Public and Private Offerings Flashcards
A Well-Known Seasoned Issuer (WKSI) has filed a shelf registration statement with the SEC. The company will be offering senior debt securities, subordinated debt securities, common stock, preferred stock, and warrants. Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE?
For each offering of securities, the issuer is required to file an S-3 registration statement
For each offering of securities, the issuer is required to file a prospectus supplement
The issuer is permitted to use a term sheet for each offering, provided it is filed as a free writing prospectus
The issuer is permitted to use a term sheet for each offering and is not required to file it as a free writing prospectus
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV
A Well-Known Seasoned Issuer (WKSI) is permitted to use an automatic shelf registration. The issuer must file an S-3 registration form for a specified dollar amount and type(s) of securities that it is planning to offer. Each time the issuer offers securities, it will file both a preliminary and then a final prospectus supplement with the SEC (for the specific securities being issued). According to SEC Rule 433, the issuer is permitted to use a term sheet for each offering, provided it is filed as a free writing prospectus. [61069]
Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE regarding the trading restrictions placed on a director of a publicly traded company?
There is a limit on the amount of registered stock the director may purchase
There is no limit on the amount of registered stock the director may purchase
There is a limit on the amount of unregistered stock the director may sell
There is no limit on the amount of unregistered stock the director may sell
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV
C
Restricted stock is stock that is not registered and is typically acquired by an individual through a private placement. With regard to restricted stock, the purchaser must hold the stock for 6 months before she may dispose of it. Control stock is registered stock that is acquired in the secondary market by an affiliate (control) person, such as an officer or director. A control person who acquires stock through an open-market purchase may sell the stock anytime. There is no limit placed on the number of registered shares an insider may purchase. According to Rule 144, there is a restriction on the sale of both restricted and control stock. [60353]
An issuer of an IPO has filed a registration statement and underwriters are currently using a red herring as the offering document. Which of the following actions would require the issuer to submit a final prospectus for this offering?
The offering price has been established
The financial statements are stale
The number of shares sold by selling shareholders decreased
The offering price is more than 15% higher than was anticipated
A
An issuer files an S-1 Form in the case of an IPO. Part of the S-1 Form is the preliminary registration statement or red herring that is used as a disclosure document for potential investors. In most cases, the offering price is omitted from the red herring (although a price range is permitted). Once this has been established, the issuer would file the final prospectus with the offering price, as well as other information based on the offering proceeds. If any material information is added or altered in respect to the original filing, an amended S-1 would be filed. Some of these events would include stale financial statements, a change in the number of shares being offered, material changes related to the issuer’s business, change of officers or directors, and additional required exhibits. Once the offering price is established, the issuer would file the final prospectus with the SEC. [61337]
Lieberman’s Muffins, a privately held company, has been discussing ways in which to raise capital. The company’s board of directors has approved an initial public offering and now plans to interview potential investment banking firms to determine who will lead the offering. If the company has not yet filed a registration statement with the SEC, which of the following statements is TRUE?
Once the board has approved the offering, the company is required to file a registration statement with the SEC
Any communication must be filed with the SEC, since the company will be discussing the offering with investment banking firms
The company is not allowed to communicate with the public until it has filed a registration statement with the SEC
The company may communicate with the public provided it does not mention the offering
D
The term gun-jumping refers to a communication made by an issuer during a period in which it is planning to make a public offering of securities, which would be in violation of the Securities Act of 1933. During this period, the issuer should not be engaged in any communication that might be seen as preconditioning the market for an offering. Relating to an IPO, this period is sometimes referred to as the quiet period. One of the safe harbors, related to an IPO, refers to any communication made more than 30 days prior to the filing of the registration statement and does not make reference to the offering. Therefore, a company that is planning an IPO is permitted to communicate with the public at least 30 days prior to the filing of a registration statement and not make a reference to a securities offering. This would not violate the SEC’s gun-jumping provisions. [61396]
Which of the following choices would NOT be subject to the holding period restriction under Rule 144?
Restricted stock acquired under an investment letter
Restricted stock acquired under a stock option plan
Control stock acquired under a private placement
Control stock acquired through an open-market purchase
D
There is a required holding period of six months for all restricted stock. Restricted stock is unregistered stock that was acquired as a result of a private placement. There is no required holding period for control stock. However, if an affiliate (control person) acquires stock as a result of a private placement, this stock would be considered restricted stock rather than control stock and would be subject to the holding period. Control stock acquired as a result of an open-market purchase is exempt from the holding period. [60357]
Which of the following investment banking services clients would be eligible to raise capital through an intrastate offering conducted under Rule 147?
A corporation headquartered in New York that conducts 90% of its business in Ohio and that intends to sell 100% of the new issue to Ohio residents
A corporation headquartered in Illinois that derives 70% of its revenue from activities in Illinois and intends to sell 100% of the new issue to Illinois residents
A corporation domiciled in Wisconsin that intends to sell 100% of the new issue to residents of Wisconsin and use the proceeds to build a plant in Minnesota
A resident corporation of Idaho that derives 85% of its revenues from activities within Idaho and intends to sell 100% of the new issue to Idaho residents
80%!!!
D
Rule 147 of the 1933 Act provides an exclusion from federal registration, if certain conditions are met.
The corporation selling the securities must be domiciled within the state where the securities will be sold.
80% or more of the corporation’s assets must be located within the state.
80% or more of the issuer’s gross revenues are derived from activities within the state where the issuer is domiciled.
80% or more of the sales proceeds from the new issue must be used within the state where the issuer is domiciled.
100% of the sales of the new issue are made to residents of the state where the issuer is domiciled.
Choice (a) is incorrect because the corporation is domiciled in New York and wishes to sell its securities to Ohio residents. Choice (b) is incorrect because the corporation derives less than 80% of its revenues from its operations in Illinois. Choice (c) is incorrect because the sales proceeds will be used to build a plant in a nonresident state.
An issuer that is eligible to register the sale of securities on Form S-3 has a public float of $850 million, but has not issued any debt. This is an example of:
A well-known seasoned issuer (WKSI)
A seasoned issuer
An ineligible issuer
An unseasoned issuer
A
A WKSI needs either $700 million of common equity outstanding (public float) or $1 billion of debt, but not both. (79593)
A well-known seasoned issuer (WKSI) is defined as a company that meets the following criteria:
- It is eligible to register on Form S-3 (short form registration statement) or Form F-3 (registration statement for certain foreign private issuers). In order to file these forms, an issuer must have been a reporting company for the previous 12 months.
- As of a date within 60 days of the date of determining eligibility, the company must have either:
1) A worldwide market value of outstanding voting and non-voting common equity (public float) held by non-affiliates of $700 million or more, or
2) In the last three years, has issued at least $1 billion aggregate principal amount of nonconvertible securities, other than common equity, in primary offerings for cash, not exchange, that are registered under the Securities Act of 1933.
Securities purchased under a Rule 147 exemption may be sold to an out-of-state resident:
Immediately
After 30 days
After three months
After nine months
D
SEC Rule 147 of the Securities Act of 1933 provides an exemption from registration for securities being sold on an intrastate basis. If securities are sold only to residents of a state by an issuer that is also a resident of the same state, the securities are exempt from both the registration and prospectus requirements of the Act. A resident of a state who acquires securities under Rule 147 is not allowed to sell the securities to a nonresident of the state for a period of nine months following the last date of sale by the issuer. If an individual intends to sell the securities prior to nine months, he may do so only to a resident of the same state. (79607)
When can you use FWP
WKSI—may use an FWP at any time
Seasoned Issuer—may use an FWP after its registration statement has been filed, but there is no need for the FWP to be accompanied by, or preceded by, a statutory prospectus
Unseasoned and Non-reporting Issuer—may use an FWP after its registration statement has been filed provided the FWP is accompanied by, or preceded by, a statutory prospectus
Ineligible Issuer—may not use an FWP
All of the following securities are exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933, EXCEPT:
American Depositary Shares issued by a company based in China selling securities in the U.S.
Municipal bonds issued by the city of San Francisco
U.S. dollar-denominated corporate bonds sold only to investors outside the United States
Commercial paper issues by a company listed on the NYSE
A
Common stock, or ADRs sold by foreign private issuers, are not considered exempt securities and, unless some other exemption is available, must be registered with the SEC under the Securities Act of 1933. Certain securities are exempt from the registration and prospectus requirements of the Act because of the nature of the issuer. Among the exempted securities are:
U.S. government and U.S. government agency securities
Municipal securities
Securities issued by nonprofit organizations
Short-term corporate debt instruments (such as commercial paper) that have a maturity not exceeding 270 days
Securities issued by domestic banks and trust companies (but not bank holding companies)
Securities issued by small business investment companies (exempted by federal legislation regarding small businesses)
Choice (c) is an example of a Eurodollar bond, which is issued outside the U.S. and is not offered to U.S. investors. Eurodollar bonds are considered exempt from registration under SEC Regulation S.
An issuer would like to accelerate the effective date of its initial public offering. Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE?
The request must be made to the SEC in writing
The request is made by the issuer and the managing underwriter
The effective date may not be granted earlier than five business days after the request is made
The issuer may request a specific hour in the day when it wants the date to be effective
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV
D
As a general rule, the effective date of a registration statement is the twentieth day after the filing date. Any amendment filed to a registration statement prior to the effective date will initiate the 20-day period. An exception is made if the issuer requests and receives approval for an accelerated effective date. The request may be oral or written, but if the request is made orally, it must be followed by a letter that accompanies an amended filing. The request is made by the issuer and the managing underwriter. The issuer may request a specific hour in the day when it wants the date to be effective, but the SEC must be notified no later than the second business day before the day they want the registration to become effective.
Which TWO of the following choices would be permitted to use a Section 11 defense?
The managing underwriter
The issuer
A director who is also the CEO who signed the registration statement
An accountant hired by the issuer who did not sign the registration statement
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV
B
Under Section 11 of the Securities Act of 1933, persons other than the issuer are exempt from liability if they can prove that they had no knowledge of the fraud and properly notified the SEC. This would include an accountant or other professional who resigned, or refused to sign or certify any of the documents used to prepare the registration statement. Rule 176 of the Securities Act of 1933 describes the circumstances affecting the determination of what constitutes reasonable investigation and reasonable grounds for belief under Section 11 (addressing civil liabilities). This is referred to as the Section 11 defense and may not be used by an issuer. Although a director can claim a Section 11 defense, it is less likely that a director who is also the CEO can prove that he had no knowledge of the fraud and that he conducted an investigation. (74348)
An investment banking firm is assisting an issuer with its initial public offering. The issuer’s financial statements will NOT be considered stale if:
The issuer has not been a reporting company for more than 12 months
They are no more than 90 days old
They are no more than 120 days old
They are no more than 134 days old
According to Regulation S-X, financial statements in a registration statement become stale and may not be used based on the number of days between the date of the statements in the filing and the effective date of the registration statement. For IPO issuers, the period is 135 days and, in the case of an accelerated filer (a WKSI or seasoned issuer), the period is 130 days. Therefore, an IPO may not use a financial statement which is more than 134 days old. The number of days that the issuer has been a reporting company is not relevant. (79602)
Which of the following securities would MOST likely be issued under Rule 144A?
Mutual funds
Unit Investments Trusts
Corporate debt
Exchange-traded funds
C
Rule 144A permits the sale of an unlimited dollar amount of restricted securities to qualified institutional buyers (QIBs) without SEC registration. Only certain types of institutions are eligible, including insurance companies, registered investment companies, pension plans, corporations, and registered investment advisers. The buyer must be purchasing for its own account or the account of other QIBs and must own and invest at least $100 million of securities of issuers not affiliated with the buyer. Issuers mainly use Rule 144A to offer corporate debt and, in some cases, equity securities. Mutual funds (open-end investment companies), unit investments trusts, and exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are sold to retail investors and the securities usually will be registered with the SEC. (74353)
Which TWO of the following actions may delay the effective date of a registration statement filed with the SEC?
The issuer is filing a registration statement for additional shares of the same class of securities The issuer is filing a registration statement for additional shares of a different class of securities The issuer is filing a registration statement that registers additional shares, which represent no more than 20% of the securities originally filed The issuer is filing a registration statement that registers additional shares, which represent more than 20% of the securities originally filed
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV
D
As a general rule, the effective date of a registration statement is the twentieth day after the filing date. Any amendment filed to a registration statement prior to the effective date will initiate the 20-day period. If amendments are made under certain limited conditions, it will not delay the effective date. These conditions are:
When must a red herring be amended and resubmitted to the SEC by an issuer?
On the effective date
When the price is readjusted downward
When the financial statements are outdated
When an underwriter exercises the overallotment provision
D
Financial statements of an issuer submitted as part of the registration statement may become outdated or stale. This would require the issuer to file an amendment which would include the updated financial statements. According to Regulation S-X, financial statements in a registration statement become stale and cannot be used, based on the number of days between the date of the statements in the filing and the effective date of the registration statement. For most issuers, this period cannot equal nor exceed 135 days (cannot be more than 134 days old) and, in the case of an accelerated filer (a WKSI or seasoned issuer), the period is 130 days. On the effective date, the final prospectus is prepared since the red herring is no longer relevant. (79522)
LamoNate is a plastics company. It issued a communication 45 days before filing a new issue registration statement. Its communication failed to mention the future securities offering. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the LamoNate communication?
The communication is in conflict with the SEC registration requirements
The communication is defined as a free writing prospectus
It is not defined as an offer to sell
It is defined as an omitting prospectus
C
Any communication made by an issuer more than 30 days before the filing date of a registration statement does not constitute an offer to sell, if it does not mention the securities offering. This is an example of one of the safe harbors that would not violate the SEC gun-jumping restrictions. The term gun-jumping refers to a communication made by an issuer during a period in which it is planning to make a public offering of securities. This would be in violation of the Securities Act of 1933. During this period the issuer should not be engaged in any communication that would be seen as preconditioning the market for offering. This situation may occur if an issuer is planning an IPO and relies on this safe harbor when management makes a public comment concerning the company, at least 30 days prior to the filing of the registration statement. [60800]
Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE concerning the audit committee of the board of directors of a public company?
All members of the audit committee must be independent
A majority of the members of the audit committee must be independent
The issuer must disclose the names of the persons who are financial experts
All of the members must be financial experts
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV
A
There are a few different rules concerning the audit committee of an SEC reporting company.
According to SARBOX, in general, each member of the audit committee must be a member of the BOD of the issuer and be independent.
According to Regulation S-K, the issuer must disclose either
The issuer has at least one audit committee financial expert serving on its audit committee, or
The issuer does not have an audit committee financial expert serving on its audit committee.
If the issuer has a financial expert(s) on its audit committee, it must disclose the name(s).
A financial expert is generally defined as someone who understands GAAP and financial statements, has audit experience, can evaluate financial statements, can understand internal controls over reporting systems, and understands the audit committee functions.
According to the listing requirements of the NYSE and Nasdaq, an issuer must have at least one person on the audit committee who meets the definition of a financial expert.
As a matter of practice, most reporting issuers have at least one financial expert serving on its audit committee. [61363]
A technology company based in Israel has hired your investment banking firm to raise capital in the U.S. Since many wealthy Israelis reside in the U.S., the issuer would like to target these investors as well as other high-net-worth and institutional investors. If the issuer does not want to file a registration statement with the SEC, you would recommend a:
Rule 144 filing
Rule 144A Offering
Regulation S Offering
Regulation D Offering
All of these choices do not require filing with the SEC. However, a private placement under Regulation D may be offered to an unlimited number of accredited investors. An accredited investor is defined as an institutional investor or a person with either a net worth of $1,000,000, or annual income of $200,000 (or $300,000 for a married couple). This would allow the issuer to raise capital from institutional investors and wealthy individuals.
Rule 144 is an exemption that allows for the resale of restricted or control stock, and no proceeds would be raised by an issuer.
Rule 144A permits the sale by an issuer or selling stockholders of an unlimited dollar amount of restricted securities to qualified institutional buyers (QIBs). A QIB may not be a natural person and, therefore, would not allow the issuer to offer securities to high-net-worth investors in the U.S.
Regulation S allows U.S., not foreign, issuers to raise capital outside the U.S. without filing a registration statement with the SEC. [99874]
Rule 144, 144A Regulation S, Regulation D
ALL UNREGISTERED
144: resale of restricted/control stock
144A: sale by issuer or selling stockholder of unlimited dollar of restricted securities to QIBs
Regulation D: unlimited private placement to an accredited investor
Regulatoin S: raise capital outside US without registration
Which of the following actions associated with a new issue of securities would violate the Securities Act of 1933 and constitute an unlawful activity?
An issuer has neglected to register a public offering of common stock that is offered interstate
A foreign government has conducted an offering of registered securities and has provided a prospectus to all purchasers
The sale of common stock by an issuer that has NOT provided a specific business plan to regulators, or investors
An offering of registered debt by a broker-dealer that fails to contain the opinion of a qualified independent underwriter
A
The Securities Act of 1933 requires nonexempt securities to be registered. The process of securities registration includes the filing of a registration statement with the SEC, and the preparation/distribution of a prospectus. Section 5 of the Act states that it is unlawful to use an instrument of interstate commerce to sell a security, unless a registration statement is in effect. Foreign governments may raise capital in the United States by way of the registration process. Companies are permitted to conduct offerings of securities without a specific business plan. Such entities are called a blank check companies. A broker-dealer that raises capital and engages in a self-underwriting must hire a qualified independent underwriter for the purpose of providing a pricing opinion. Failure to do so would violate FINRA rules, but would not constitute an unlawful activity. [60765]
WKSI:
Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE concerning the minimum criteria that a company must meet in order to be considered a well-known seasoned issuer (WKSI)?
It must have been a reporting company for the previous12 months
It must have been a reporting company for the previous 36 months
The company must have a certain public float of debt or equity
The company must have a certain amount of annual revenue
I and III
I and IV
II and III
II and IV
A
A well-known seasoned issuer (WKSI) is an issuer that is defined as a company that meets the following requirements.
It must be eligible to register on Form S-3 (short form for the registration statement) or Form F-3 (registration statement for certain foreign private issuers). In order to file these forms, an issuer must have been a reporting company for the previous 12 months.
Within 60 days of the determination of eligibility, the company either must have:
—A worldwide market value of outstanding voting and nonvoting common equity held by nonaffiliates of $700 million or more, or
—In the last three years, issued at least $1 billion aggregate principal amount of nonconvertible securities, other than common equity, in primary offerings for cash, not exchange, registered under the Securities Act of 1933
It may not be an ineligible issuer.
If the SEC has entered an order temporarily suspending a Regulation A exemption, the underwriter, issuer, or the selling security holder may request a hearing within how many days?
10
20
30
45
C
The underwriter, selling security holder, or issuer may request a hearing within 30 days. If a hearing is not requested, the temporary order suspending the Regulation A exemption becomes permanent on the 30th day. If a hearing is requested, it will be held within 20 calendar days of the SEC’s receipt of the request. [60750]
A regional sales executive with BiltFast Bikes, Inc. His company is preparing for its IPO. The executive has signed a lock-up agreement with his employer. When may this executive sell his shares?
At any time stipulated in the agreement
At any time after the deal closes
Six months following the closing of the deal
12 months following the closing of the deal
A
A lock-up agreement is a contract between an employer and its employee that dictates an amount of time the employee must wait to sell shares of his company’s securities after an offering. Generally, a lock-up agreement will expire within six months following the closing of the company’s IPO, but there is no statutory time limit. Also, the executive may be bound by additional limitations if he has insider status. [74398]
Which of the following offerings would require company information to be filed with the SEC?
An offering of securities under Regulation A
An offering of securities under Regulation S
An offering of securities under Regulation D
A sale of securities under Rule 144A
A
Securities sold under Regulation A are required to be registered with the SEC. However, since the amount of capital being raised is limited, the issuer may conduct a public offering and follow a less expensive process than a regular initial public offering. The principal advantages of Regulation A offerings include:
Simpler financial statements that are not required to be audited
No Exchange Act of 1934 reporting obligations after the offering, unless the company has more than $10 million in total assets and more than 500 shareholders
The issuer being able to choose among three formats to prepare the offering circular, one of which is a simplified question-and-answer document
The issuer being able to test the waters to determine if there is adequate interest in its securities before going through the expense of filing with the SEC
The other three offerings are exempt from SEC registration.
How many copies of a prospectus that is used after the effective date of a registration statement must be filed with the SEC? Ten Five Three One
A
Ten copies of any prospectus used after the effective date (final prospectus) must be included in the filing of a registration statement. If a prospectus is to be used prior to the effective date (i.e., a preliminary prospectus), five copies must be filed with the SEC. (79590)
The Elm Company has begun business operations. It has not yet generated any significant revenue. The company intends to increase its capital base through an initial public offering of common stock. What is the appropriate description of the Elm Company? It is: An unseasoned issuer A development stage company A WKSI A blank check company
B
A development stage company is an enterprise without any significant track record or revenues. Such companies are eligible to have a public offering of shares, based on the conditions of the ‘33 Act. An unseasoned issuer is a reporting company under the ‘34 Act, but it does not meet the requirements to be classified as seasoned, or well-known seasoned issuer (WKSI). A blank check company is defined as an entity with either no specific business plan, or one that has indicated that it intends to merge with an unidentified company (or companies). The Elm Company has already begun business operations and would not be classified as a blank check company. [60781]
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the audit committee of a public company?
The SEC requires all audit committee members to be financial experts
The NYSE and Nasdaq listing standards require all audit committee members to be financial experts
The SEC requires at least one member of the audit committee to be a financial expert
The NYSE and Nasdaq listing standards requires at least one member of the audit committee to be a financial expert
D: There are several different rules concerning the audit committee of an SEC reporting company.
According to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SARBOX), in general, each member of the audit committee must be a member of the board of directors of the issuer and be independent. All the members of this committee must be independent.
According to Regulation S-K, the issuer must disclose:
Whether the issuer has at least one financial expert serving on its audit committee, or
Whether the issuer does not have a financial expert serving on its audit committee
If the issuer has a financial expert on its audit committee, it must disclose the name.
A financial expert is generally defined as someone who understands generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) and financial statements, has audit experience, can evaluate financial statements, can understand internal controls over reporting systems, and understands the audit committee functions.
According to the listing requirements of the NYSE and Nasdaq, an issuer must have at least one person on the audit committee who meets the definition of a financial expert.
As a matter of practice, most reporting issuers have at least one financial expert serving on their audit committee. (71285)