ULTRASOUND Flashcards

1
Q

Resistance of sound as it propagates through a medium.

A

acoustic impedance

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2
Q

The ability of sonography to visualize a particular area, such as using a full urinary bladder to image the uterus.

A

acoustic window

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3
Q

Property of being free of echoes.

A

anechoic

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4
Q

The angle at which the ultrasound beam strikes an interface with respect to normal incidence.

A

angle of incidence

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5
Q

The ratio of ankle pressure to brachial pressure to determine the degree of lower extremity disability.

A

Ankle/Brachial Index (ABI)

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6
Q

The weakening of the sound wave as it propagates through a medium.

A

attenuation

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7
Q

The ability to distinguish two structures along a path parallel to the sound beam.

A

axial resolution

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8
Q

The largest dimension of the fetal head perpendicular to the midsagittal plane, used to measure fetal development

A

biparietal diameter (BPD)

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9
Q

A technique that assigns a color to each velocity frequency change in an ultrasound image.

A

color flow Doppler

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10
Q

What does “complex” mean in ultrasound?

A

A structure containing both anechoic and echogenic areas.

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11
Q

wave in which cycles repeat indefinitely, using separate transmit and receiver transducers.

A

continuous wave

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12
Q

What is the coronal image plane?

A

A plane perpendicular to the sagittal and transverse planes of the body.

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13
Q

What is the Doppler Effect in ultrasound?

A

A shift in frequency or wavelength caused by relative motion between the source, receiver, and medium.

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14
Q

What is duplex imaging?

A

The combination of gray-scale real-time imaging and color or spectral Doppler.

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15
Q

What does echogenic mean?

A

Refers to a medium that contains echo-producing structures.

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16
Q

Define embryo.

A

Term for the developing zygote through the 10th week of gestation.

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17
Q

What is the endometrium?

A

The inner layer of the uterine canal.

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18
Q

What is an endorectal transducer?

A

A high-frequency transducer inserted into the rectum to visualize the bladder and prostate gland.

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19
Q

What is an endovaginal transducer?

A

A high-frequency transducer inserted into the vagina to obtain high-resolution images of pelvic structures.

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20
Q

What is the false pelvis?

A

The region above the pelvic brim.

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21
Q

Term for the developing embryo from the 11th gestational week until birth.

A

fetus

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22
Q

A functional ovulatory cyst consisting of an ovum surrounded by a layer of cells.

A

follicular cyst

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23
Q

The length of time calculated from the first day of the last menstrual period.

A

gestational age

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24
Q

A fluid-filled structure in the uterus containing the pregnancy.

A

gestational sac

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25
Q

The range of amplitude (brightness) between black and white.

A

gray scale

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26
Q

What does heterogeneous mean?

A

Having a mixed composition.

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27
Q

Define homogeneous.

A

Having a uniform composition.

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28
Q

Producing more echoes than normal.

A

hyperechoic

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29
Q

What does hypoechoic mean?

A

Producing fewer echoes than normal.

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30
Q

The inner layer of a vessel.

A

intima

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31
Q

A bony ridge dividing the true and false pelvis.

A

iliopectineal line

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32
Q

Damage to the cardiac myocardium caused by disruption of the coronary artery blood supply.

A

ischemia

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33
Q

What does isoechoic mean?

A

Having a texture nearly the same as the surrounding tissue.

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34
Q

The ability to distinguish two structures lying perpendicular to the sound beam.

A

lateral resolution

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35
Q

What is leiomyoma?

A

The most common benign tumor of the uterine myometrium.

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36
Q

Define myometrium.

A

The thick layer of the uterine wall.

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37
Q

What is a non-invasive technique?

A

A procedure that does not require breaking the skin or entering an organ.

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38
Q

Define oblique plane.

A

Any plane that is not at a right angle to an axis.

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39
Q

What is parenchyma?

A

The functional tissue of an organ or gland.

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40
Q

What is the piezoelectric effect?

A

The conversion of pressure to electrical voltage or vice versa.

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41
Q

Normal venous respiratory variations.

A

phasic flow

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42
Q

What is posterior acoustic enhancement?

A

Increased reflection amplitude behind a weakly attenuating structure.

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43
Q

What is posterior acoustic shadowing?

A

Reduced reflection amplitude behind a strongly reflecting or attenuating structure.

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44
Q

Uses a transducer to emit short pulses of sound and receive reflections before emitting another pulse.

A

pulse wave ultrasound

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45
Q

Imaging with a rapid frame rate to visualize moving structures continuously.

A

real-time imaging

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46
Q

The redirection of part of the sound beam back to the transducer.

A

reflection

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47
Q

The bending of wavefronts as sound propagates through media of different acoustic velocities.

A

refraction

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48
Q

The area posterior to the peritoneal cavity, containing organs like the kidneys and adrenal glands.

A

retroperitoneal cavity

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49
Q

A pelvic space located anterior to the rectum and posterior to the uterus.

A

pouch of Douglas

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50
Q

The diffusion of sound in several directions upon encountering a rough surface.

A

scattering

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51
Q

A device used to discover underwater objects and determine their location.

A

sonar

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52
Q

Longitudinal mechanical energy propagated through a medium.

A

sound wave

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53
Q

Define transducer.

A

A device that converts energy from one form to another.

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54
Q

What is ultrasound?

A

Sound with a frequency greater than 20 kHz.

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55
Q

What is the velocity of sound?

A

The speed and direction of sound propagation through a medium.

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56
Q

Who developed the first ultrasound scanner?

A

Howry in 1948.

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57
Q

What did Hertz and Edler achieve in 1954?

A

They developed echocardiographic techniques.

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58
Q

Who built the early obstetric scanner in 1957?

A

Brown and Donald.

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59
Q

What significant development in ultrasound occurred in the 1970s?

A

Gray scale imaging and real-time scanning systems were introduced.

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60
Q

What type of energy is sound classified as, and can it travel through a vacuum?

A

Sound is a mechanical energy, and it cannot travel through a vacuum.

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61
Q

What is the frequency range of ultrasound?

A

Ultrasound has a frequency above 20,000 Hz (20 kHz) and is inaudible to humans.

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62
Q

What are the three main types of ultrasound waves?

A

Longitudinal/Compression waves, Transverse/Shear waves, and Surface/Rayleigh waves.

63
Q

What is the function of piezoelectric crystals in ultrasound?

A

They generate ultrasound waves and convert electrical signals into mechanical waves and vice versa.

64
Q

What is A-mode in ultrasound?

A

Echoes are shown as peaks to measure the distance between structures. Used to build B-mode images.

65
Q

What is the Doppler effect in ultrasound?

A

It describes the change in frequency of a wave due to relative motion between the source and observer.

66
Q

What are the two basic types of Doppler ultrasound units?

A

Continuous Wave Doppler (no depth resolution) and Pulsed Wave Doppler (good depth resolution).

67
Q

How is wavelength related to frequency in ultrasound?

A

Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency.

68
Q

What are acoustic impedance?

A

Acoustic impedance describes particle behavior under pressure.

69
Q

What is the purpose of the time-gain compensation (TGC) amplifier in ultrasound?

A

To compensate for ultrasound attenuation and improve image quality.

70
Q

What type of transducer is best for obstetric ultrasound during early pregnancy?

A

A linear or convex transducer with 5.0 MHz focused at 7-9 cm.

71
Q

What are the two regions of the ultrasound beam?

A

Near field (Fresnel zone) and Far field (Fraunhofer zone).

72
Q

What is temporal resolution in ultrasound?

A

The system’s ability to display time-separated events as distinct images. Higher frame rate improves it.

73
Q

What is the main cause of reverberation artifact?

A

False echoes caused by repeated reflections between two high impedance mismatch interfaces.

74
Q

When was the Doppler technique introduced in ultrasound?

A

The Doppler technique was introduced in the 1980s.

75
Q

What is the frequency range of audible sound for humans?

A

16 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

76
Q

sound with a frequency below 16 Hz.

A

infrasound

77
Q

What is the pulse duration and repetition rate for ultrasound pulses?

A

Pulse duration: 1 microsecond; Pulse repetition: 1000 times per second.

78
Q

Name the three acoustic variables in ultrasound.

A

Period (T), Wavelength (λ), and Amplitude (Depth).

79
Q

What happens with a small diameter piezoelectric crystal in ultrasound?

A

It increases beam divergence.

80
Q

It depicts two-dimensional images using dots of different brightness for echo amplitude.

A

B-mode imaging

81
Q

It shows movement as a function of time, particularly in cardiac scanning.

A

M-mode

82
Q

What is the primary limitation of Continuous Wave Doppler ultrasound?

A

It has no depth resolution.

83
Q

What is the average propagation speed of ultrasound in soft tissue?

A

1540 m/s.

84
Q

reduces beam width and improve image resolution.

A

acoustic lenses

85
Q

Name a synthetic piezoelectric material commonly used in ultrasound.

A

Lead zirconate titanate (PZT).

86
Q

What does a high acoustic impedance indicate about a substance?

A

It indicates high density and a greater resistance to ultrasound waves.

87
Q

What is the approximate acoustic impedance of bone?

A

7.80 rayls.

88
Q

How does a wide bandwidth benefit ultrasound imaging?

A

It shortens spatial pulse length and provides a wider range of frequencies.

89
Q

What transducer type is most useful for abdominal and obstetric scanning?

A

Sector/Curvilinear Array Transducer.

90
Q

What is the role of backing or damping material in transducers?

A

It shortens ultrasound pulse length, controls vibrations, and improves axial resolution.

91
Q

How does beam intensity relate to ultrasound imaging?

A

Beam intensity is the power flowing through a unit area, affecting image quality.

92
Q

What causes side lobe artifacts in ultrasound imaging?

A

Echoes generated by side lobes are assumed to originate from the main beam axis.

93
Q

What is the best method to eliminate reverberation artifacts?

A

Increase the amount of gel, use a stand-off pad, or reposition the transducer.

94
Q

It provides a wide field of view and is useful for cardiac and cranial ultrasound.

A

phased array transducer

95
Q

What determines the axial resolution in ultrasound?

A

The spatial pulse length and wavelength

96
Q

What happens when ultrasound interacts with a large structure of differing impedance?

A

Reflection occurs, resulting in echoes.

97
Q

What is acoustic enhancement, and where is it observed?

A

It is a bright area seen distal to weakly attenuating structures like fluid-filled cysts.

98
Q

How heavy is the liver?

A

1.6 kg in males, 1.4 kg in females

99
Q

What are the liver divisions?

A

left lobe
right lobe
caudate lobe

100
Q

Divided into medial and lateral segments by the L hepatic vein and ligamentum teres

A

left lobe

101
Q

Separated from the caudate lobe by the ligamentum venosum

A

left lobe

102
Q

Divided into the anterior and posterior segments by the R hepatic vein

A

right lobe

103
Q

How large is the r lobe of the liver?

A

6x larger than left lobe

104
Q

what are the 3 posterior fossae found in the R lobe of the liver?

A

gallbladder, porta hepatis, and IVC

105
Q

Smallest lobe of the liver

A

caudate liver

106
Q

another name for the hepatorenal pouch

A

morison pouch

107
Q

Lobe that Lies anterior to the porta hepatis and middle hepatic vein

A

left lobe

108
Q

lobe that lies anterior to the R kidney

A

Right lobe

109
Q

lobe that Lies anterior and medial to the IVC

A

caudate lobe

110
Q

Extension of the R lobe inferior and anterior to the lower pole of the R kidney

A

Riedel’s Lobe

111
Q

what gender is reidels lobe more prevalent?

A

females

112
Q

uterine position wherein uterus is bent at the isthmus with body folded backwards on the cervix

A

retroflexed

113
Q

uterine position wherein uterus is – straight but directed posteriorly

A

retroverted

114
Q

normal size of fallopian tubes

A

7-12 mm in length

115
Q

portion of the fallopian tube that transverse the myometrium

A

interstitial

116
Q

what is the narrowest portion of the fallopian tube?

A

isthmus

117
Q

what is the widest portion of the fallopian tube?

A

ampullary; it is also the site of implantation

118
Q

what is the infundibulum portion of the fallopian tube?

A

opens into the peritoneal cavity;
with fimbriae and adjacent to the ovaries

119
Q

Midcycle pain due to ovulation

A

MITTELSCHMERZ

120
Q

Abnormal proliferation of endometrial gland

A

ENDOMETRIAL HYPERPLASIA

121
Q

Localized or pedunculated broad-based
growth of endometrial tissues that cause bleeding

A

ENDOMETRIAL POLYPS

122
Q

Common in puerperal endometritis 2 to 5 days after delivery or post-abortion D&C

A

ENDOMETRITIS

123
Q

Presence of endometrial tissues in the
myometrium

A

ADENOMYOSIS

124
Q

Cysts in the cervix

A

NABOTHIAN CYSTS

125
Q

Solid nodules extending from the cervix

A

CERVICAL LEIOMYOMA

126
Q

Located in the anterior inferior to neck

A

thyroid gland

127
Q

normal size of thyroid

A

LENGTH: 4 to 6 cm
THICKNESS: 3-4 mm (isthmus)

128
Q

linear used for imaging the thyroid gland

A

linear

129
Q

what is the patient prep for abdominal utz?

A

4-8 hours of fasting

130
Q

probe used in imaging the abdomen

A

curved array

131
Q

Narrow tube approx. 10 cm in length arising from the tip of the cecum approx. 3 cm below the ICV

A

appendix

132
Q

what is the percentage of blood supply to the liver?

A

a) PortalVein (70%)
b) Hepatic Artery (30%)

133
Q

how many liters of blood does the liver carry?

A

1.5L

134
Q

TYPES OF FATTY LIVER DISEASE:

A

diffuse fatty liver
focal fatty liver
focal fatty sparing

135
Q

differentiate the TYPES OF FATTY LIVER DISEASE

A
  1. Diffuse Fatty Liver: entire liver is affected
  2. Focal Fatty Liver: lobar / segmental
  3. Focal Fatty Sparing: Whole liver is fatty but some parts are not
    included
136
Q

hepatitis that is caused by fecal-oral route;

A

Hep a

137
Q

most common hepatitis

A

Hep A

138
Q

What is Hepa B

A

from blood products, sexual contact

139
Q

What is Hepa c

A

(blood transfusion)

140
Q

what is hepa e?

A

from oral; water-borne

141
Q

what is hepa d?

A

same with type B; can’t occur w/o type B

142
Q

acute hepatitis has an appearnce of _____ in an ultrasound

A

starry sky

143
Q

Most common 1° neoplasm in the liver

A

CAVERNOUS HEMANGIOMAS

144
Q

Most common 1° hepatic malignancy

A

HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA (HCC)

145
Q

normal dimensions of gallbladder and gallbladder wall

A

3 cm wide, 7-10 cm long
GB wall: up to 3 mm

146
Q

pathway of bile

A

intrahepatic ducts
common hepatic duct
cystic duct
cbd
ampulla of vater
sphincter of oddi
2nd portion of descending duodenum

147
Q

normal dimensions of common hepatic duct

A

up to 4mm

148
Q

normal dimensions of cbd

A

up to 6mm

149
Q

“STRAWBERRY GB”

A

CHOLESTEROLOSIS

150
Q

Support breast tissue

A

Cooper’s ligament

151
Q

Suspensory ligaments that extend anteriorly from the deep muscle fascia, throught the breast, to the skin

A

Cooper’s ligament

152
Q

How many lobes does the breast have?

A

15-20

153
Q

Breast layer that contains Fat lobules, connective tissue, muscle

A

retromammary Layer

154
Q

Breast layer that contains Skin and subcutaneous fat lobules

A

Subcutaneous Layer