Pre-Op Eval Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 main goals of pre-op evaluation?

A
  1. Ensure pts can safely tolerate anesthesia for surgery
  2. Mitigate periop risks
  3. Clinical exam: H&P
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What’s an example of something we CAN’t mitigate before surgery?

Something we CAN?

A

Can’t: decompensated heart failure

Can: Need for dialysis, pt ate in the AM before surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

During pre-op eval, we are trying to obtain pt info regarding and in order to: (4)

A
  • Pt medical hx
  • Formulate an assessment of the pt’s periop risk
  • Develop a plan for any request clinical optimization
  • Planning post op pain management in the background of preop pain medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the benefits of the pre-op eval for the patient?

A
  • reduces anxiety
  • provides education
  • discusses medications
  • reduces post - op morbidity
  • answers questions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the benefits of the pre-op eval for the anesthesia providers?

A
  • learn of medical conditions
  • devise anesthetic plan (intra/post op)
  • time for consultants
  • Code status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the benefits of pre-op evaluations for the surgeon/hospital?

A
  • decreases cost of periop care
  • improves efficiency
  • decreases cancellations/delays
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F:
Giving vasoactive meds in surgery to someone with a DNR violates their DNR

A

True!

Always verify code status and tailor periop plan to what the pt wants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Surgical procedures performed under anesthesia require preop evaluation for what 3 reasons?

A
  • anesthesia is an added risk to surgery
  • pre-anesthetic eval of pts improve clinical safety
  • minimizes morbidity in appropriately prepared pts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are common home meds (classes) we should worry about in pre op?

A
  • anticoagulants
  • things that alter BP (-ace, -arbs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List the medical history components (9)

A
  • underlying condition requiring surgery
  • known medical problems/past medical issues
  • previous surgeries/anesthetic history
  • anesthetic-related complications
  • review of systems
  • medications
  • allergies
  • tobacco/ETOH/illicit drugs
  • functional capacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Common “red flags” of PMH for anesthesia

A

Malignant hyperthermia
Acetylcholinesterase deficiency
Difficult airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two common illicit drugs we worry about and why?

A

Meth: similar to ephedrine, drugs may not work as well if BP is low
Cocaine: destroys heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Correct diagnosis can be made in ___% of cases on the basis of history alone

A

56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A BMI of <18.5 is considered:

A

Underweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A BMI of 18.5-24.9 is considered:

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A BMI of 25.9-29.9 is considered:

A

Overweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A BMI of 30.0 and above is considered:

A

Obese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the metric formula for BMI?

A

BMI = weight (kg) / [height (m)]2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the imperial formula for BMI?

A

BMI = 703 X weight (lbs) / [height (in)]2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the most important vital signs to know

A

BP, HR, RR, O2, temp, height/weight, BMI, ideal body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What 4 things can the BMI be used for?

A
  • estimate drug doses
  • determine fluid volume requirement
  • calculate acceptable blood loss
  • adequacy of urine output
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why is it important to test for neuro deficits before surgery?

A

If they wake up after surgery with a deficit, you need to know if it’s new or their baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Seizure meds ____ the rate of action of paralytics

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What two CV conditions do we commonly cancel surgery cases for?

A

Decompensated heart failure
Unstable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What can we do for asthma/COPD in preop to mitigate risks?

A

Give nebs and steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

It is better for diabetics if we manipulate blood sugar in the ______ term

A

Short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The biggest source of renal dysfunction in the OR is ______

A

Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Example of when we may do anesthesia for immunocompromised pts

A

Bone marrow biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

We need to know the underlying disease of someone who is immunocompromised, in case we needed to:

A

Give a transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the emergent physical exam accronym and what does it stand for?

A

A: Allergies
M: Medications
P: Past medical history
L: Last meal eaten
E: Events leading up to need for surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In an emergent physical exam, what are some other things we may need to pay special attention to:

A

Vitals
Airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 6 things that are included in an airway exam?

A
  • Mallampati
  • Inter-incisor gap
  • Thyromental distance
  • Forward movement of the mandible
  • Range of cervical spine motion (flexion and extension)
  • Document loose or chipped teeth & tracheal deviation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is an inter-incisor gap?

A

The gap between the incisor teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the thyromental distance?

A

Distance between the thyroid and the jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an example of when someone might have trouble with the forward movement of the mandible?

A

If they are in a C-collar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why is it important to document loose/chipped teeth in preop?

A

Important from a legal standpoint in case you knock them out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What could be causing someone’s tracheal deviation?

What further assessment could you do?

A

Pneumothorax / Mass

Use ultrasound or CT to determine if it’s above or below the glottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Previous CV conditions may lead to serious ______ op adverse events and account for almost ___ of the mortalities during this OR phase

A

Peri
Half

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Things that will reduce CV events in the OR:

A

Maximize pt
- oxygenate (getting airway, etc)
- maintaining BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CV disorders to specifically worry about in pre op:

A

Aortic stenosis
Heart failure
Ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Common CV disorders we may see:

A

HTN
Ischemic heart disease
Heart failure
Valvular heart disease
Rhythm disturbances
Coronary stents
Pacemakers/ICDs
PAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the most difficult valvular disease to worry about in the OR? Why?

A

Severe aortic stenosis
Hard to manage their BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are some reasons a young patient might have an ICD or pacemaker?

A

Drugs, congenital, cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the two main things that might cause hypoxemia in the OR?

A

No airway
No BP to circulate O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the common S/S that might come from hypoxemia (really anything neuro)?

A

Seizures, coma, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Respiratory function is inextricably linked to _________

A

Practice of anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of anesthesia has significant effects on respiratory function and lung physiology/mechanics?

A

General

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most common and most significant adverse respiratory event that can occur during anesthesia?

A

Hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Common pulmonary disorders we may see

A

URI
Asthma
COPD
Chronic smokers
Restrictive lung disease
OSA
Pts scheduled for lung resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is most pt population that we see upper respiratory tract infections in?

A

Children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does chronic smoking lead to (most significant one for us in the OR)?

A

Vascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Why is it important to note if someone has restrictive lung disease?

A

They might be difficult to ventilate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T/F
Someone with OSA might have it NOT based on their body habitus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the most common reason pts get lung resections?

A

Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Common endocrine disorders we may see

A

Diabetes Mellitus
Thyroid disorders
Hypothalamic- pituitary- adrenal disorders
Pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Hypoglycemia in surgery can cause:

A

Poor wound healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What route of adminstration do we use to give insulin in the OR?

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is one specific thing we worry about with thyroid disorders in the OR?

A

Goiters

They can cause issues with intubations, and we may also see electrolyte imbalances (calcium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What would you administer to someone in preop if you were aware they had a pheochromocytoma?

A

Alpha or beta blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

We can’t recognize hypoglycemia during anesthesia until:

A

Severe hemodynamic instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Common renal system disorders we may see

A

Surgical stress, anaesthetic agents tend to decrease GFR
Renal impairment- CKD/ AKI
Contrast induced nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The number 1 predictor for post op renal dysfunction:

A

Preop renal dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

If someone has contrast induce nephropathy, we can do what?

A

Give IVF
Dialysis
Monitor I/O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The emphasis of the pre op eval of pts with renal insufficiency are on what?

A

CV system
Cerebrovascular system
Fluid volume
Electrolyte status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Common hepatic disorders we may see

A

Hepatitis
Alcohol liver disease
Obstructive jaundice
Cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Liver diseases have significant impact on _______ and _______

A

Drug metabolism
Pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Number 1 cause of malignancy is:

A

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What drug class might have exaggerated effects in pts with advanced liver disease?

A

Sedatives/opiods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Common hematologic disorders we may see

A

Anemia
Sickle cell disease
G6PD deficiency
Coagulopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A lot of hematologic disorders become apparent during ________ in females

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Anesthesia can cause dilutional _______ due to IVF

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Smoking can cause high ________ levels

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In sickle cell disease, hypotension can cause ____

A

Clumping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

It’s important to pre hydrate pts with sickle cell prior to OR because:

A

They may be dehydrated at baseline due to NPO status

Can cause flare up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the disorder where you lack an enzyme and could have hemolytic anemia?

A

G6PD deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Coagulopathies come from:

A

Medications
Genetics
Herbal agents (garlic/ginseng)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Common neuro disorders we may see

A

Cerebrovascular disease
Seizure disorders
Multiple sclerosis
Aneurysm and AV malformation
Parkinson disease
Neuromuscular junction disorders
Muscular dystrophy and myopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

In MS, what drugs may you want to avoid? Why?

A

Paralytics
Can prolong the muscle from coming back; paralyzed longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

MS is seen most commonly in what pt population?

A

Middle aged people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

We worry about ______ in Parkinsons pts

A

Wasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What Parkinsons drug can cause issues with anesthesia?

A

Levodopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Common musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Raynaud Phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Pt’s with RA may not respond to _____ normally because the surge in ______ doesn’t affect them due to steroids

A

Stress
Cortisol

84
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis makes it difficult for pts to _____. Their bones may be ________

A

Extend/flex
Hard and brittle

85
Q

In pt’s with Raynaud’s, they may be baseline _______. This can cause issues with what?

A

Vasoconstricted

Pulse ox may not work
Alters assessment of pt
May not want to use pressors

86
Q

Sympathetic overload can be caused by:

A

Chronic pain
Fibromyalgia
POTS
Lupus

87
Q

Miscellaneous conditions we may see

A

Morbidly obese patient
Patient with transplanted organs
Patient with allergies
Patient with substance abuse

88
Q

Pre-op Evaluation flow chart:

89
Q

Pre-op assessment form:

90
Q

In morbidly obese pts, we worry about:

A

Positioning, airway

91
Q

In pt’s with transplanted organs, we worry about _____ due to chronic use of _____

A

Immunosuppression
Steroids

92
Q

In pts with heart transplants, they have severed _____ so what drugs would not work?

A

Vagus nerves

Robinul and atropine

93
Q

What are a few specific patient populations that would have certain considerations?

A

Children
Pregnant women
Breast feeding women
Elderly pts

94
Q

What consideration is important in breast feeding pts?

A

Dictates what medications we can give

95
Q

What court case dictated informed consent? What happened?

A

Salgo v Trustees of Leland Stanford Hospital

Martin Salgo sued the hospital and Dr. Frank Gerbode for not being informed. Had an aortogram and was left paralyzed in lower extremities

96
Q

Importance of informed consent:

A

Respect for pt autonomy
Duty to inform pts about the risks and alternatives to treatment, procedures, and consequences

97
Q

Importance of shared decision making

A
  • Communicating with pts about the risks and benefits of possible interventions
  • Eliciting pts’ goals, values, and concerns
  • Assisting pts in how to conceptualize the risks and benefits/how to approach the decision
98
Q

What are the 3 different types of DNR orders in the peri-op period?

A
  • Full attempt at resuscitation
  • Limited attempt at resuscitation defined with regard to specific procedures
  • Limited attempt at resuscitation defined with regard to the pt’s goals and values
99
Q

T/F
Anesthesia cannot refuse to do a procedure if the pt refuses to reverse DNR/DNI

100
Q

Important things to not with elderly pts

A
  • Need to inform of surgical risk and identify targets for pre-op optimization
  • Goal is to identify modifiable risk factors to optimize surgical outcomes
  • Functional and cognitive impairment = poor post-op outcomes
  • Function decline is associated with morbidity, mortality, and loss of function after surgery
  • Cognitive impairment = delirium, complications, functional decline, and death post-op
  • Poor nutritional status = infectious complications, wound complications, and increased length of stay
  • Frailty is a state of increased vulnerability to physiologic stressors
  • Underdiagnosed - anxiety, depression, substance abuse, and social isolation
101
Q

Common things you may see in an elderly pt:

A

Poor physical function
Malnutrition (poor wound healing)
Low albumin (not as responsive to meds)

102
Q

Almost all anesthesia increases the risk of _____

103
Q

What are common things that poor nutritional status in elderly pts can lead to:

A

Surgical site infection
Pneumonia
UTI
Dehiscence
Anastomotic leaks

104
Q

What are the percentages for low, intermediate, and high risk of surgeries?

A

Low: <1%
Intermediate: 1%-5%
High: >5%

105
Q

Examples of high risk surgeries

A

Aortic and major vascular
Peripheral vascular

106
Q

Examples of intermediate risk surgeries

A

Intraabdominal surgery
Intrathoracic surgery
Carotid endarterectomy
Head/neck surgery

107
Q

Examples of low risk surgery

A

Ambulatory
Breast
Cataract
Skin
Urologic
Orthopedic
Endoscopic procedures

108
Q

Revised cardiac risk index chart:
What is the point of this chart?

A

Estimates risk of cardiac complications after surgery

109
Q

How do we assess cardiopulmonary status in pts and if someone is increased for periop risk?

A

Functional capacity

110
Q

Functional capacity chart:

111
Q

If someone has poor functional capacity, they are at increased:

A

Peri op risk

112
Q

On the functional capacity chart, what is the number that is considered good functional capacity?

113
Q

Who determines if a surgery is emergent?

114
Q

Life or limb would be threatened in how many hours for emergent, urgent, and time-sensitive surgery?

A

Emergent: 6 hours or less (usually in the OR in less than an hour)
Urgent: 6 to 24 hours
Time-sensitive: 1 to 6 weeks

115
Q

What is important to monitor if your surgery is turned emergent?

A

AMPEL assessment
Surveillance (serial cardiac enzymes, hemodynamics, serial ECGs)
Early treatment of post op CV complications

116
Q

Pre op Cardiac Risk Assessment Algorithm ACC/AHA guideline chart:

117
Q

Risk stratification includes what 4 things, other than pt’s physical state?

Who described this?

A

-The planned surgical procedure
-The ability and skill of the surgeon in the particular
procedure contemplated
- The attention to postoperative care
- The past experience of the anesthetist in similar
circumstances

Meyer Saklad

118
Q

Influences of various components on poor perioperative outcome chart:

119
Q

ASA physical status chart:

120
Q

Pre op testing is based on:

A

Comorbidities
Operative risk
Findings from H&P

121
Q

Pre op testing is only indicated if it will ________ your anesthetic plan

122
Q

Tests should satisfy the following criteria to be useful:

A

Diagnostic efficacy… correctly identify abnormalities?
Diagnostic effectiveness… change the diagnosis?
Therapeutic efficacy… change the management of the pt?
Therapeutic effectiveness… change the pt’s outcome?

123
Q

What would be some reasons to need a CBC pre op?

A
  • Hematologic disorder
  • Sick pts (already admitted to the hospital)
  • Increased risk pts/increased risk procedure
  • Anticoagulant therapy
  • ASA-PS 3 or 4 undergoing intermediate risk
124
Q

Reasons to get renal function testing pre op:

A

DM, HTN, cardiac disease, dehydration (N/V, diarrhea), renal disease, fluid overload
ASA-PS 3 or 4 undergoing intermediate-risk procedures
ASA-PS 2, 3, or 4 undergoing major procedures

125
Q

Reasons to get electrolyte testing pre op:

A

Suspected undiagnosed or worsening condition that will affect peri-op management

Renal or hepatic disease, malnutrition, malabsorption, ETOH abuse, HF, arrhythmias, medications that may cause an imbalance

126
Q

Reasons to get LFT pre op:

A

Liver injury and physical exam findings

Hepatitis, jaundice, cirrhosis, portal HTN, biliary disease, gallbladder disease, bleeding disorders

127
Q

What is the problem is someone has low calcium?

A

Heart may not contract as well, so low BP
May not clot well (bleeding)

128
Q

A lot of the things we do raise _____ levels, including:

A

Potassium

If something is “dead” (kidneys, gut)
Succs (.5 raise)

129
Q

In a bleeding trauma pt, what would you expect in their calcium and potassium levels?

A

Potassium can go up and calcium can go down

130
Q

Reasons to get coagulation testing pre op:

A

Known or suspected coagulopathy identified on pre-op evaluation
Known bleeding disorder, hepatic disease, and anticoagulant use
ASA-PS 3 or 4; undergoing intermediate, major, or complex surgical procedures; known to take anticoagulant medications or chronic liver disease

131
Q

Reasons to get serum glucose and glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) preop:

A

Known DM (or family history), obesity (BMI > 50), cerebrovascular or intracranial disease, or steroids history
HbA1c long-term measurement of glucose control (3 months)
All diabetic patients

132
Q

PT/INR is used for what medication monitoring?

133
Q

Ptt is used for what medication monitoring?

134
Q

Bacteria in urine increases risk of _____ for what type of surgeries?

A

Infection
Hip surgeries

We won’t put hardware in people who are infected

135
Q

We would get a UA if we suspected:

A

UTI or unexplained fever/chills

136
Q

Reasons to get a pregnancy test pre op:

A

Sexual activity, birth control use, and date of last menstrual period

137
Q

What is one of the drugs we use that can inactivate birth control? How long should pt’s use an alternative BC?

A

Suggamaddex
1-2 weeks

138
Q

Reasons we would get ECG in preop

A
  • Ischemic heart disease, HTN, DM, HF, chest pain, palpitations, abnormal valvular murmurs, dyspnea on exertion, syncope, arrythmia
  • Known IHD, significant arrhythmia, PAD, CV disease, significant structural heart disease undergoing intermediate- risk or high-risk procedures
  • Routine in ASA-PS 3 or 4 undergoing intermediate- risk
  • Routine ASA-PS 2, 3, or 4 major/high-risk procedures
139
Q

Reasons we would get CXR in pre op

A

Based on abnormalities identified during pre-op evaluation
Advanced COPD, bullous lung disease, pulmonary edema, pneumonia, mediastinal masses, suspicious physical exam findings (rales, tracheal deviation)

140
Q

Very rarely would a ____ alter management of anesthesia.
However, what 3 things will?

A

12 lead ECG

A-fib, acute MI, acute electrolyte imbalances

141
Q

What are the 4 types of anesthesia?

A

General
IV/monitored sedation
Regional
Local

142
Q

Uses and considerations of general anesthesia

A

Total loss of consciousness and airway control

ET or LMA used

Ex: major surgeries… total joints, open-heart surgery, bowel surgery

143
Q

Uses and considerations of IV/monitored sedation

A

Level of sedation ranges… minimal (drowsy, able to talk) to deep (sleeping, may not remember surgery/procedure

NC or face mask

Ex: minor surgeries/procedures or shorter, less complex procedures… biopsy, colonoscopy

144
Q

What drug has a larger margin of safety than versed/fentanyl? Why?

A

Propofol
It wears of faster

145
Q

Local anesthesia in the eye can go into the ____ causing _______ to drop

A

Brain
HR/BP

146
Q

What are some reasons we may not use a LMA?

A

Anatomy
Obstruction
High risk aspiration

147
Q

Uses and considerations of regional anesthesia

A

Pain management method that numbs a large part of the body using a local anesthetic

Epidural or spinal

Ex: childbirth or joint replacements in elderly pts

148
Q

Uses and considerations of local anesthesia

A

Pain management method, usually a one-time injection of local anesthetic that numbs a small area of the body

Can be used with general or conscious sedation depending on the surgery and pt history

Ex: skin or breast biopsy, bone/joint repair

149
Q

What’s the difference in local and regional anesthesia?

A

Regional is a region (obviously lol)
Local is injected right at the site

150
Q

Important considerations for planning post op pin management

A
  • All patients have the right to appropriate assessment and treatment of pain
  • A preoperative evaluation should include baseline pain assessment
  • Provides an important opportunity to discuss and plan for the management of acute postoperative pain
  • Specific issues include their tolerance to usual doses of opioid analgesics and the potential for acute withdrawal reactions should be assessed
151
Q

Most common agents that cause anaphylaxis?

A

Neuromuscular blockers
Antibiotics
Chlorhexidine
Latex
Opioids

152
Q

We would know if a pt is having an allergic reaction based on:

A

Vitals (hypotension, tachycardia)
Hives
Can’t tube/ventilate (high airway pressures)

153
Q

The incidence of true anaphylaxis anesthesia is:

154
Q

What is the most common paralytic people have allergic reactions to?

155
Q

Who is the most common people that we see with latex allergies? Other risk factors?

A

Healthcare workers
Pt’s with spina bifida
Food handlers

history of multiple surgeries
food allergies that cross-react (mango, kiwi, avocado, passion fruit, banana, and chestnuts)

156
Q

What two abc are the most common causes of anaphylaxis?

A

PCN and cephalosporins

157
Q

With vanc allergies, it’s important to distinguish between allergy and _________

A

Red man syndrome

158
Q

What type of local anesthetics are pt more allergic to? This is due to them having what?

A

Esters
PABA

159
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents can have cross-reactivity with allergies to _______ and ________

A

Neostigmine and morphine

160
Q

True allergies to _____ is rare; they are usually just typical side effects

161
Q

Pre op medications to continue:

A

Antihypertensive medications
Cardiac medications (ex. Beta-blockers, digoxin)
Anti-depressants (TCAs), anxiolytics, and other psychiatric medications
Thyroid medications
Oral contraceptive pills (unless high risk thrombosis)
Eye drops
GERD medications
Opiods
Seizure meds
Asthma meds
Corticosteroids
Statins
ASA (prior PCI, high grade ischemic disease)
COX2 inhibitors
MAOI (avoid demerol, ephedrine)

162
Q

Pre op medications to discontinue:

A

ASA: 10-14 days before sx
ACE/ARBS BP meds
P2Y12 inhibitors
Topical medications (day of)
Diuretics (except HCTZ)
Sildenafil (24 hrs before, worry about BP)
NSADIS (48 hrs before)
Warfarin (5 days before)
Post menopausal HRT (4 weeks before)
Non insulin anti diabetics
Insulin (if short acting insulin pump, keep)

163
Q

Why is it important to d/c -ace and -arbs?

A

They can become profoundly hypotensive and difficult to manage

164
Q

Pre op medication management for steroids and HPA suppression:

A
  • Cortisol is produced by the adrenal gland
  • Hydrocortisone is an equally potent synthetic version
  • Exogenous glucocorticoids suppress cortisol secretion at HPA axis
  • May lead to adrenal insufficiency and adrenal atrophy
  • May blunt the normal cortisol hypersecretion associated with surgery
165
Q

What is the dose of hydrocortisone that we would give to some with suppression of cortisol activity?

A

100 mg every 6-8 hours

166
Q

HPA suppression management:

A

No HPA suppression with short duration, low-dose steroids

HPA suppression with >20 mg prednisone/day >3 weeks and in pts with Cushingoid appearance

167
Q

Preop management of steroids:

A

Assess duration, dose, and potency of all steroids taken during the past year

168
Q

Stress dose for steroids in the OR:

A

Physiologic replacement doses are required

Dosage varies based on surgical procedures

169
Q

Steroid dosing chart:

170
Q

Pre-operative medication managementherbals and vitamins

A
  • Direct effects… intrinsic pharmacologic effects
  • Pharmacodynamic interactions… alters action of conventional drugs at effector site
  • Pharmacokinetic interactions… alters absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination of conventional drugs
  • Approximately 50% of pts take multiple herbs
  • 25% take prescription drugs
171
Q

Echinacea pharmacologic effects, peri op concerns, d/c before surgery?

A

Activation of cell mediated immunity

Allergic reactions, decreases effectiveness of immunosuppressants, potential for immunosuppression with long term use

No data

172
Q

Ephedra pharmacologic effects, peri op concerns, d/c before surgery?

A

Increases HR and BP through indirect/direct sympathomimetic effects

Risk of myocardial ischemia/stroke from tachycardia and HTN; Ventricular arrhythmias with halothane; long term use depletes endogenous catecholamines, my cause intraop hemodynamic instability; life threatening interaction with MAOI

24 hrs

173
Q

Garlic pharmacologic effects, peri op concerns, d/c before surgery?

A

Inhibits plt aggregation, increases fibrinolysis, equivocal antiHTN activity

May increase risk of bleeding

7 days

174
Q

Ginger pharmacologic effects, peri op concerns, d/c before surgery?

A

Antiemetic; anti platelet aggregation

May increase risk of bleeding

No data

175
Q

Ginkgo pharmacologic effects, peri op concerns, d/c before surgery?

A

Inhibits platelet-activating factor

May increase risk of bleeding

36 hrs

176
Q

Ginseng pharmacologic effects, peri op concerns, d/c before surgery?

A

Lowers BG, inhibits plt aggregation, increased PT/Ptt in animals

Hypoglycemia, increased risk of bleeding, may decrease anticoagulant effect of warfarin

7 days

177
Q

Green tea pharmacologic effects, peri op concerns, d/c before surgery?

A

Inhibits plt aggregation; inhibits thromboxane A2 formation

May increase risk of bleeding; may decrease anticoagulant effect of warfarin

7 days

178
Q

Kava pharmacologic effects, peri op concerns, d/c before surgery?

A

Sedation, anxiolytics

May increase sedative effect of anesthetics; increase in anesthetic requirements with long term use

24 hrs

179
Q

Saw palmetto pharmacologic effects, peri op concerns, d/c before surgery?

A

Inhibits 5a reductase, inhibits cyclooxygenase

May increase risk of bleeding

No data

180
Q

St John’s Wort pharmacologic effects, peri op concerns, d/c before surgery?

A

Inhibits neurotransmitter reuptake; MAO inhibition unlikely

Induction of CP450, affects cyclosporine, warfarin, steroids, and protease inhibitors; decreased serum digoxin levels, delayed emergence

5 days

181
Q

Valerian pharmacologic effects, peri op concerns, d/c before surgery?

A

Sedation

May increase sedative effect of anesthetics, benzodiazepines-like acute withdrawal

No data

182
Q

What is the risk associated with being NPO at midnight?

A

Dehydration, hypoglycemia

183
Q

Fasting guidelines chart:

184
Q

Clear liquids doesn’t necessarily mean see through, but something without ______

A

Particulate matter

185
Q

As part of the ERAS protocol, some pts are given what 30min-1hr before surgery?

186
Q

Risk factors for pulmonary aspiration (chart):

187
Q

What increases morbidity and mortality when discussing aspiration? What does this include?

A

Mendelson syndrome

> 25 ml gastric residual volume
pH <2.5

188
Q

Aspiration prophylaxis:

A
  • Decrease gastric volume and acidity
  • Non-particulate antacids (sodium citrate)… increase gastric pH
  • Histamine-2 receptor antagonists (ranitidine, cimetidine, famotidine… increase gastric pH, decrease gastric acid secretion
  • Proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole, pantoprazole)… increase gastric pH, decrease gastric acid secretion
  • Dopamine-2 antagonist (metoclopramide)… reduces gastric volume
189
Q

What is Mendelson syndrome named after?

A

Curtis Lester Mendelson’s original 1946 description of his namesake syndrome, chemical pneumonitis was described in young and healthy obstetrical patients following aspiration of gastric acid under anesthesia. The standard use of regional anesthesia for most laboring women and increased awareness among anesthesia providers regarding the high risk of aspiration and potential difficult airway management in parturients has increased the safety in this population. This complication of anaesthesia led, in part, to the longstandingnil per os(abbr. NPO; a Latin phrase meaning nothing by mouth) recommendation for women in labour

190
Q

Koivuranta PONV risk scoring system includes:

A

Female gender
History of PONV/motion sickness
Nonsmoking status
Age (less than 50)
Duration of surgery

*these are in decreasing order of significance

191
Q

Simplified Apfel score for PONV includes:

A

Female
History of PONV/motion sickness
Nonsmoking status
Post op opiods

  • these are in decreasing order of significance
192
Q

Reduce PONV by:

A
  • give antiemetics (zofran)
  • Give decadron in combo with zofran
  • Zofran is good at preventing PONV but not treating
  • Can use scopalamine (but makes you sleepy, thirsty, crazy pupils, older pts become delirious; takes a while to work so may need to give as a prescription prior to surgery)
193
Q

PONV risk factors in adults and children chart:

194
Q

If a pt has 1 to 2 risk factors for PONV, they are considered:

A

Moderate to severe risk

195
Q

If a pt has 3 to 4 risk factors for PONV, they are considered:

A

Severe risk

196
Q

Risks of PONV associated with the number of risk factors:

A

Zero risk factors: 10%
One risk factor: 20%
Two risk factors: 40%
Three risk factors: 60%
Four risk factors: 80%

197
Q

Meds to use for N/V prevention:

A

Scopalamine
Pregabalin
Ondansetron
Promethazine
Dexmethasone

*See slide 64 for further info

198
Q

Premedication pain prevention considerations:

A

Baseline pain assessment

Develop pain management plan
- Peri-op pain control a concern
- Pre-op pain instructions may help improve post-op pain
- Regional anesthesia techniques
- Consult pain management for chronic pain
-Tolerance and acute withdrawal reactions

Adjunct analgesics
-NSAIDs, gabapentin, pregabalin, clonidine, acetaminophen

199
Q

Premedication antibiotic considerations:

A

Core measure SCIP-INF (Infection)

All pts should have received prophylactic antibiotics within 1 hour before surgical incision

Pts who received vancomycin or a fluoroquinolone for prophylactic antibiotics should have the antibiotics initiated within 2 hours before surgical incision

200
Q

What are the considerations for cefazolin pre op?

A

Most commonly administered antibiotic for surgery

Broad-spectrum β-lactam antimicrobial agent

Most aerobic gram-positive bacteria that cause surgical site infections
-Staphylococci, streptococci strains

Cross-reactivity to PCN

201
Q

What are the considerations for clindamycin pre op?

A

Effective against gram-positive aerobic bacteria
- Staphylococci, streptococci, pneumococci strains

Most gram-positive and gram-negative anaerobic bacteria

Alternative for a β-lactam allergy or a MRSA infection

Treats infections of the head and neck, respiratory tract, bone, soft tissue, abdomen, and pelvis

Recommended in hysterectomies, cesareans, appendectomies, gastroduodenal tract, biliary tract, small intestine, colon, and rectum

202
Q

What are the considerations for vancomycin pre op?

A

Gram-positive bacteria
- Staphylococci, streptococci strains

Alternative for a β-lactam allergy or MRSA infection

Recommended for distal ilium, colon, appendix surgical sites

203
Q

Dosing for preop antibiotics in adults and children

A

Cefazolin:
- adult: 2g, 3g if >120kg
- children: 30 mg/kg

Clinda:
- adult: 900 mg (cut to 600 mg if renal impaired)
- children: 10 mg/kg

Vanc:
- adult: 15 mg/kg
- children: 15 mg/kg

204
Q

The preop eval clinic is a visible partnership among the departments of:

A

Nursing, anesthesia, surgery, and hospital admin

205
Q

What are the positives to a preop eval clinic?

A
  • decreased cost
  • efficient services
  • clinical productivity
  • timely access to clinic
  • pt and surgeon satisfaction