Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BACTE > UNIT 1 > Flashcards

UNIT 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The exercise assigned for the day must be studied _______________ in order to facilitate ease of pre-laboratory discussion.

A

BEFORE coming to class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Working area must be cleaned with ________________ before and after laboratory exercises.

A

1:10 dilution of 5% Sodium hypochlorite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the dilution of 5% Sodium hypochlorite

A

1:10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If bleach is unavailable, a similar disinfectant can be
used instead, like

A

Diluted Lysol solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Color of plastic bag. For infectious and contaminated materials such as used cotton, tissue, gloves, culture media, and used disposable Petri dishes

A

Yellow plastic bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Color of plastic bag. For contaminated sharps like needles

A

Red puncture proof container

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All Personal Protective Equipment (PPEs) must be worn _________ the bacteriology laboratory only and must be _________ when leaving the laboratory premises.

A

inside ; removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is CLSI

A

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Set minimum standards for regulation of health facilities and services in the Philippines

A

Department of Health – Health Facilities and Services Regulatory Bureau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Issue permits to construct, License to Operate and Cert. of Accreditation

A

Department of Health – Health Facilities and Services Regulatory Bureau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

General laboratory safety and infection control guidelines

A

CLSI (Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Provide all employees (including the clinical laboratory personnel) with a safe work environment

A

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Route of infection. Aerosols may form during centrifugation of unstopped tubes or from heating cultures or specimens too rapidly

A

Airborne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Route of infection. Leakage from a container that holds contaminated specimens

A

Airborne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Route of infection. Result of failure to wash hands or eating, drinking, smoking, applying cosmetics, or pipetting with the mouth

A

Ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Route of infection. Result from needlesticks, broken glass, animal bites, or small scratches on the fingers

A

Direct Inoculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Route of infection. Such as through the conjunctiva of the eye

A

Mucous Membrane Contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Route of infection. Infectious sources include ticks, fleas, and mosquitoes, which may harbor various microorganisms

A

Arthropod Vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Orientation and continuing education for employees

A

Safety Education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

policy and procedures

A

Safety manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

set of preventive measures designed to reduce the risk of HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne pathogens in the health care setting

A

Universal Precaution by CDC (1987)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

apply to all human blood and all other body fluids that contain visible blood

A

Universal Precaution by CDC (1987)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Combination of Universal Precautions & Body Substance Isolation to minimize risk of infection transmission

A

Standard Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

All blood, tissue, body fluid, secretions and excretions (except sweat) are considered potentially infectious

A

Standard Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

device that encloses a workspace in such a way as to protect workers from aerosol

A

Biosafety cabinet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Air that contains the infectious material is sterilized by heat, UV light, or by passage through a ________

A

HEPA filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is HEPA

A

High Efficiency Particulate Air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

BSC Class. allow room (unsterilized) air to pass into the cabinet and around the area and material within, sterilizing only the air to be exhausted

A

BSC Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Common BSC/BSL in the microbiology laboratory

A

BSC Class IIA, BSL 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

BSC Class. Sterilize air that flows over the infectious material, as well as air to be exhausted.

A

BSC Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Class II Type. Is self-contained, and 70% of the
air is recirculated into the work area

A

Class II, Type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Class II Type. Discharged outside the building

A

Class II, Type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

BSC Class. completely enclosed, ventilated, with negative pressure, leak-tight construction and attached rubber gloves.

A

BSC Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

BSC Class. Supply air is drawn in through HEPA filters

A

BSC Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

BSC Class. Exhaust air is treated with either double HEPA filtration or HEPA filtration and incineration

A

BCS Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Biosafety level 4 organisms is for

A

BSC Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

No known pathogenic potential for immunocompetent individuals.

A

BSL 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

BSL. Typical examples include Bacillus subtilis.

A

BSL 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

BSL. Undergraduate laboratory courses operate under

A

BSL 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

BSL. This category includes the most common microorganisms associated with laboratory-acquired infections, including HBV, HIV, Staphylococcus, and enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and Shigella.

A

BSL 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

BSL. Level 1 practices plus laboratory coats, protective gloves, limited access, decontamination of all infectious waste, and biohazard warning signs.

A

BSL 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

BSL. Apparatus includes partial containment equipment (such as classes I and lI biological safety cabinets) when procedures may lead to the production of infectious aerosols.

A

BSL 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

BSL. Level 2 procedures plus special laboratory clothing and controlled access are recommended for handling clinical material suspected of containing Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Brucella, Coccidioides immitis, Rickettsia, and specific viruses such as arbovirus.

A

BSL 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

BSL. Level 3 practices plus entrance through a separate room in which street clothing is changed and replaced with laboratory clothing.

A

BSL 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

BSL. This level is primarily used in research facilities and includes a limited number of exotic viruses including filovirus and arenavirus.

A

BSL 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

process that kills all forms of microbial life, including bacterial endospores.

A

Sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

process that destroys pathogenic organisms, but not necessarily all microorganisms, endospores, or prions

A

Disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

the removal of pathogenic microorganisms so items are safe to handle or dispose

A

Decontamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

9 Factors influencing the Degree of Killing

A
  • Types of organisms
  • Number of organisms
  • Concentration/Compatibility of disinfectant
  • Nature of surface to be disinfected
  • Contact time
  • Temperature
  • pH
  • Biofilm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

All microbiological wastes must be ______________ prior to disposal.

A

decontaminated

52
Q

All accidents must be reported immediately to the laboratory safety officer/lab supervisor

A

Post-exposure plan

53
Q

Do proper documentation and prepare incident report Needle-stick injury requires appropriate investigation, prophylaxis.

A

Post-exposure plan

54
Q

Review the events of exposure/accidents for corrective actions and to prevent future occurrence.

A

Post-exposure plan

55
Q

Instruments, appliances must be checked for hazards at least once every _____

A

12 months

56
Q

T or F. Current WHO guidelines still recommend the prescriptive use of Biosafety levels.

A

F. WHO no longer recommends the use of Biosafety levels.

57
Q

Acronym to operate a Fire Extinguisher

A

Pull pin
Aim nozzle
Squeeze trigger
Sweep nozzle

58
Q

Class of Fire. Fires involving ordinary combustible materials such as cloth, wood, rubber, paper, and many plastics.

A

Class A

59
Q

Class of fire. Involving flammable liquids and vapors, such as grease, gasoline, oil and oil-based paints.

A

Class B

60
Q

Class of fire. Fires involving electrical equipment.

A

Class C

61
Q

Class of fire. Involving combustible, reactive, or flammable metals

A

Class D

62
Q

Collect specimen in the ______ phase of the infection

A

Acute (early phase)

63
Q

Collect prior to administration of _________

A

antibiotics

64
Q

Avoid contamination; ___________ may be possible
contaminants

A

Normal flora

65
Q

As much as possible, collect the sample following
______________, which are methods that we do to prevent the contamination of specimens and even cultures

A

aseptic techniques

66
Q

are primarily for aerobic bacteria

a. Aspirates
b. Swabs

A

b. Swabs

67
Q

are primarily for anaerobic bacteria

a. Aspirates
b. Swabs

A

a. Aspirates

68
Q

If the doctor is considering meningitis, the appropriate specimen would be

A

CSF

69
Q

If the doctor is considering bacteremia, appropriate specimen is

A

Blood

70
Q

If the doctor is considering diarrhea, appropriate specimen is

A

stool

71
Q

Provide _______ instructions on how to collect specimens to patients and other health care personnel

A

Specific

72
Q

T or F. A medical technologist can aspirate a deep wound to a patient.

A

F. MT does not aspirate

73
Q

Swab: superficial wounds
________: deep wound

A

Aspirate

74
Q

Swab:
Aspirate: deep wound

A

superficial wounds

75
Q

not recommended for collection of _________
because the swab has been exposed to air

A

anaerobic

76
Q

Types of swab. for Bacterial Culture

A

Dacron, Calcium Alginate, Rayon

77
Q

Types of swab. for Viral Culture

A

Cotton and Dacron

78
Q

T or F. Avoid using wooden material to swab

A

T

79
Q

Culture. isolation of Group A Streptococcus

A

Throat culture

80
Q

Culture. diagnosis of pertussis, middle ear infections, carrier state of S. aureus

A

Nasopharyngeal Cultures

81
Q

Culture. MRSA

A

Nasal culture

82
Q

Swabs should be collected in

A

duplicates

83
Q

Why swabs should be collected in duplicates

A

1 for culture and sensitivity
1 for gram staining

84
Q

Foley catheters indicates

A

contaminated urine specimen

85
Q

Preferred urine sample

A

Clean catch midstream

86
Q

Specimen for diagnosis of lower respiratory tract infections (bacterial pneumonia, PTB)

A

sputum

87
Q

How many ml is the proper essential collection of sputum?

A

5-10 ml

88
Q

For Pulmonary Tuberculosis, collect ____ specimens of _____

A

2 specimens of sputum

89
Q

Microscopic Examination: Gram Stain Bartlett’s
Classification
_____ leukocytes/LPF
_____ epithelial cells/LPF

A

> 25 ; <10

90
Q

is the specimen of choice for the diagnosis of gastrointestinal pathogens

A

stool

91
Q

Collect stool specimens for ______ consecutive days. Another alternative in stool preservation is refrigeration up to ______ hours only.

A

3 consecutive days and 2 hours

92
Q

What stool method if Clostridium difficile cannot be isolated from stool and is a spore forming bacteria

A

aerobic method

93
Q

T or F. In stool, anaerobic samples, they can usually be extracted from blood and body fluids, but NEVER swab nor stool

A

T

94
Q

T or F. In stool, anaerobic samples, they can usually be extracted from blood and body fluids, but NEVER swab nor stool

A

T

95
Q

Sample in diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO)

A

blood

96
Q

Sample in diagnosis of Septicemia, Bacteremia, Typhoid Fever, SBE

A

blood

97
Q

Sample in diagnosis of Septicemia, Bacteremia, Typhoid Fever, SBE

A

blood

98
Q

In blood sample, collect before and right after _____________

A

fever spike

99
Q

T or F. In blood collection, collect before and right after fever spike; 4-5 cultures placed an hour apart

A

F. 2-3 cultures

100
Q

Blood collection. Volume for adults

A

20 ml

101
Q

Blood collection. Volume for pediatrics

A

1-20 ml (1-5 ml)

102
Q

Blood: Media ratio

A

1:10

103
Q

Media of choice for blood sample

A

Broth (BHI, TSB, Biphasic Media, Thioglycollate Broth)

104
Q

T or F. MT collects abdominal fluid, amniotic fluid, ascitic fluid, bile, synovial fluid, pleural fluid, pericardial fluid through needle aspiration

A

F. Only MD can do all of that. MT does the culture media

105
Q

Gastric tube inserted through the nose

A

Levine

106
Q

Gastric tube inserted through the mouth

A

Rehfuss

107
Q

Sample for the Diagnosis of Meningitis or Meningoencephalitis

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

108
Q

CFS collection

A

Lumbar Tap (3rd-4th Lumbar Vertebra)

109
Q

Transport the specimens to the laboratory ______________

Ideally: ________
Preferably up to _________

A

Immediately
30 mins
2 hours

110
Q

Boric acid is a preservative for

A

urine

111
Q

T or F. CSF can be refrigerated for bacteriology

A

F.

112
Q

Percentage of SPS liquid

A

0.025% - 0.03% Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

113
Q

Storage temp. Catheter tips, CSF for viruses, outer ear swab

A

Ref. 4 degree celsius

114
Q

Storage temp. CSF for bacteria, abscess, lesion, wound, body fluids, inner ear, preserved urine

A

22 degree celsius

115
Q

Storage temp. CSF

A

37 degree celsius

116
Q

Storage temp. Serum for Serology

A

-20 degree celsius

117
Q

Specimen priority level for Amniotic fluid, blood,
brain, CSF, heart valve, pericardial fluid

A

Level 1 Critical/Invasive

118
Q

Specimen priority level for Bloody fluids, bone, wound drainage, feces, sputum, tissue

A

Level 2 Unpreserved

119
Q

Specimen priority level for Catheter tip, urine, tissue
for quantification

A

Level 3 Quantitation Required

120
Q

Specimen priority level for Feces in preservative, urine in preservative, swabs in holding medium

A

Level 4 Preserved

121
Q

Specimen priority level for sputum/AFB culture

A

Level 5 Batch Processing

122
Q

Observation. Gross appearance and physical appearance. Determine specimen adequacy and quality

A

Macroscopic observation

123
Q

Observation. Useful and rapid information. Specimen Quality. Infectious Process Indication. Guide

A

Microscopic observation

124
Q

Incubation time for aerobic bacteria

A

21% oxygen, 0.03% CO2

125
Q

Incubation time for Capnophiles

A

5-10% CO2; 15% Oxygen

126
Q

Incubation time for Microaerophiles

A

5-6% or 5-10% oxygen

BACTE (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions