
BSC Class III
36
BSC Class. Exhaust air is treated with either double HEPA filtration or HEPA filtration and incineration
BCS Class III
37
Biosafety level 4 organisms is for
BSC Class III
38
No known pathogenic potential for immunocompetent individuals.
BSL 1
39
BSL. Typical examples include Bacillus subtilis.
BSL 1
40
BSL. Undergraduate laboratory courses operate under
BSL 1
41
BSL. This category includes the most common microorganisms associated with laboratory-acquired infections, including HBV, HIV, Staphylococcus, and enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and Shigella.
BSL 2
42
BSL. Level 1 practices plus laboratory coats, protective gloves, limited access, decontamination of all infectious waste, and biohazard warning signs.
BSL 2
43
BSL. Apparatus includes partial containment equipment (such as classes I and lI biological safety cabinets) when procedures may lead to the production of infectious aerosols.
BSL 2
44
BSL. Level 2 procedures plus special laboratory clothing and controlled access are recommended for handling clinical material suspected of containing Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Brucella, Coccidioides immitis, Rickettsia, and specific viruses such as arbovirus.
BSL 3
45
BSL. Level 3 practices plus entrance through a separate room in which street clothing is changed and replaced with laboratory clothing.
BSL 4
46
BSL. This level is primarily used in research facilities and includes a limited number of exotic viruses including filovirus and arenavirus.
BSL 4
47
process that kills all forms of microbial life, including bacterial endospores.
Sterilization
48
process that destroys pathogenic organisms, but not necessarily all microorganisms, endospores, or prions
Disinfection
49
the removal of pathogenic microorganisms so items are safe to handle or dispose
Decontamination
50
9 Factors influencing the Degree of Killing
- Types of organisms - Number of organisms - Concentration/Compatibility of disinfectant - Nature of surface to be disinfected - Contact time - Temperature - pH - Biofilm
51
All microbiological wastes must be ______________ prior to disposal.
decontaminated
52
All accidents must be reported immediately to the laboratory safety officer/lab supervisor
Post-exposure plan
53
Do proper documentation and prepare incident report Needle-stick injury requires appropriate investigation, prophylaxis.
Post-exposure plan
54
Review the events of exposure/accidents for corrective actions and to prevent future occurrence.
Post-exposure plan
55
Instruments, appliances must be checked for hazards at least once every _____
12 months
56
T or F. Current WHO guidelines still recommend the prescriptive use of Biosafety levels.
F. WHO no longer recommends the use of Biosafety levels.
57
Acronym to operate a Fire Extinguisher
Pull pin Aim nozzle Squeeze trigger Sweep nozzle
58
Class of Fire. Fires involving ordinary combustible materials such as cloth, wood, rubber, paper, and many plastics.
Class A
59
Class of fire. Involving flammable liquids and vapors, such as grease, gasoline, oil and oil-based paints.
Class B
60
Class of fire. Fires involving electrical equipment.
Class C
61
Class of fire. Involving combustible, reactive, or flammable metals
Class D
62
Collect specimen in the ______ phase of the infection
Acute (early phase)
63
Collect prior to administration of _________
antibiotics
64
Avoid contamination; ___________ may be possible contaminants
Normal flora
65
As much as possible, collect the sample following ______________, which are methods that we do to prevent the contamination of specimens and even cultures
aseptic techniques
66
are primarily for aerobic bacteria a. Aspirates b. Swabs
b. Swabs
67
are primarily for anaerobic bacteria a. Aspirates b. Swabs
a. Aspirates
68
If the doctor is considering meningitis, the appropriate specimen would be
CSF
69
If the doctor is considering bacteremia, appropriate specimen is
Blood
70
If the doctor is considering diarrhea, appropriate specimen is
stool
71
Provide _______ instructions on how to collect specimens to patients and other health care personnel
Specific
72
T or F. A medical technologist can aspirate a deep wound to a patient.
F. MT does not aspirate
73
Swab: superficial wounds ________: deep wound
Aspirate
74
Swab: Aspirate: deep wound
superficial wounds
75
not recommended for collection of _________ because the swab has been exposed to air
anaerobic
76
Types of swab. for Bacterial Culture
Dacron, Calcium Alginate, Rayon
77
Types of swab. for Viral Culture
Cotton and Dacron
78
T or F. Avoid using wooden material to swab
T
79
Culture. isolation of Group A Streptococcus
Throat culture
80
Culture. diagnosis of pertussis, middle ear infections, carrier state of S. aureus
Nasopharyngeal Cultures
81
Culture. MRSA
Nasal culture
82
Swabs should be collected in
duplicates
83
Why swabs should be collected in duplicates
1 for culture and sensitivity 1 for gram staining
84
Foley catheters indicates
contaminated urine specimen
85
Preferred urine sample
Clean catch midstream
86
Specimen for diagnosis of lower respiratory tract infections (bacterial pneumonia, PTB)
sputum
87
How many ml is the proper essential collection of sputum?
5-10 ml
88
For Pulmonary Tuberculosis, collect ____ specimens of _____
2 specimens of sputum
89
Microscopic Examination: Gram Stain Bartlett’s Classification _____ leukocytes/LPF _____ epithelial cells/LPF
>25 ; <10
90
is the specimen of choice for the diagnosis of gastrointestinal pathogens
stool
91
Collect stool specimens for ______ consecutive days. Another alternative in stool preservation is refrigeration up to ______ hours only.
3 consecutive days and 2 hours
92
What stool method if Clostridium difficile cannot be isolated from stool and is a spore forming bacteria
aerobic method
93
T or F. In stool, anaerobic samples, they can usually be extracted from blood and body fluids, but NEVER swab nor stool
T
94
T or F. In stool, anaerobic samples, they can usually be extracted from blood and body fluids, but NEVER swab nor stool
T
95
Sample in diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO)
blood
96
Sample in diagnosis of Septicemia, Bacteremia, Typhoid Fever, SBE
blood
97
Sample in diagnosis of Septicemia, Bacteremia, Typhoid Fever, SBE
blood
98
In blood sample, collect before and right after _____________
fever spike
99
T or F. In blood collection, collect before and right after fever spike; 4-5 cultures placed an hour apart
F. 2-3 cultures
100
Blood collection. Volume for adults
20 ml
101
Blood collection. Volume for pediatrics
1-20 ml (1-5 ml)
102
Blood: Media ratio
1:10
103
Media of choice for blood sample
Broth (BHI, TSB, Biphasic Media, Thioglycollate Broth)
104
T or F. MT collects abdominal fluid, amniotic fluid, ascitic fluid, bile, synovial fluid, pleural fluid, pericardial fluid through needle aspiration
F. Only MD can do all of that. MT does the culture media
105
Gastric tube inserted through the nose
Levine
106
Gastric tube inserted through the mouth
Rehfuss
107
Sample for the Diagnosis of Meningitis or Meningoencephalitis
Cerebrospinal fluid
108
CFS collection
Lumbar Tap (3rd-4th Lumbar Vertebra)
109
Transport the specimens to the laboratory ______________ Ideally: ________ Preferably up to _________
Immediately 30 mins 2 hours
110
Boric acid is a preservative for
urine
111
T or F. CSF can be refrigerated for bacteriology
F.
112
Percentage of SPS liquid
0.025% - 0.03% Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
113
Storage temp. Catheter tips, CSF for viruses, outer ear swab
Ref. 4 degree celsius
114
Storage temp. CSF for bacteria, abscess, lesion, wound, body fluids, inner ear, preserved urine
22 degree celsius
115
Storage temp. CSF
37 degree celsius
116
Storage temp. Serum for Serology
-20 degree celsius
117
Specimen priority level for Amniotic fluid, blood, brain, CSF, heart valve, pericardial fluid
Level 1 Critical/Invasive
118
Specimen priority level for Bloody fluids, bone, wound drainage, feces, sputum, tissue
Level 2 Unpreserved
119
Specimen priority level for Catheter tip, urine, tissue for quantification
Level 3 Quantitation Required
120
Specimen priority level for Feces in preservative, urine in preservative, swabs in holding medium
Level 4 Preserved
121
Specimen priority level for sputum/AFB culture
Level 5 Batch Processing
122
Observation. Gross appearance and physical appearance. Determine specimen adequacy and quality
Macroscopic observation
123
Observation. Useful and rapid information. Specimen Quality. Infectious Process Indication. Guide
Microscopic observation
124
Incubation time for aerobic bacteria
21% oxygen, 0.03% CO2
125
Incubation time for Capnophiles
5-10% CO2; 15% Oxygen
126
Incubation time for Microaerophiles
5-6% or 5-10% oxygen