Uncovered High-Yield Topics Flashcards

1
Q

What does a normal CSF study look like?

A
  • Opening pressure 5-20 cm water
  • Glucose 50-80 mg/dL (or ~2/3 of serum glucose)
  • Protein 15-40 mg/dL
  • WBC < 3 (<30 in neonates)
  • RBC < 5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AIP vs Wilson’s disease

A

AIP is acute in onset while Wilson’s is gradual

AIP is associated with neuropathic sensations (abdominal pain w/o tenderness, tingling sensations) while Wilson’s is assocaited with movement disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Five P’s of AIP

A
  • Painful abdomen (often confused for acute abdomen, leading to a belly full of scars)
  • Purple urine (urine is colorless initially, but exposure to light causes PBG in urine to oxidize and gives urine its color).
  • Peripheral neuropathy (patchy numbness and paresthesias)
  • Psychological disturbances (anxiety, confusion, psychosis, dementia)
  • Precipitated by drugs or dietary changes (drugs that enhance cytochrome P-450 activity, sulfa drugs, barbiturates, some antipsychotics, alcohol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Myotonia

A

Delayed muscle relaxation

Should make you think of myotonic dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In whom should you use amitryptaline with caution?

A
  1. Patients over age 65 (it has anticholinergic activity)
  2. Patients on multiple other drugs that can cause serotonin syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Steroid psychosis

A

People on high dose steroids can have steroid-induced psychosis!

Little is known about underlying risk factors, but if someone develops new psychosis on high-dose steroids you should trial holding the steroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Classic onset of ALS

A
  • Dysphagia
  • Dysarthria
  • Tongue fasciculations
  • Paradoxical breathing (expansion of abdomen on expiration rather than inspiration, caused by diaphragmatic weakness)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Things that mess with anterior horn cells

A
  • Heritable syndromes (spinal muscular atrophy)
  • Lead poisoning
  • Polio myelitis
  • West Nile Virus myelitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment of PCP intoxication

A
  • Involves treatment of agitation and aggression
  • Benzodiazepines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Really, most parotid gland masses are benign. But, if they grow to involve ___, they are probably malignant.

A

Really, most parotid gland masses are benign. But, if they grow to involve the facial nerve, they are probably malignant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What diseases does a negative ANA likely exclude?

A
  • SLE
  • Scleroderma
  • MCTD
    • The sensitivity for these diseases is quite high (>90%), but still not entirely perfect. Other diseases you really shouldn’t take a negative ANA into much consideration since it is closer to ~50% positivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Wilson’s disease pathophysiology

A
  • Autosomal recessive disorder
    • Mutation in ATP7B, a transport protein
    • It is genetic!! Not just copper toxicity
  • Characterized by the reduced excretion of copper into the bile secondary to a transport abnormality, leading to the pathologic accumulation of copper in the liver and other tissues, particularly the brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Copper chelators

A
  • Penicillamine – pee out copper
  • Trientine – poop out copper
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Delayed facial nerve palsy

A

Sometimes occurs after trauma to the head

Basically, the facial palsy does not develop until ~24-48 hours later, when the edema becomes more significant

When this occurs, it will be a complete facial nerve palsy, not an isolated lower facial nerve palsy. The latter should be concerning for epidural hemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Connection of the frontal eye field to the cranial nerves

A
18
Q

Chiari malformation

A

Type I: Cerebellum into the spinal cord

Type II: More cerebellum into the spinal cord, and a myelomeningocele

19
Q

COAT RACK for Wernicke’s and Korsakoff’s

A
20
Q

A lesion above the red nucleus leads to resting ___.

A lesion below the red nucleus leads to resting ___.

A

A lesion above the red nucleus leads to resting flexion.

A lesion below the red nucleus leads to resting extension.

Basically think of the red nucleus as sending out a default “extend” signal to the body, which is overridden by cortical input.

21
Q

Sign of diffuse axonal injury on CT

A

“Blurring of white-gray junction”

22
Q

Various temporal lobe functions

A
23
Q

Causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome

A
24
Q

Presentation/Features of Kluver-Bucy syndrome

A
25
Q

What do the superior colliculi regulate?

What commonly damages them?

A

They regulate vertical gaze (superior/inferior)

They are commonly damaged in Parinaud syndrome

26
Q

Quick rule of thumb for HIV infections and CD4s

A
27
Q

Mnemonic for normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

“Wet, wild, wacky”

Wet – urinary incontinence

Wild – gait unsteadiness

Wacky – dementia

28
Q

Whipple’s disease

A
  • Mostly in males over age 40
  • Intracellular gram + bacteria that stains on PAS
  • Clinical features:
    • Malabsorption + abd pain + diarrhea
    • Arthritis
    • Movement symptoms (ataxia, myoclonia, ophthalmoparesis)
  • Diagnosis: Small intestine biopsy with PAS staining (if GI symptoms present). PCR testing also available for GI or CSF samples.
  • Treatment: IV ceftriaxone or penicillin for 2-4 weeks, then batrim for 1 year.
29
Q

Transient global amnesia

A
  • Presentation: Abrupt onset, transient memory loss following psychological stress or vigorous exercise
  • Amnesia is anterograde, sometimes with partial retrograde
  • By definition, takes < 24 hours to resolve, and resolution is complete
  • Diagnosis: Clinical, but EEG and MRI have associated findings and can rule out other etiologies
    • EEG: rule out epilepsy/simple partial seizure
    • MRI: Shows focal hyperintensities in the hippocampi
  • Treatment: None. Self-resolving. Sometimes may monitor for 24 hours if the diagnosis is in question.
30
Q

Two types of infection from Taenia sollium

A
  • If acquired from ingestion of larva in raw pork: Intestinal taeniasis
    • May be asymptomatic
    • May present with GI upset or malabsorption (similar to trichinellosis or ascariasis)
  • If acquired from eggs in human faeces (ie, in someone who was infected with intestinal taeniasis): Cysticercosis
    • May manifest in several tissues
    • Neurocysticercosis: Headache, elevated ICP, FNDs, seizures. MRI w/ multiple ring-enhancing lesions (early stage). LP w/ eosinophilia.
    • Ocular cysticercosis: Subretinal cysts on ophthalmologic exam
31
Q

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrom

A
  • An endotoxin-triggered coaguolpathy that may be induced by Neisseria meningitidis
  • Characterized by the purple, spotty purpura of N. meingitidis and acute adrenal insufficiency or adrenal hemorrhage.
32
Q

Treatment for cryptococcal meningitis

A
  • Induction therapy with amphotericin B + flucytosine
  • Maintenance with 8 weeks of fluconazole
33
Q

Uncal herniation syndrome (Garret)

A

Ipsilateral CN 3 palsy

Contralateral paralysis

Risk of ipsilateral PCA strokes

– The medial temporal lobe is squished against the midbrain

34
Q

Diffuse cerebral edema in cardiac collapse

A

Due to hypoxic injury

35
Q

Metabolic encephalopathies may precipitate ___

A

Metabolic encephalopathies may precipitate diffuse cerebral edema

36
Q

ICP ladder

A
  • Head of bed at 30 degrees
  • Hyperventilation
  • Hypertonic saline / mannitol
  • Skull decompression
  • Therapeutic hypothermia
37
Q

Prophylactic hemicraniectomy

A
  • If you have a patient with a large territory infarct, this may result in cerebral edema that can be life threatening
  • Hemicraniectomy may be performed to prevent life threatening herniation
38
Q

Right MCA language changes

A
  • Prosody changes
  • Anomia
  • Paraphasic errors
39
Q

Treatment for neurocysticercosis

A

Praziquantel and Albendazole

40
Q

Area postrema syndrome

A

Subtype of neuromyelitis optica (NMO), hence anti-AQP4 will be present.

Characterized by episodes of intractable nausea, vomiting, and/or hiccups

MRI shows enhancement of just the area postrema, which is in the dorsal medulla just inferior to the cerebellum.