Underwriting Flashcards

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1
Q

Rule 101 of Regulation M generally prohibits participants in a distribution from:

Buying or bidding for the security being distributed during the restricted period
Selling or offering the security being distributed during the restricted period
Joining a syndicate distributing the security in which the broker-dealer makes a market
Maintaining a net-long position in the security being distributed during the restricted period

A

A: Distribution participants (syndicate members, selling group members, and any other broker-dealers helping to sell the security being offered to the public) may not bid for or purchase the subject security (the security being distributed) during the restricted period. The restricted period generally begins with the later of five business days prior to pricing, or whenever the broker-dealer becomes a participant. It ends when the broker-dealer participation is over. However, if the subject security has an average daily trading volume (ADTV) value of at least $100,000 and the issuer’s public float value is $25 million or more, the five-business-day standard is reduced to one business day. Exceptions to Rule 101 include the following.

Transactions involving government and municipal bonds, nonconvertible investment-grade debt and preferred stock, and registered investment company securities
Actively traded securities, which are those with an ADTV value of at least $1 million, where the public float value of the issuer’s common stock is at least $150 million
Odd-lot transactions
The exercise of any option, warrant, right, or similar instrument during the restricted period, regardless of when it was acquired
Unsolicited brokerage transactions and unsolicited purchases as principal
Securities of domestic and foreign issuers eligible for a 1933 Act exemption under Rule 144A if sold to qualified institutional buyers (QIBs), and certain Regulation S transactions
Transactions in the subject security that are part of a basket strategy, if the basket is not used for manipulation – the subject security must be no more than 5% of the basket, which must contain at least 20 securities
Inadvertent (de minimis) transactions
However, any activity that is obviously manipulative will violate general SEC antifraud rules, whether the activity is listed as an exception or not. [60853]

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2
Q

If a syndicate manager is underwriting securities subject to Rule 101 of Regulation M, which TWO of the following types of orders may be executed for the firm’s customers during the distribution period?

Unsolicited agency orders
Solicited agency orders
Solicited principal orders
Solicitation of offers to buy the securities that are being distributed

I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV

A

B: If a broker-dealer is participating in the distribution of a security subject to Rule 101 of Regulation M, it may not solicit orders from its customers to purchase already-outstanding securities of the same issuer. This rule applies whether the firm is acting in an agency or dealer capacity. Unsolicited transactions are always permitted. A broker-dealer is permitted to solicit an offer to buy the (new) securities being distributed. The firm must notify FINRA by way of a Restricted Period Notification Form (aka regulatory wire) if it is changing its market-maker status based on an upcoming offering, or if it is engaged in stabilizing transactions. [60722]

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3
Q

All of the following persons are defined as restricted persons under the New Issue Rule, EXCEPT:

A portfolio manager employed by an insurance company
A registered representative employed by a general securities firm
A registered representative employed by a broker-dealer that only transacts business in mutual funds
The parents that reside in the same household as a registered representative employed by a member firm

A

C
All the choices listed are considered restricted persons except the registered representative employed by a broker-dealer that sells only mutual funds. An exemption exists from the definition of a restricted person for personnel of a limited broker-dealer. A limited broker-dealer restricts its business to investment company/variable contract securities or direct participation programs. [60870]

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4
Q
A person who has purchased a new issue of securities through an underwriter, would be in violation of the 1934 Act if that person had sold short the same securities:
5 business days preceding pricing
10 business days preceding pricing
13 business days preceding pricing
20 business days preceding pricing
A

A: Rule 105 of Regulation M stipulates that it is a violation for any person to sell short a security that is the subject of a public offering, and purchase the same security from an underwriter, if the short sale was executed five business days (or less) prior to the pricing of the offering. If the pricing of the offering occurs within five business days of the filing of the registration statement, then Rule 105 applies from the filing date until the pricing of the issue. [60863]

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5
Q

In the case of a distribution regarding a merger, acquisition, or exchange offer the restricted period according to Regulation M is:

Five business days prior to the date the proxy solicitation materials are first disseminated and ending upon the completion of the distribution
One business day prior to the date the proxy solicitation materials are first disseminated and ending upon the completion of the distribution
The day the proxy solicitation materials are first disseminated and ending upon the completion of the distribution
Ten business days after the date the proxy solicitation materials are first disseminated and ending upon the completion of the distribution

A

C: Under Regulation M, in the case of a distribution regarding a merger, acquisition, or exchange offer, the restricted period is defined as the day the proxy solicitation materials are first disseminated to holders of the securities and ending upon the completion of the distribution. The one and five business day period prior to pricing refers to a distribution of securities (for example, a follow-on offering). [61308]

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6
Q
Immediately prior to the effective date of an underwriting, an adverse event occurs that causes a sharp decline in the price of the stock. Which of the following clauses permits the underwriter to withdraw without a penalty?
All-or-none
Best-efforts
Market-out
Penalty bid
A

C: A market-out clause in an underwriting agreement allows the underwriter to withdraw from the issue if certain events occur that make the sale of the issue difficult or impossible. (99564)

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7
Q
An initial public offering has been priced at $10.00 per share. The manager's fee is 14 cents, the selling syndicate member's compensation 56 cents, and the selling concession 42 cents. The issuer will receive:
$10.00 per share
$8.88 per share
$9.44 per share
$9.30 per share
A

D: The underwriting spread is comprised of the manager’s fee and the compensation paid to the selling syndicate members. The selling concession is part of the syndicate compensation. Therefore, the total spread is 14 cents (manager’s fee) plus 56 cents (the syndicate compensation) for a total of 70 cents. The issuer will receive $9.30 per share ($10.00 - .70).

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8
Q
Which of the following market participants is responsible for maintaining firm quotes on the Nasdaq Market Center Execution System?
The Designated Market Maker
A market maker
An ECN
An order-entry firm
A

B: A registered Nasdaq market maker is responsible for maintaining firm quotes and executing orders that are entered into the Nasdaq Market Center Execution System. The Designated Market Maker (formerly known as a specialist) is responsible for maintaining a fair and orderly market on the floor of the NYSE. An order-entry firm places orders with market makers for execution. An electronic communication network (ECN) accepts orders and attempts to match up orders in its system. [60983]

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9
Q

Relevant information may be found in Exhibit 54.
How much money will American Motors receive from the sale of the common stock, assuming the underwriters exercise the overallotment option?

$15,655,695,000
$2,348,354,250
$3,275,250,000
None

A

The prospectus specifically states that all of the shares of common stock are being sold by selling stockholders, and the company will not receive any proceeds from the sale. The cover page of this prospectus also contains information on a concurrent offering of preferred stock by the company. Since this question is asking for the amount of proceeds from the sale of common stock, this information is irrelevant. [99919]

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10
Q

How much money will the selling shareholders of American Motors receive from the sale of the common stock, assuming the underwriters exercise the overallotment option?

None
$136,050,750
$15,655,695,000
$18,004,049,250

A

D: The selling shareholders are selling 478,000,000 shares through the offering and the overallotment or Green Shoe provision allows the underwriters to purchase an additional 71,700,000 shares. Assuming the underwriters exercise the overallotment option, the selling shareholders will be selling a total of 549,700,000 shares. The proceeds to the selling shareholders is $32.7525 and, therefore, the total proceeds to the selling shareholders is $18,004,049,250 (549,700,000 x $32.7525). Note that if the question would have asked how much the issuer would have received from the offering, the answer would be zero. The prospectus specifically states that all of the shares of common stock are being sold by selling stockholders, and the company will not receive any proceeds from the sale.

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11
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning Regulation M and the distribution of a Nasdaq issue?
The managing underwriter must file a notice with FINRA indicating whether the participants in the distribution will be excused from trading, or will be passive market makers during the restricted period
FINRA automatically applies the status of passive market maker to all distribution participants unless the managing underwriter files a notice requesting excused withdrawal status
FINRA requires that all distribution participants withdraw from market making and may execute transactions only as agent on an unsolicited basis
Each distribution participant that is a market maker must file a separate notice with FINRA requesting excused withdrawal or passive market-making status

A

A: For any Nasdaq security that is part of a distribution subject to Regulation M, the managing underwriter must request an Underwriting Activity Report from FINRA’s Corporate Financing Department. The report will identify if the security’s restricted period begins one day or five days prior to pricing, or whether it is exempt as an actively traded security. For those securities that are not exempt, the manager must submit to FINRA’s Market Regulations Department, no later than the day prior to the commencement of the restricted period, a Restricted Period Notification Form, indicating whether distribution participants will be excused, or designated as passive market makers. [61258]

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12
Q
A syndicate manager is considering stabilizing an offering of a Nasdaq-listed stock. The shares are now trading in the secondary market and are being quoted at less than the public offering price. The stabilizing activity would be initiated during normal Nasdaq operating hours after the stock has opened for trading. If the current ask price on Nasdaq is greater than the last reported transaction price, what is the highest price at which stabilization could be initiated?
The current best bid
The last transaction price
The current best offer
The public offering price
A

After the opening of quotations in a security’s principal market, stabilization may be initiated at a price no higher than the last independent transaction in the principal market if (1) the security has traded in its principal market (Nasdaq in this case) on the day stabilizing is initiated or on the preceding day, and (2) the current asked price in the principal market is equal to or greater than the last independent transaction price. Since both (1) and (2) are true in this question, stabilizing can be initiated at a price no higher than the last independent transaction.

If either condition (1) or (2) is not satisfied, stabilizing may start after the opening of quotations at a price no higher than the last independent bid for the security on Nasdaq. The maximum stabilizing bid is the public offering price; however, a lower ceiling may apply. [60861]

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13
Q
A company is considering listing its common stock on an exchange. Place the following trading venues in order from LEAST to MOST stringent listing requirements.
NYSE
Nasdaq Capital Market
Nasdaq Global Market
Nasdaq Global Select Market
II, III, IV, I
II, III, I, IV
III, II, IV, I
I, IV, III, II
A

Nasdaq capital -> nasdaq global -> NYSE -> nasdaq global select

Considering the three levels of Nasdaq, the Capital Market has the least stringent initial listing requirements. The Nasdaq Global Market introduces more stringent listing requirements for net income, publicly held shares, stockholders’ equity, etc. The NYSE initial listing requirements are less stringent than Nasdaq Global Select in several area such as publicly held shares, and financial criteria. [60989]

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14
Q

Market maker (MM) #1 has placed a bid on Nasdaq as a passive market maker. MM #1’s bid was placed at the same price as two other market makers and was at the inside bid. The two independent market makers have just dropped their bids by $0.05, leaving MM #1 alone at the inside. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Once a passive bid has been placed, it does not need to be lowered
MM #1 does not need to change its bid until it buys two times the minimum quotation size for that security, or its remaining daily purchase limit
MM #1 must immediately lower its bid so that it is no higher than the highest independent bid
MM #1 must immediately withdraw its Nasdaq quote after notifying Market Operations

A

B: When making a passive market, a firm involved in a distribution may not enter a bid or effect a purchase at a price that exceeds the highest independent bid on Nasdaq. In a falling market, when the last independent bid drops below that of a passive market maker, the passive market maker may maintain its bid until its purchases have reached or exceeded the lesser of two times the minimum quote size for that security (as set by FINRA), or the passive market maker’s remaining daily limit. If twice the minimum order size is executed, the passive market maker must drop its bid to or below the highest independent bid. If its daily purchase limit is reached first, it must withdraw from the market for the rest of the day. In a rising market, a passive market maker may raise its bid when the best independent bid rises, but is not required to do so. [60856]

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15
Q
For an initial public offering, the total dollar amount of the underwriter's fees is found in which of the following?
The letter of intent
The final prospectus
The preliminary prospectus
The S-1 registration statement
A

B: For an initial public offering, the total dollar amount of the underwriter’s fees is found in the final prospectus. Since the other documents are created prior to the offering, the underwriting fees would not yet be known. (79620)

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16
Q

Bear Brokerage is acting as the lead underwriter for the IPO of Global Transport Ltd. The new issue is expected to be priced at $22.00. Which of the following entities could potentially buy shares below the public offering price?
Only syndicate members
Any FINRA members and officers of the issuer
Any FINRA members or QIBs
Only FINRA members

A

D: Under industry rules, syndicate and selling group agreements set the price at which the securities are to be sold to the public, or the formula to determine the price. The agreements must also state the amount and under what circumstances concessions are permitted. According to FINRA rules, only FINRA members are permitted to receive a concession or allowance. This must be based on the member firm’s participation in the underwriting. Choice (a) is incorrect because both syndicate and selling group members may receive shares at a discount from the public offering price. [60732]

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17
Q

In which of the following circumstances may a member firm recover a commission from an associated person who sold shares of a new issue that were subsequently flipped by a customer?
The managing underwriter assesses a penalty bid on the entire syndicate
A customer of a syndicate member sells the IPO on the same day
The customer sells the IPO when there is a significant increase in the secondary market
The customer flipping the shares had not previously purchased IPOs

A

A: Flipping is defined as the initial sale of a new issue that occurs within 30 days following its offering date as an IPO. In many circumstances, flipping may create downward pressure on the price of the security in the secondary market and, therefore, underwriters may attempt to discourage these types of sales. FINRA prohibits a member firm and any person associated with a member firm from directly or indirectly recovering, or attempting to recover, any portion of a commission or credit that was paid or awarded to an associated person who sold shares of a new issue that were subsequently flipped by a customer. An exception to this prohibition is available if the managing underwriter has assessed a penalty bid on the entire syndicate. (79634)

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18
Q

In which of the following meetings may a research analyst participate?
An internal meeting between the investment banking and legal departments of his member firm to perform fact checking of a new issue
A meeting between prospective high net worth clients and the issuer concerning a potential IPO
A meeting between the investment banking department and two current clients regarding a merger
A meeting with the head of research, the investment banking department, and prospective investment banking clients

A

A: Under industry rules, research analysts may participate in due diligence meetings and the screening of potential investment banking clients; however, they may not participate in or attend meetings for the purpose of soliciting investment banking business (pitches). The rules are intended to separate the research department from the investment banking function of member firms. [60656]

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19
Q

Exhibit 35.
Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE concerning the offering?

This is a primary offering
This is a combined primary and secondary offering
The net proceeds to the company will be $121,210,005
The net proceeds to the company will be $347,199,997
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV

A

C: This is an initial public offering of shares by both the company and the selling shareholders. Shares sold by the company are a primary offering, while shares sold by selling shareholders are a secondary offering. The offering price is $17.00 and the underwriting discount is $1.19. The net proceeds figure to the company and selling shareholders is $15.81 per share. The net proceeds to the company are $121,210,005 (7,666,667 x $15.81). The company will not receive any proceeds from the shares being sold by selling shareholders.

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20
Q

A company has a 70% float, and the largest shareholder owns 32% of the company. If this large shareholder wants to sell some of his shares of the company’s stock, which of the following choices would have the MOST financial risk for an investment banker?
A block trade
A follow-on offering
Selling the shares through a Rule 144 exemption
An all-or-none offering

A

A
A block trade occurs when the investment banking firm purchases shares at a discounted price from one or more of its large shareholders. This type of transaction would impose a large financial risk on the firm since it would be acting in a principal capacity. The firm would need to use its capital to purchase the shares and would need to liquidate the shares without causing the stock price to decline below the price it paid to acquire the shares. In the other transactions, the firm may act in an agency capacity and not risk its capital. [61374]

21
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding the initial and continued listing requirements of Nasdaq?
The company is subject to corporate governance rules
An electronic communication network (ECN) may be included to determine the number of market makers for an issue
The bid price may not be below a minimum amount
A financial test of the publicly held shares’ market value must be satisfied

A

B: Nasdaq has specific requirements that must be satisfied in order to obtain initial listing and maintain continued listing. While different requirements exist for Global Select, Global and Capital Market listings, each tier is subject to corporate governance rules. Additionally, the bid price must not fall below a minimum amount (for a specified period of time) and a financial test of the publicly held shares’ market value must be satisfied. Electronic communication networks (ECNs) are not included when determining the number of market makers for the initial or maintenance listing requirements. [60988]

22
Q

SEC rules permit stabilizing outside the United States during an offering in the U.S., without being in violation with Rule 104 of Regulation M. Which of the following is NOT a condition that must be met under the rule?
None of the securities being distributed are to be sold to non-U.S. persons
There is no stabilizing activity in the United States
Any foreign stabilization occurs in a country with regulations similar to U.S. rules
Stabilization does not occur above the U.S. offering price

A

A: All of the conditions must be met except choice (a). Whether non-U.S. persons may purchase the offering generally depends on the rules of the jurisdiction in which they live. [60862]

23
Q

Beluga Financial acted as the comanager of the initial public offering for The Caviar House’s common equity issue. Under which TWO of the following circumstances would Beluga be permitted to publish a research report during the quiet period following The Caviar House’s IPO?
The Caviar House files for bankruptcy
The Caviar House announces it will not meet earnings expectations
The Caviar House is acquired by another company
The Caviar House announces there will be no change in its executive officers
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV

A

Under the significant news or events exceptions to quiet periods, firms that would otherwise be restricted from publishing or distributing research reports, or whose analysts would be restricted from making public appearances, may publish or distribute research reports and make public appearances with the authorization of the firm’s legal compliance department. Significant news or events are things that have a material impact on or render a material change in a company’s financial condition, operations, or earnings and would require the filing of SEC Form 8-K.

Bankruptcy and acquisition requires the filing of Form 8-K. However, an ordinary announcement that a firm will not meet its earnings expectations, or an announcement that its executive officers will remain the same, does not require the filing of Form 8-K. [60827]

24
Q

Tofu Steak House, a vegan-friendly dining venue, is seeking to raise $10 million to expand its business through a best-efforts offering. Small-Fry Brokerage is managing the deal. Surprisingly, Small-Fry is having difficulty placing the shares. Which TWO of the following statements regarding this scenario are TRUE?
The offering period may not be extended without filing a new Form S-1
The offering period could potentially be extended
Tofu employees may participate in the offering
Tofu employees may only participate in the offering if all public demand is satisfied
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV

A

C: The underwriting is being conducted on a best-efforts basis. Small-Fry is acting as an agent in the transaction. Any unsold shares will be retained by the issuer. The offering period of a best-efforts underwriting may be extended, if this contingency is noted in the prospectus. The issuer would need to add a supplement to the prospectus and send it to all subscribers to advise them of the extension. This supplement is often a sticker that is attached to the prospectus. There is no requirement to file an entirely new Form S-1. However, an amendment to the prior document would be required. Tofu employees may participate regardless of the level of public demand for the issue. [60718]

25
Q

Tofu Steak House, a vegan-friendly dining venue, is seeking to raise $10 million to expand its business through a best-efforts offering. Small-Fry Brokerage is managing the deal. Surprisingly, Small-Fry is having difficulty placing the shares. Which TWO of the following statements regarding this scenario are TRUE?
The offering period may not be extended without filing a new Form S-1
The offering period could potentially be extended
Tofu employees may participate in the offering
Tofu employees may only participate in the offering if all public demand is satisfied
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV

A

C: The underwriting is being conducted on a best-efforts basis. Small-Fry is acting as an agent in the transaction. Any unsold shares will be retained by the issuer. The offering period of a best-efforts underwriting may be extended, if this contingency is noted in the prospectus. The issuer would need to add a supplement to the prospectus and send it to all subscribers to advise them of the extension. This supplement is often a sticker that is attached to the prospectus. There is no requirement to file an entirely new Form S-1. However, an amendment to the prior document would be required. Tofu employees may participate regardless of the level of public demand for the issue. [60718]

26
Q

Pickette Financial Services has agreed to participate in the IPO of Swank Tanks, Inc., as an underwriter. If an analyst at Pickette wants to initiate coverage on Swank Tanks, she:
Must wait 10 calendar days after the offering date
Must wait 25 calendar days after the offering date
Must wait 40 calendar days after the offering date
May not issue a research report due to a conflict of interest

A

B :A research analyst of Pickette Financial Services must wait 25 days after the date of the offering to publish a research report, or make a public appearance. This quiet period is applied to members that have agreed to participate or members that are participating in an issuer’s initial public offering as an underwriter or a dealer. There is a quiet period for managers or comanagers following an initial public offering for 40 calendar days and 10 calendar days following a secondary offering. [60829]

27
Q

Melibee Investment Group is participating in a secondary offering for Rancho Tapos, Inc. Emily is a research analyst at Melibee who has just completed a research report on Rancho Tapos. Emily may take which TWO of the following actions regarding the secondary offering?
Answer questions from clients regarding the offering
Attend road shows for the offering
Attend internal meetings that exclude the investment banking department
Attend internal meetings with the investment banking department regarding the offering
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV

A

A: Emily may answer questions from clients regarding the offering and attend internal meetings regarding the offering that exclude the investment banking department (and personnel of the issuing firm). A research analyst may educate personnel and clients of his firm about a particular investment banking transaction as long as his presentation is fair, balanced, and not misleading, and there are no members of the investment banking department or issuing company present. Any communication with a client that also involves personnel from the investment banking department or company management of the issuer violates SRO rules prohibiting three-way communications. Without members of the investment banking department or the issuing company present, the research analyst is under less pressure to give an overly optimistic review of the transaction. Investment banking personnel (but not sales personnel) are prohibited from directing a research analyst to engage in communications with customers or prospective customers regarding sales and/or marketing related to investment banking services transactions. The firm’s research analyst may not attend the road show. [60822]

28
Q
Final settlement of a syndicate account must be made no later than how many days following the syndicate settlement date?
30
45
60
90
A

D: The syndicate settlement date occurs when the issuer delivers (new issue) securities to the account of the underwriting syndicate. According to FINRA rules, the final settlement of the syndicate accounts by the syndicate manager is required no later than 90 days following the syndicate settlement date. Any delay beyond the 90-day settlement date requires the syndicate manager to provide notification to FINRA. [60740]

29
Q

Which TWO of the following types of accounts are permitted to purchase an initial public offering of equity securities?
An account in which 8% of the owners are managing directors of a member firm
An account in which 12% of the owners are portfolio managers
A broker-dealer account after it made a bona fide public offering of the securities
An account for a broker-dealer that only transacts business in mutual funds
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV

A

A: One of the exemptions found in the New Issue Rule allows an equity IPO to be sold to an account if the beneficial owners are restricted persons and their ownership of the account does not exceed 10%. The rule does not distinguish between the job titles of employees of a broker-dealer. Another exemption allows the broker-dealer to place the securities in its own account after it has made a bona fide offering of those securities. Employees of a limited broker-dealer are exempt from the definition of a restricted person, but the broker-dealer is considered restricted. [60872]

30
Q

If a member of a syndicate, other than the manager, effects a stabilizing bid:
It is a violation of industry rules
The firm is required to notify the manager within three business days of any stabilizing transaction
The firm is required to notify the manager prior to any stabilizing transaction
The firm is required to notify the manager no later than the syndicate settlement date

A

B: Normally the syndicate manager places a stabilizing bid, or conducts the syndicate’s short covering transaction. However, if a syndicate member, other than the manager, effects such a transaction, the firm is required to notify the manager within three business days of effecting the transaction. The manager must maintain these records as part of its record-keeping responsibilities. [60891]

31
Q
If a firm is the lead underwriter for an initial public offering of an emerging growth company (EGC), the quiet period is:
0 days
10 days
25 days
40 days
A

A: FINRA amended the quiet period rules to conform to the requirements of the Jumpstart Our Business Startups (JOBS) Act, however, the changes only apply to an issuer that is considered an emerging growth company (EGC). An EGC is defined as a company that has total annual revenues of less than $1 billion during the most recently completed fiscal year. The quiet periods (e.g., 10, 15, 25, and 40 days) which restrict a research analyst’s ability to publish a research report or make a public appearance concerning a securities offering have, been eliminated for EGCs. (79222)

32
Q

The Bergman Basketball Corporation, a NYSE listed company, is selling additional shares of stock that will be priced on Friday, October 23. The offering was completed on the same day. A person who purchases Bergman common stock through a broker-dealer that is participating in the underwriting would be in violation of Rule 105 of Regulation M if he had also executed a short sale on:
Wednesday, October 14 and covered the short on Monday, October 19
Wednesday, October 21 and covered the short on Friday, October 23
Wednesday, October 21, covered the short on Thursday, October 22 and purchased the new issue shares on October 23
Friday, October 23 and covered the short on Thursday, October 29

A

B: Rule 105 of Regulation M stipulates that it is a violation for any person to sell short the security that is the subject of an offering, and purchase the offered security from the underwriter if the short sale was executed during the period beginning five business days prior to the pricing of the offering and ending with the pricing of the issue. Choice (b) is a violation since the person is shorting the stock within the five-business-day period and purchasing the stock on the pricing date when the offering was completed (the offered security). Choice (a) is acceptable since the short was executed prior to the five business day period. Choice (c) is acceptable due to the bona fide purchase exception. This exception allows a person who was not aware of the offering or changes her mind to close out the short sale at least one business day prior to the day of the pricing and still purchase the offered securities. Choice (d) is acceptable since the short sale that was effected during the five-business-day period was closed out after the offering was complete (in the secondary market). [60893]

33
Q

A company that is applying for listing on the NYSE must meet which TWO of the following criteria?
The issuer must have a minimum number of round-lot shareholders
The issuer must have a minimum number of domestically underwritten shares
Common stock price must be at least $10 at the time of listing
The issuer must have a minimum number of outstanding shares
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV

A

B: In order for a company to obtain a NYSE listing, it must satisfy the following minimum criteria.

(1) 400 U.S. round-lot shareholders
(2) 1,100,000 outstanding shares
(3) A total market value of all public shares of $100 million,
or $40 million for an IPO, Carve-out, or Spin-off
(4) A $4 stock price at the time of listing
(5) At least one of several alternative financial tests

There is no requirement to have a minimum number of domestically underwritten shares. (79525)

34
Q

A tail fee is BEST defined as a fee:
Charged by an underwriter for expenses incurred in an offering of securities
Charged by an underwriter for financial advisory services in the event another offering is executed by the issuer by the same underwriter
Charged by an underwriter for financial advisory services in the event an offering is cancelled and the issuer subsequently uses a different underwriter
Paid by the managing underwriter to a member of the selling group on shares sold after the beginning of trading in the secondary market

A

C: A termination (tail) fee is a fee charged by an underwriter for financial advisory services in the event an offering is cancelled and the issuer subsequently uses a different underwriter. This addresses the risk that after agreeing in writing (signing an engagement letter), an issuer having received financial advice uses a different underwriter to execute a similar transaction in lieu of the transaction subject to the engagement letter. (71278)

35
Q

who do you tell for stabilizing

A

SEC and FINRA

36
Q

An underwriter who will be engaging in stabilization must maintain files containing all of the following information, EXCEPT:
The percentage participation of each member of the syndicate
The names and addresses of the members of the syndicate
The dates when the penalty bid was in effect
The underwriting spread

A

D: According to SEC Rule 17a-2, an underwriter who will be stabilizing an issue, effecting a syndicate short covering, or implementing a penalty bid, must maintain a record of the following information.

The percentage participation or commitment of each member of the syndicate
The names and addresses of the members of the syndicate
The dates when the penalty bid was in effect
The name and class of any security stabilized or any security in which a syndicate short covering transaction was effected
The price, date, and time at which each stabilizing purchase or syndicate short covering transaction was effected
In addition, each syndicate member must receive information from the manager relating to the name, date, and time at which the first stabilizing purchase was effected, and the time that stabilizing was terminated. These records must be kept for a minimum of three years. [61224]

37
Q

In which of the following circumstances has a customer engaged in flipping?
She effected the initial sale of an IPO on the same day as the offering date
She effected the initial sale of an IPO within 30 days following the offering date
She effected the initial sale of an IPO within 40 days following the offering date
She effected a purchase of an IPO within 30 days of the offering date

A

B: Flipping is defined as a customer effecting the initial sale of a new issue within 30 days following the offering date of the IPO. (79635)

38
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning an underwriting agreement?
It is a signed agreement between the managing underwriters and the other syndicate members
It is a signed agreement between all of the underwriters and the issuer
It is a signed agreement between the managing underwriters and the issuer
It is a signed agreement between the managing underwriters and the members of the selling group

A

C: The underwriting agreement is a signed agreement between the lead or managing underwriter(s) and the issuer. Although all of the underwriters may be named in the agreement, only the representative for the underwriters (i.e., the manager) signs the agreement. The signed agreement between the managing underwriter and the other members of the syndicate is referred to as the syndicate agreement. (79621)

39
Q

Rosenfeld Cycles has been publicly traded for several years and is considering listing on the NYSE. While it satisfies most of the listing standards, due to recent adverse market conditions, the market value of the company’s shares falls below the NYSE minimum. Which TWO of the following statements would satisfy the NYSE listing standards?
Rosenfeld Cycles could issue additional shares to meet the minimum standards
Rosenfeld Cycles could request a waiver from the NYSE
The NYSE will consider foreign distributions of the company’s stock
The NYSE could consider stockholders’ equity as an alternative measure
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV

A

B: A company can satisfy the minimum market value requirement by issuing additional shares. In situations where the market value has declined as a result of adverse market conditions, the NYSE will consider stockholders’ equity of $60 or $100 million (as applicable) as an alternative measure, provided that the public market value is no more than 10% below the minimum. Only U.S. public offerings are considered in the market valuation of shares. The NYSE will not provide a waiver of this requirement. [60986]

40
Q

The maximum underwriting compensation associated with the sale of a limited partnership public offering is:

A

10%

41
Q
Which of the following must be notified by the syndicate manager if the firm anticipates an offering will not close on the settlement date?
FINRA
The SEC
The issuer
The attorneys that represent the issuer
A

FINRA

42
Q

A member firm is prohibited from accepting which of the following orders for a new issue prior to the commencement of trading in the secondary market?
A limit order
A market order
An order from another broker-dealer
An order from a noninstitutional customer

A

Market order: FINRA rules prohibit a member firm from accepting a market order for a new issue prior to the commencement of trading for that stock in the secondary market. An initial public offering (new issue) may experience volatility as it commences (begins) to trade. Once these securities begin to trade in the secondary market, there may be a large difference between the public offering price and the price at which the stock begins to trade in the secondary market. If a customer places a market order for a new issue, the price received by the customer may be much higher than the IPO price. (71277)

43
Q

All of the following statements are TRUE concerning preconditions for sale requirements under the New Issue Rule, EXCEPT:
The verification may be made through electronic communication
The verification may be made through oral communication
The verification must be conducted prior to the sale of new issues
After the initial verification, the annual negative consent letter will be permitted

A

B: Prior to selling a new issue to an account, a firm must meet certain preconditions for sale. A firm must obtain representation from an account holder or any authorized party of an account, stating that the account is eligible to purchase new issues in accordance with the New Issue Rule before distributing a new issue to that account. The representation from the account holder may be in the form of an affirmative statement, which positively declares that the account is eligible. A firm may use electronic communications to verify account eligibility for new issues, but may not rely on oral statements. A member firm that sells new issues must reverify eligibility every 12 months and must retain copies of all information and records used in verification for a minimum of at least three years. [60871]

44
Q

Harry, an analyst at your firm, needs to verify a fact contained within a research report that he is preparing. Which of the following choices offers the BEST method to obtain this information?
He may ask an investment banker at your firm who maintains a relationship with the subject company
He may ask the CEO of the subject company or other officers of the company authorized to release such information
He may ask the investment banking department, but ensure that the legal or compliance department is properly notified
He is not permitted to seek guidance from the subject company, or your firm’s investment banking department

A

C: Verification of facts contained within a research report is one of the few situations where the research and investment banking departments may communicate about a research report. However, a representative from the member’s legal or compliance department must be present for oral communications, or the communication must be routed through legal or compliance. The member’s legal or compliance department must be sent a copy of any written communications. [60681]

45
Q

According to the FINRA Corporate Financing Rule, compensation disclosures must be filed with FINRA:
No later than 5 business days following the registration statement filing with the SEC
At least 15 business days prior to the anticipated offering, if conducted as a private placement
At least 10 calendar days prior to the anticipated date of the offering
No later than one business day following the filing of the registration statement with the SEC or any state securities commission
I and III only
I and IV only
II and III only
II and IV only

A

D: The FINRA Corporate Financing Rule has two different filing requirements, based on whether the securities are registered or exempt from registration. If the securities are to be registered, the required disclosures are to be filed with FINRA no later than one business day following the filing of the issuer’s registration statement with the SEC (or any state securities commission). If the issue is exempt from registration, the disclosures must be filed with FINRA at least 15 business days prior to the anticipated offering. [61009]

46
Q
The syndicate manager for which type of offering must notify FINRA if the firm anticipates an offering will not close on the settlement date?
A best-efforts underwriting
A rights offering
A firm-commitment underwriting
An all-or-none underwriting
A

C: FINRA rules require the syndicate manager of a firm-commitment public offering to immediately, but in any event no later than the scheduled closing date, notify the Uniform Practice Department of any anticipated delay in the closing of an offering beyond the closing date in the offering document. (74362)

47
Q

Which of the following choices is permitted to purchase an equity IPO?
The immediate family member of an employee of the issuer
The immediate family member of an employee of a FINRA broker-dealer not involved in the offering
An attorney involved in the offering
A broker-dealer listed on the prospectus that is not the managing underwriter

A

An equity IPO may not be purchased by restricted persons, including:

FINRA member firms and any associated person (i.e., an employee) of the member firm
An immediate family member of an employee of a member firm. Immediate family members include a spouse, children, parents, siblings, in-laws, and any other persons who are materially supported by an employee of a member firm.
The definition of a restricted person also includes finders and fiduciaries (such as attorneys and accountants) involved in the new issue, and portfolio managers, who buy and sell securities on behalf of institutional investors who are buying for their own account.

An exception is granted that allows a restricted person to purchase an equity IPO if an immediate family member is a director or employee of the issuer. This is known as an issuer-directed sale. All FINRA member broker-dealers, whether involved in the syndicate or not are defined as restricted persons. [99904]

48
Q

An investment banking firm is assisting an issuer in raising capital through an offering of securities where investors will have returned all, or a portion, of their investment, if some of the securities are not sold. This practice is permissible:
If the numbers of units, the price, and the completion date of the offering are specified
Without the need to specify the numbers of units, the price, or the completion date of the offering
If the offering is sold exclusively to qualified institutional buyers
If the offering is comprised of nonconvertible fixed income securities

A

The type of offering described is a best-efforts underwriting. This type of offering is permitted if the numbers of units, the price, and the completion date of the offering are specified. [60733]

49
Q

Four market makers are displaying the following bids for a Nasdaq stock.
MMA 23.45 PSMM
MMB 23.40 PSMM
MMC 23.10
MMD 22.90
MMA is about to lower its bid in compliance with Rule 103 of Regulation M. What is the highest price to which MMA may drop its bid?

  1. 90
  2. 09
  3. 10
  4. 40
A

C: MMA must lower its bid to a price no higher than the highest independent bid on Nasdaq for that stock. Since MMB is also a passive market maker, its bid is not independent. MMC’s bid is the highest independent bid. [60859]