Understanding Musculoskeletal Pain Flashcards

1
Q

Pain from OR can come from:

A

Trauma
Surgical Trauma
Repeated/long intubation

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2
Q

Assessment of pain focus on what 5 things?

A

Sensory
Cognitive
Emotional
Behavior
Spiritual influences

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3
Q

The goal of the pain interview is to:

A
  • Build trust
  • Gather information
  • Facilitate change
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4
Q

What is one chronic medication that can affect our anesthesia plan?

A

Pain meds

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5
Q

Rule out red flags:

A

Bowel/bladder dyfunction
Saddle anesthesia
Bilateral leg swelling
Severe, sudden onset headache
Fever, weight loss, night sweats
Recent injury
Hx of cancer

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6
Q

What is saddle anesthesia?

A

a loss of sensation in the area of the body that would come into contact with a saddle when sitting, including the buttocks, perineum (area between the anus and genitals), and inner thighs, typically indicating a problem with the lower spinal nerves, often associated with a condition called cauda equina syndrom

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7
Q

What is the OPQRSTU mnemonic?

A

Used to assess pain:

Onset
Provocative/palliative
Quality/Character
Region/Radiation
Severity
Timing/treatment
You/Impact

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8
Q

What type of comorbidity do we commonly see with greater pain intensity?

A

Psych

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9
Q

When you get exposed to cold, you get an _______ release

A

Endorphin

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10
Q

Which nerve causes foot drop if disrupted?

A

Peroneal nerve

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11
Q

Why are pain interviews often confrontational?

A

Doubt
Frustration

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12
Q

______ and _______ can facilitate focus on the function of the pt’s words rather than the content of the pt’s words; can also help the clinician stay in the therapeutic mindset despite intense emotional content

A

Mindfulness
Self-awareness

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13
Q

Data has shown pts with ______ conditions have past issues (mental health, childhood issues)

A

Chronic pain

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14
Q

We have to consider _________ on pain

A

Psychosocial influences

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15
Q

What should you do if confrontation with a patient is unavoidable?

A

Suggest a break and seek assistance from a team member

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16
Q

What 4 things are associated with higher pain intensity?

A

Psychiatric conditions
Poor sleep
Sleep disordered breathing
History of substance use disorder, including tobacco

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17
Q

The components of the clinical exam include:

A

Inspection and general appearance
Mental status
Vital signs
Posture and gait
Palpation
Range of motion (active/passive)
Neurological exam
Special tests

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18
Q

It’s important to think about _____ when assessing vital signs

A

Pathology

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19
Q

The goal of the physical exam is to exclude:

A

Red flags
Complement the psychosocial assessment
Quantify impairment

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20
Q

Describe the motor grading:

A

Grading: 5 = normal
4 = Full ROM against resistance
3 = Full ROM against only gravity
2 = Full ROM with gravity eliminated
1 = Palpable/ observable contraction
0 = No palpable contraction

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21
Q

Describe the muscle stretch reflex grading:

A

0 = absent
1 = diminished
2 = normal
3 = hyperactive
4 = hyperactive with clonus

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22
Q

What are the pathologic reflexes?

A

Babinksi, Hoffman, clonus

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23
Q

What is myotome?

A

Muscle groups innervated by a specific spinal nerve

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24
Q

What disease process commonly follows dermatome distribution?

A

Shingles

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25
Q

In the absence of red flags and normal physical exam, ________ reinforces sick behavior and worsens long-term outcome

A

Routine imaging

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26
Q

CT’s are used for:

A

Soft tissue

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27
Q

MRIs are used for?

A

Detailed look/nerves

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28
Q

What is the most practical type of imaging?

A

Xray

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29
Q

Do not image an uncomplicated headache unless:

A
  • Neurologic exam is abnormal
  • Unable to diagnose by history and exam
  • Headache is sudden or explosive,
  • Different from prior ones, especially over 50 y/o
  • Progressively worsening
  • Brought on by exertion
  • Accompanied by fever, seizure, vomiting, a loss of coordination, vision/speech/alertness changes
  • The patient is immunocompromised or with a known malignancy
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30
Q

Diagnostic imaging studies should only be performed when?

A

In patients who have severe or progressive neurologic deficits or with features suggesting a serious or specific underlying condition

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31
Q

When trying to establish a specific pain path-anatomic diagnosis, what is included?

A
  • Determine is acute/chronic
  • Location
  • Mechanism
  • Etiology
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32
Q

What is the differentiation cut off between acute and chronic pain?

A

3 months

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33
Q

What is the pain scale that uses terms like “mild to moderate to severe” called?

A

VRS (verbal rating scale)

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34
Q

What is the pain scale that uses “0-10” called?

A

NRS (numeric rating scale)

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35
Q

What does “PEG” in the PEG assessment scale mean?

A

Pain, enjoyment, general activity

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36
Q

Critiques of the PEG scale include:

A

No assessment of sleep or stress

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37
Q

What questions are asked in the PEG scale?

A
  • What number best describes your pain on average in the past week?
  • What number best describes how, during the past week, pain has interfered with your enjoyment of life?
  • What number best describes how, during the past week, pain has interfered with your general activity?
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38
Q

T/F
PTSD feeds into chronic pain

A

True

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39
Q

What is the STOP-BANG screen tool used to assess?

A

Presence and need to treat obstructive sleep apnea

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40
Q

What is the STOP-BANG score that indicates a high probability of moderate/severe OSA?

A

Score of 5-8

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41
Q

What does STOP-BANG stand for?

A

S = snoring?
T = tired?
O = observed apnea?
P= high blood pressure?

B = BMI > 35?
A = Age >50?
N = Neck circumference > 40 cm (16 inch)
G = Gender is male?

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42
Q

Diagnose and assess the severity of fibromyalgia using what?

A

Widespread pain index (WPI)
Symptom Severity score (SS)

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43
Q

What symptoms are common in fibromyalgia?

A

Fatigue
Cognitive effects
Somatic symptoms
Brain fog

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44
Q

ORT is a simple ______ tool that can be used in primary care

A

Opiod screening

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45
Q

Describe ORT scale with numbers:

A

0-3 : low risk
4-7 : moderate risk
>8 : high risk

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46
Q

What are the 5 domains that are risk factors for opioid misuse?

A
  1. family history of substance abuse
  2. personal history of substance abuse
  3. age
  4. history of preadolescent sexual abuse
  5. psychological disorders
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47
Q

What are the other two screening tools for opioid risks, and what do they stand for?

A

SOAPP (Screener and Opioid Assessment for Patients with Pain)
COMM (Current Opioid Misuse Measure)

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48
Q

When assessing the effectiveness of treatment, what do we use?

A

4 (+2) A’s

Check:
- activity
- analgesia
- aberrant drug related behavior
- adverse effects

Consider:
- affect
- adjuncts

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49
Q

Quality of life scale:

A
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50
Q

Neck pain is anywhere between the _____ and the ____

A

Base of the skull
First thoracic spinous process

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51
Q

What can also cause arm pain or headaches?

A

Neck pain

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52
Q

Recall the bony structures when assessing neck pain

A

Spine
Scapula
Gleno-humeral jt.

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53
Q

Recall the muscles when assessing neck pain

A

Upper Trapezius
Rhomboids
Scalene
Levator Scapulae
Sternocleidomastoid
Splenius and longus capitis
Pectoralis major

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54
Q

What is an uncommon headache anesthetic that can be given?

A

4% lido on cotton swab and place up the nose

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55
Q

What are key behaviors to look for when assessing physical pain?

A

Grimace
Groan
Guarding
Over reaction
Inconsistencies
Give-way weakness
Shaking

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56
Q

Assess myofascial pain for:

A

Local Tenderness
Single or multiple muscles
Trigger points active
Firm or Taut Bands
Local twitch response (LTR)
Muscle weakness
Muscle shortening

57
Q

What can fever, night sweats, hx of cancer, weight loss be indicative of?

A

Tumors/cancer

58
Q

What can fever, recent surgery, illicit drug use, immunosupression, catheterization, travel be indicative of?

A

Infection?

59
Q

What can trauma, recent surgery, manipulation, corticosteroids be indicative of?

60
Q

What can cardiovascular, cerebrovascular risk factors be indicative of?

61
Q

Nmeonic for reg flag conditions, and what it stands for?

A

N SWIFT PICS

N = Neuro: progressive neuro deficit

S = Steroids: prolonged use
W = Weight loss: unexplained
I = Immunosuppression
F = Fever: unexplained
T = Trauma: even mild if over 50

P = Porosis: osteoporosis/osteopenia
I = IVDU: IV drug abuse
C = Cancer: history of cancer
S = Severity: of pain

62
Q

Following whiplash, what percentage of people can expect their neck pain to recover rapidly?

63
Q

Risk factors for chronic neck and low back pain:

A

Stress at work
Previous injuries
Litigation

64
Q

Other known sources for chronic neck with trauma (Whiplash) that merit further investigation are:

A

zygapophyseal joints (facets)
internal disc disruption

65
Q

How do distinguish between facet pain and disc pain?

A

Arch neck back and pain – facet
Arch neck forward – disc

66
Q

What can be used to help detect arthritis?

67
Q

For referring pain, pain follows what type of distribution?

A

Myotomal

Follows muscular distribution

68
Q

For radiating pain, pain follows what type of distribution?

A

Dermatome

nerve itself is being self affect→ follows nerve distribution

69
Q

Radiating pain is usually accompanied with neurological signs such as:

A

paresis, hyperreflexia or hypoesthesia

70
Q

What type of block is used to treat radiating pain?

A

Medial branch block

71
Q

What is a kyphoplasty?

A

Injecting cement into the vertebrae to strengthen it

72
Q

Low back pain is anywhere between what?

A

the tip of the last thoracic spinous process to the tip of the sacro -coccygeal joints

73
Q

The further down the back we get, the more _____ the pain is

74
Q

Bony structures when assessing back pain:

A

Spine
Iliac crests
Hip jt

76
Q

Muscles when assessing back pain:

A

Quadratum lomborun
Multifidus
Psoas
Gluteaus max, med, minimus
Piriformis

77
Q

Nerves when assessing back pain:

A

Lumbo-sacral plexus
Sciatic Nerve
Dermatomes
Motor innervation and reflexes

78
Q

Describe cauda equina syndrome:

A

some sort of injury higher in the sacrum resulting in damage to lumbosacral nerve; can progress to paralysis

79
Q

Causes of cauda equina syndrome:

A

cancer, trauma, epidural placement causing hematoma

80
Q

Following acute low back pain episode, what percent of people can expect to recover rapidly?

81
Q

Preferred test for when a red flag is present:

A

CRP (C-reactive protein)
ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)
FBC (full blood count)
IEPG (immuno-electrophoretogram)
MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
PSA (prostate specific antigen)

82
Q

What musculoskeletal disease process should be suspected in all pts over 50

A

Osteopenia

83
Q

Symptom management can include:

A
  • Bed rest should not be prescribed
  • Encourage activity
  • Acupuncture, stretch and spray, and heat packs are low risk and may offer some symptom relief
  • NSAIDS and muscle relaxants are not particularly effective
  • Opioids are not indicated
84
Q

How does acupuncture work?

A

Lateral inhibition

85
Q

Bony structures to assess with shoulder pain:

A

Spine
Scapula
Gleno-humeral jt.

86
Q

The shoulder and pectoral girdle are compromised of:

A

Scapula
Clavicle
Humerus

87
Q

The shoulder and pectoral girdle are stabilized by:

A

Rotator cuff

*Most common complaint with shoulders

88
Q

Muscles associated with the shoulder:

A

Upper Trapezius
Rhomboids
Scalene
Levator Scapulae
Sternocleidomastoid
Splenius and longus capitis
Pectoralis major

89
Q

Nerves associated with shoulder pain:

A

Occipital Nerve
Dermatomes
Motor innervation and reflexes

90
Q

What type of surgical procedure can caused referred shoulder pain?

A

Laparoscopic

91
Q

Describe Apley Scratch test:

A

pain when reaching to opposite scapula

92
Q

Describe Neers test:

A

pain with shoulder flexion

93
Q

Describe Hawkin’s test:

A

pain with shoulder internal rotation

94
Q

Describe Drop arm test:

A

pain with shoulder abduction

95
Q

Describe Lift off test:

A

pain with internal rotation and push

96
Q

Describe O’Brian’s test:

A

pain with rotation and abduction

97
Q

Describe Speed’s and Ferguson test:

A

tests with elbow flexion

98
Q

Describe Apprehension test:

A

pain on pushing the humeral head

99
Q

Which of the shoulder exams test rotator cuff injury?

A

Apley, Neer, Hawkin’s, Drop arm, Lift off and O’Brian

100
Q

Which of the shoulder exams detect biceps tendonitis?

A

Speed’s and Yerguson

101
Q

Which of the shoulder exams detect labral tears?

A

Apprehension

102
Q

Most common shoulder pain conditions:

A

Rotator cuff impingement or tear
Gleno-humeral / sub-acromial bursitis
Gleno-humeral instability
Bicep tendonitis

103
Q

Common shoulder pain conditions in the elderly:

A
  • Mostly Osteoarthritis
  • Less frequently due to Adhesive capsulitis
  • Always review Red Flags: metastases, infection, and systemic disease
  • Tend to respond less to intra-articular injections and rehabilitation
  • If there’s limited functionality, discuss surgery or palliation
104
Q

What is a simple thing we can inject into the joint to relieve shoulder pain?

A

PRP: platelet-rich plasma

Basically taking platelet plug and injecting it into joint - causes great tissue growth

105
Q

What type of treatment is usually required to correct should instability (rotator cuff tear)?

A

Arthroscopic surgery

106
Q

What type of pain is common and increases with age, especially in individuals over 60?

A

Hip and knee

107
Q

Hip pain usually occurs due to:

A

Mechanical wear and tear or trauma

108
Q

Hip pain can be generated from _____ or referred to/from ______

A

The hip

The low back, thigh, buttocks, groin

109
Q

What is snapping hip syndrome?

A

a ligament passing tightly over a bony prominence,

110
Q

The hamstrings ____ the hip and _____ the knee

A

Extend
Flex

111
Q

What are the 4 quadriceps?

A

the vastus lateralis, medialis, intermedialis and rectus femoris

112
Q

It’s hard to identify hip pain because it’s a ___________ area

A

Muscular dense

113
Q

Where is blood supply most vulnerable?

A

Femoral neck

114
Q

What are the 3 planes of direction (each has 2 motions) in the hip?

A

Flexion and extension
External rotation and internal rotation
Abduction and adduction

115
Q

Describe sacroiliac joint pain:

A

pain in the lower back and pelvis that can radiate into the buttocks, thighs, and sometimes the legs.

116
Q

How do you differentiate between true hip pain and SI joint pain?

A

FABER test – cross leg over, and put pressure on SI joint; take it and force it apart– extends SI joint open and if this is painful it is SI joint pain

Range of motion will hurt if its in true hip pain

117
Q

Describe McCarthy test:

A

bilateral hip flexion may suggest labral tear

118
Q

Describe Fitzgerald test:

A

very similar to FABER without pressing the hip

119
Q

Describe Ober test:

A

hip extension may detect iliotibial band (ITB) problem

120
Q

What is seen in the picture on the right?

A

Arthritic hip joint

121
Q

Different hip disease that can appear at different ages:

A

Hip Osteoarthritis is most common in the elderly.

Congenital Hip Disorders appear in the very young.
- Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE), Legg-Clave-Perthes Disease (LCP)

Trochanteric Bursitis can appear at all ages.

Avascular Necrosis of the hip can be idiopathic but more frequently is associated with a corticosteroids, alcoholism and systemic disease (Lupus and Rheumatoid Arthritis).

122
Q

What is the most common predisposing factor for hip oestoarthritis?

123
Q

Hip MRIs are beneficial in early diagnosis of:

A

Inflammatory
Infectious
AVN

124
Q

Describe SCFE:

A

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

a fracture of the growth plate and is a pathology of adolescence, usually causes hip and groin pain, often can cause thigh and knee pain

125
Q

Describe LCP

A

Legg-Clave-Perthes Disease

a childhood hip disorder initiated by a disruption of blood flow to the femoral head causing avascular necrosis. Over time, healing occurs by new blood vessels infiltrating the dead bone and removing the necrotic bone which leads to a loss of bone mass leading to some degree of collapse and deformity of the femoral head and sometimes secondary changes to the shape of the hip socket.

126
Q

Knee pain can refer to what area?

A

Thigh
Lower back
Leg

127
Q

Three compartments of the knee:

A

Tibiofemoral
Patellofemoral
Proximal tubiofibular

128
Q

What 3 bones make up the knee?

A

Tibia
Patella
Femur

129
Q

What is the one quad which both crosses the knee and hip, and acts to extend the knee and flex the hip?

A

Rectus femoris

130
Q

When assessing the knee, look at:

A

Gait
ROM
Reflexes
Pulses

131
Q

Patellofemoral pain appears twice as often in ____ and is aggravated by what?

A

Women

Squatting, climbing stairs, prolonged sitting, running, lifting

132
Q

_______ of the knee presents with morning stiffness, knee crepitus, bony tenderness, bony enlargement, & no palpable warmth of the knee

A

Osteoarthritis

133
Q

What does a + moviegoer’s sign mean?

A

patient experiences their main complaint with sitting for a long time with their knees flexed at 90 deg.

134
Q

What kind of tear is common in OA after twisting the knee with a fixed foot?

135
Q

What is most commonly at the pre-patellar once it becomes infected and may require aspiration?

136
Q

What type of knee injuries are common with trauma?

A

Ligamentous

137
Q

Most knee injuries are what type of injury?

A

Soft tissue

138
Q

Explain the Ottawa rules for imaging:

A
  • Age > 55
  • Tenderness at the head of the fibula
  • Isolated tenderness of the patella
  • Inability to flex knee to 90 degrees
  • Inability to walk 4 weight bearing steps
  • Plain radiography is an appropriate first line
  • If unrevealing MRI is useful for the detection of ongoing knee instability