UK Oral Board Flashcards
1
Q
What is the definition of a procedural service?
A
An ATS where in addition to the provisions of a basic service, the controller provides restrictions, instructions, and approach clearances, which if complied with, will achieve deconfliction minima against other a/c participating in the Procedural Service.
Neither TI nor deconfliction advice can be passed with respect to unknown traffic.
2
Q
Define an alerting service
A
A service where the ATCO notifies appropriate organisations regarding a/c in need of search and rescue aid and assists such organisations as required.
3
Q
Define a Basic Service
A
An ATS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight. This may include;
1) Weather information
2) Changes of serviceability of facilities
3) Conditions at aerodromes
4) General airspace activity information
5) Any other info likely to affect safety
4
Q
From when until when do Approach Control provide ATC services to A/C within CAS?
A
1) Arriving A/C are released by Area Control until transferred to Aerodrome Control
2) A/C approaching from outside CAS place themselves under the control of Approach Control until transferred to Aerodrome Control
3) Departing A/C are taken over from Aerodrome Control until;
a) they are transferred to Area Control; or
b) they are clear of CAS
4) Overflying A/C are within the relevant CAS
5
Q
Outside CAS from when and until when shall Approach Control provide services to A/C?
A
1) Arriving A/C place themselves under the contol of Approach Control until control is transferred to Aerodrome Control
2) Departing A/C are taken over from Aerodrome Control until they no longer wish a service or are 10 minutes flying time away from the Aerodrome whichever is sooner.
3) Overflying A/C place themselves under the control of Approach Control until they are clear of the Approach pattern and either no longer wish to receive a service or are 10 minutes flying time away from the aerodrome, whichever is the sooner.
6
Q
When does transfer of control normally take place?
A
1) At an agreed reporting point
2) On an estimate for an FIR boundary
3) At or passing an agreed level
4) While an a/c is climbing to an agreed level providing separation will exist for the rest of the climb
7
Q
What information will an ATSU need for a captive balloon that has broken free?
A
1) Type of balloon and whether carrying any persons
2) Position of balloon site
3) Direction and speed of drift
4) Last observed height
5) Length of cable attached to balloon; and
6) Balloon operators name and tel no.
8
Q
For how long after the departure time of an a/c should the AGL be left on?
A
15 mins
9
Q
When may a/c be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another?
A
1) Vertical Separation already exists
2) Vacating a/c is proceeding to a level that will maintain vertical sep; and
3) Either;
a) The ATCO observes that the vacating a/c has left the level; or
b) The pilot has reported vacating the level
Instructions to be delayed if severe turbulence is known to exist.
Consider differences in climb/descent rates
10
Q
How can an ERP be defined?
A
Overhead a VOR
Overhead an NDB
Intersection of two VOR radials
Intersection of a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB
At a range and distance from a VOR and a colocated/associated DME
11
Q
What is longitudinal separation?
A
Separation using time or distance so that the spacing between the estimated positions of a/c is never less than a prescribed minima
12
Q
How can longitudinal separation be achieved?
A
Be requiring an a/c to;
Depart at a specified time
Lose or gain time to arrive over a geographical location at a specifed time
Hold over a geographic location until a specified time
13
Q
Between what flights will standard separation be provided?
A
1) All flights in Class A Airspace
2) IFR flights in Class C, D and E Airspace
3) IFR and VFR flights in Class C
4) IFR and SVFR flights
5) SVFR except where a reduction is authorised by the CAA
14
Q
When shall separation standards be increased?
A
1) When requested by Pilot
2) When ATCO considers it necessary
3) Directed by CAA
15
Q
What are the Long separations based on time for a/c on same track and same level?
A
2 mins- provided 2 mins dep sep has been applied
3 mins- When specifically authorised by the CAA and both a/c are; 1) equipped with functioning transponders; and 2) continously monitored by ATS surveillance systems and the actual distance between them is never less than 20NM
5 mins- Provided the preceding a/c has filed an airspeed of 20 kts or more faster than the following a/c
5 mins- When specifically authorised by the CAA and both a/c are; 1) equipped with functioning transponders; and 2) continously monitored by ATS surveillance systems and the actual distance between them is never less than 30NM
10 mins
16
Q
What are the time based long sep for a/c Climbing and descending on the same track?
A
5 mins at time levels are crossed- Provided that the level change is commenced within 10 mins of the time the second a/c has reported over the same ERP
10 mins
17
Q
What are the time based long sep for a/c crossing tracks?
A
10 mins
18
Q
What are the time based long sep for a/c on reciprocal tracks?
A
10 mins before and after estimated passing time-
Vertical sep shall be provided for at least 10 mins both prior to and after the estimated time of passing unless it is confirmed that the a/c have actually passed each other by;
-ATS surveillance info
-A visual sighting report from both a/c (day only)
- A/c position reports over the same ERP, provided vertical separation is maintained for sufficient time to take into account possible nav errors
19
Q
What are the times for longitudinal separation of departing a/c and what are the conditions? (MATS 1)
A
1 min- If the a/c are flying on different tracks separated by at least 45°. Minima may be reduced if using lateral runways which do not cross, procedure must be approved and lateral separation must be effected immediately after take off.
2 min- For tracks not separated by 45° provided that the preceding a/c is 40kts or more faster and neither aircraft is cleared to execute a manoeuvre that would decrease the 2 min separation between them.
5 min- Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20kts or more faster than the following aircraft.
5 min- Provided that 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal control area and the a/c will be subesequently separated either;
1) Vertically
2) by Tracks which divert by 30° or more; or
3) by radar
* Only to be used at locations approved by CAA*
10 min
20
Q
What are the time based long sep between departing a/c and those already established en-route?
A
10 mins
5 mins- provided;
En-route a/c has a filed TAS 20kts or more faster
En-route a/c has reported over an ERP where departing a/c joins route and the departing a/c has been instructed to arrive at that point 5 mins behind the en-route a/c
21
Q
What are the distance based longitudinal separations for a/c on recipricol tracks in the UK?
A
Recipricol Tracks
40nm unless both a/c have been established as having crossed each other and are at least 10nm apart, if within 100nm of a DME/TACAN this may be further reduced to 5nm
22
Q
What is geographical separation in the UK?
A
• Positive position reports over different geographical locations - specified as being separated (MATS Pt2).
23
Q
What are the distance based longitudinal separations for a/c on the same track when climbing and descending in the UK?
A
Climbing or descending on the same track
15nm at the time that the levels are crossed
24
Q
What are the distance based longitudinal separations for a/c on the same track and level in the UK?
A
Same level;
15nm When the leading a/c is 20kts TAS or more faster and both a/c are within 100nm of a DME/TACAN
20nm When the leading a/c is 20kts TAS or more faster
20nm when both a/c are within 100nm of a DME/TACAN
25nm otherwise
25
What is the track based sep for a/c using VOR Radials where both a/c are inbound to the same VOR?
26
What is the track based sep for a/c using VOR Radials where both a/c are outbound from the same VOR?
27
What is the track based sep for a/c using VOR Radials where one a/c is inbound to and the other outbound from the same VOR?
28
What is the track based sep for a/c using VOR Radials when DME is not available?
29
What is the track based sep for a/c using NDB bearings?
30
What track separation allows a/c outbound from the same VOR to not require any distance from the VOR?
45 degrees
31
Within what distance can DME ranges no longer be used and why?
Within 15nm due slant range, therefore any a/c within 15 miles is considered to be at 15 nm for separation (eg if you need 30nm and one is at 2nm you would need 45nm for the other as the nearest one would count as at 15nm)
32
When may a/c climb using VMC climb and descent?
1) Manoeuvre is restricted to Class D, E or G airspace at or below FL100
2) It is during daylight hours
3) The a/c are in VMC
4) The pilot of the a/c climbing or descending agrees to maintain his own separation from other a/c and the manoeuvre is agreed by the pilot of the other a/c; and
5) ETI is given
33
In what kind of airspace may you not use VMC climb or descent?
CAS-T
34
Do you need to be visual with the aerodrome for a visual approach?
No, just need visual reference to the surface
35
Describe class A airspace
IFR only
Clearance required
ATC must be complied with
Everyone separated from everyone
*Gliders may enter in VMC*
36
Describe Class C airspace
VFR & IFR
Clearance required to enter
Instructions must be followed
IFR sep from IFR & VFR
VFR sep from IFR, given Tx info on other VFR
VMC
37
Describe Class D airspace
VFR and IFR
Clearance required to enter
Instructions must be followed
IFR sep from IFR and SVFR, given tx info on VFR
VFR given tx info on everyone
SVFR treated as IFR for all intents and purposes
VMC
38
Describe Class G airspace
ATCU's provide FIS
Pilots responsible for all collision avoidance
Pilots still expected to comply with advice
39
Which aircraft are exempted from the VMC criteria in the UK?
* Powerline
* Pipeline
* Police
* Helimed
* SAR
* SAR training if LOA (letter of agreement) with ATC provider exists
40
What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft cruising at FL100 or above in the day?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km
41
What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft criusing between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or above 1,000ft above terrain in the day?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km
42
What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft criusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher, Class C, D or E airspace during the day?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km (Class A-E airspace)
43
What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft criusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher in uncontrolled airspace (F&G) in the day?
clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 5km
44
What are the daytime VMC minima for a fixed wing Aircraft cruising at or below 3,000ft in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?
Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m.
45
What are the daytime VMC minima for a Helicopter at or below 3,000ft in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?
Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m
46
At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or above FL100?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km
47
At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or 1,000ft above terrain?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km
48
At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight
49
What are the conditions for a VFR refusal?
ATC shall not issue any further VFR clearances to a/c wishing to operate under VFR,
* to or from an aerodrome
* or enter the ATZ
* or traffic circuit
In Class D airspace when the reported MET conditions are below the following minima;
* Cloud ceiling less than 1,500ft, and/or
* Ground vis less than 5,000m
50
What are the daytime VMC for a helicopter at or below 3,000ft amsl in Class D airspace when flying 140kt IAS or less?
1500m flight vis COCSIS
51
What are the daytime VMC for a fixed wing aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl in Class D airspace when travelling 140kts IAS or less?
5km flight vis COCSIS
52
At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight
**slides say that it is 5km COCSIS in Class G airspace but MATS 1 makes no reference to this!!**
53
What are the conditions for a SVFR refusal?
ATC shall not issue any further VFR clearances to a/c wishing to operate under VFR,
* to or from an aerodrome
* or enter the ATZ
* or traffic circuit
In Class D airspace when the reported MET conditions are below the following minima;
* Cloud ceiling less than 600ft, and/or
* Ground vis less than 1,500m (800m for helis)
54
What is the generic speed limit (and below what level it does it apply?)
250kts IAS below FL100
55
What is the minimum level of a CTA?
700ft AGL
56
In what classes of airspace does the speed limit not apply?
Class A and B
57
What are CTRs?
a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface to a specified upper limit
58
What are CTAs?
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth
59
What are TMAs?
A control area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes
60
What class of airspace are ATZs?
The same airspace as that within which they reside
61
What is an FRZ?
Flight Restriction Zone
62
What is the standard size of an ATZ?
Height 2000ft AGL
2NM or 2.5NM (if runway 1850m or longer) radius from centrepoint of longest runway
63
Describe the standard dimensions of a MATZ
64
What is the OCA?
Obstacle Clearance Altitude
The lowest altitude above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the aerodrome elevation as applicable, used in establishing compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance
criteria.
65
What is the Decision Altitude?
the altitude/height in a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue that approach has not been established.
66
What is the Minimum Descent Altitude/Height?
the altitude/height in a non-precision approach below which
descent may not be made without the required visual reference.
67
What is the MSA?
Minimum Sector Altitude
The lowest safe altitude for instrument flight within
sectors of an aid, facility or aerodrome which is published in the appropriate approach
chart.
68
What is the MAPt?
Missed Approach Point
The point in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed.
69
What is the minimum level that can be given to an a/c within the final approach area?
The minimum levels as specified in the procedure approved by the CAA.
70
What is the minimum level that can be assigned to an a/c in the SMAA?
The minimum level as published on
the SMAC.
71
What is a VM(c) Approach?
When an aircraft intends to land on a runway for which no instrument approach procedure exists, it may descend on the instrument approach to another runway and, provided the required visual references are established at the VM(C) Minimum Descent Altitude/Height, it may manoeuvre in a circling pattern visually for landing on the desired runway.
72
What is meant by delay not determined?
If, for reasons other than weather (for example an obstruction on the runway), the extent of the delay is not known, aircraft are to be advised “delay not determined”.
73
What do you say to following a/c when the first is holding for weather improvement?
Subsequent aircraft are to be passed “delay not determined (number) aircraft holding for weather improvement”.
74
What do you say to the first a/c when holding for weather improvement?
"no traffic delay expected"
75
Under what conditions must RVR be passed?
1. When the RVR reading is equal to or less than the maximum reportable for the RVR system in use
2. When Shallow fog is present and for the period for which it is forecast
3. Whenever the aerodrome met report shows the vis to be less than 1,500m
76
What is QDM?
Magnetic heading to a station
77
What is QDR?
Magnetic bearing from a station
78
What is QUJ?
True track to a station
79
What is QTE?
True bearing from a station
80
When can visual approaches not be approved?
When the RVR is less than 800m, in this instance pilot will be informed that this approach is not available and asked for their intentions
81
Are we required to separate a/c on a visual approach?
Yes they are still IFR
82
What are the segements of an Instrument Approach?
1. Arrival
2. Initial
3. Intermediate
4. Final
5. Missed
83
Describe the Arrival segment of a instrument approach
From the en-route phase to the approach phase, ends at the IAF
84
Describe the Initial segment of an Instrument Approach
Begins at IAF and ends at the IF takes a/c to the intermediate segment
85
Describe the Intermediate segment of an Instrument Approach
From IF to the FAF/FAP
Speed and configuration adjusted to prepare for final approach
Obstacle clearance reduces from 1000ft to 500ft
86
Describe the Final Segment of the Instrument Approach
From FAP/FAF to the MAPt
Alignment and descent for landing are made. May be to a runway for a straight in landing or to an aerodrome for a visual manoeuvre
87
Describe the Missed segment of the Instrument Approach
Takes pilot from the MAPt up above obstacles (150ft above) and back to another attempt at the approach.
88
What may a MAPt be?
Glide Path DA/DH
Nav facility
Fix
Specified distance from FAF
89
What is a DA or DH?
Decision Altitude/Height
Apply only to precision approaches
90
What is a MDA/MDH?
Minimum Descent Altitude/Height
For non precision approaches
91
Define a step-down fix
Provided in the final approach segment of instrument approach procedures to ensure obstacle clearance if there are significant obstacles under the final approach
92
In which order will ops report the runway condition codes to ATC?
Starting from the lowest runway denominator
93
In which order must ATC report them to pilots?
In the order starting from the threshold of the runway in use
94
A runway whose surface shows a change of colour due to moisture will be reported as what?
Wet
95
What is the maximum depth of water that can exist on a runway if it is to be reported as wet?
up to and including 3mm
96
What does the number 6 indicate?
Dry runway
97
What number will be assigned to a wet runway?
5
98
What is meant by the term slippery wet?
A wet runway where the surface friction characteristics of a significant part of the runway have been determined to be degraded
99
What descriptor is used to describe a runway with more than 3mm of water on its surface?
Standing Water
100
List the 8 descriptors which constitute a contaminated runway?
Compacted Snow
Dry Snow
Frost
Ice
Slush
Standing Water
Wet Ice
Wet Snow
101
What percentage of each runway third has to be covered for the contamination to be considered significant to a/c performance?
exceeds
25%
102
List the descriptions of braking action which can be contained in pilots' braking action reports
Good
Medium
Medium to poor
Poor
Less than poor
103
When is braking action to be described as normal?
When the Condition Code is 5 or 6
104
When should unofficial reports from pilots, or unofficial observations from the tower be passed on?
When they are worse than those being officially reported
105
In addition to runway surface conditions, what else should be reported to pilots when runways are contiminated with snow and ice?
Runway de-icing activity that has taken place, such as chemical treatment or sanding
Snowbanks on the runway giving the distance left/right from the runway center line
Frozen ruts and ridges
106
From when until when do Approach Control provide ATC services to A/C within CAS?
1) Arriving A/C are released by Area Control until transferred to Aerodrome Control
2) A/C approaching from outside CAS place themselves under the control of Approach Control until transferred to Aerodrome Control
3) Departing A/C are taken over from Aerodrome Control until;
a) they are transferred to Area Control; or
b) they are clear of CAS
4) Overflying A/C are within the relevant CAS
107
Outside CAS from when and until when shall Approach Control provide services to A/C?
1) Arriving A/C place themselves under the contol of Approach Control until control is transferred to Aerodrome Control
2) Departing A/C are taken over from Aerodrome Control until they no longer wish a service or are 10 minutes flying time away from the Aerodrome whichever is sooner.
3) Overflying A/C place themselves under the control of Approach Control until they are clear of the Approach pattern and either no longer wish to receive a service or are 10 minutes flying time away from the aerodrome, whichever is the sooner.
108
What information shall Approach Control provide to Aerodrome Control?
1) Pertinent data on all relevant flights including the type of flight, ie IFR or VFR, level of arriving A/C and ETA;
2) The anticipated order in which control of A/C is to be transferred;
3) The anticipated delay to departing IFR flights together with the reason for the delay.
109
What information shall Approach Control provide to Area Control?
1) Lowest level at the holding facility available for use by Area Control
2) The average time interval between successive approaches
3) Revision of EATs issued by Area Control when Approach Control calculations show a variation of 5 mins or more;
4) Arrival times over the holding point if these vary from the estimate by 3 minutes or more
5) Missed Approaches when re-routing is entailed, in order that the subsequent action may be co-ordinated;
6) Departure times of A/C
7) All available information pertaining to overdue A/C
110
What shall Approach Control co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control?
1) A/C approaching to land, if necessary requesting clearance to land.
2) Arriving A/C which are to be cleared to Visual Holding Points
3) A/C routing through the traffic cct
111
What shall Aerodrome Control co-ordinate with Approach Control?
1) Departing IFR flights
2) Arriving A/C which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach Control)
112
What shall Area Control co-ordinate with Approach Control?
Arriving A/C which is to be cleared to an aerodrome holding facility or a Visual Holding point, instead of the normal holding facility
113
When may transfer of A/C to Aerodrome Control take place?
IFR flights operating with visual ref to the surface may be transferred in the following circumstances;
1) When an A/C carrying out an Instrument Approach has become no. 1 and for following A/C when they are established on final approach and have been provided with the appropriate separation from preceding A/C;
2) A/C operating in the Tx Cct
3) A/C approaching visually below all cloud when the reported aerodrome visibility is 10KM or more. When the reported visibility of two values, the lower of the two values shall be used when determining whether transfer of control may take place.
nb; in the case of 2 and 3 the volume of tx and Aerodrome workload must be such as to allow the use of one of the reduced in the vicinity of the aerodrome. In order to clear other A/C to descend through the cloud formation it will be necessary for the A/C approaching underneath to be kept more than 1,000ft below all cloud, or for horizontal separation to be provided.
114
When may transfer of communication from Approach Control to Aerodrome Control take place?
IFR flights when the A/C has become no.1 to approach, and for following A/C, when they are established on final approach and have been provided with appropriate separation. Until such A/C are visual with the surface the responsibility for separation remains with Approach Control.
Aerodrome Control shall not issue any instructions or advice that would reduce the separation established by Approach Control.
115
Until when shall Approach Control retain contol of arriving VFR flights?
Until appropriate tx info on IFR and other VFR flights has been issued and co-ordination effected with Aerodrome Control.
Should keep a particular eye on VFR flights arriving from directions in which other A/C will be letting down on an Instrument Approach, e.g joining straight in under the final approach when an Instrument Approach is active.
116
Can A/C be held over VRP's?
Outside CAS- Should not be done
Inside CAS- Yes
117
When shall an a/c be informed of the change of service?
1) OCAS
2) Entering CAS
3) Changing from IFR to VFR or vice versa within class E airspace
4) VFR entering class B-D airspace from class E or vice versa
5) Leaving CAS unless pilots are provided with advanced notice (5-10nm or 3000ft-6000ft prior)
118
When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan in the UK?
* Flying over the sea more than 10nm from the UK coast
* Over sparsely populated areas where SAR may be difficult
* Into an area where SAR ops are in progress
119
What are AIC's?
Aeronautical information circulars
## Footnote
Information that doesn't qualify for inclusion in the AIP or a NOTAM. **NOT A NOTIFIED DOCUMENT.**
120
What are the AIC colours?
White- Admin
Yellow- Operations/ATS
Pink- Safety
Mauve- UK restriction charts
Green- Maps/Charts
121
When may a pilot file a flight plan?
For any flight
122
When is a pilot required to file a flight plan?
1. For any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an Air traffic control service
2. Any flight within advisory airspace
3. Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services
4. Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate co-ordination with the appropriate military units or air traffic service units of an adjacent state to prevent the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification as prescribed by the state concerned.
5. Any flight across international boundaries
6. Any flight planned to leave the vicinity of the aerodrome at night
123
At what levels is a procedural service available?
All levels
124
Who is responsible for terrain separation when an a/c is being provided with a Procedural Service?
The pilot
125
What is the minimum sector altitude to the NE?
2100ft AMSL
126
What is the minimum sector altitude to the SE?
2000ft AMSL
127
What is the minimum sector altitude to the SW?
2200ft AMSL
128
What is the minimum sector altitude to the NW?
2000ft AMSL
129
Define the transition altitude
The altitude at or below which an a/c's vertical position will be controlled with reference to altitude
130
Define the transition level
The lowest flight level available for use above the TA
131
Define the transition layer
The layer of airspace between the TA and the TL which is always at least 1000ft
132
When an a/c is flying at a level which straddles two different classes of airspace what rules are they beholden to?
Those of the least restrictive class of airspace
133
To what aircraft does the standard speed limit not apply?
Flights in Class A airspace
IFR in Class C
Exempt VFR in Class C if authorised in MATS pt 2
Exempt flights in Class D if authorised in MATS pt 2
Test flights
Flying displays when authorised by the CAA
A/c with CAA's written permission
State a/c
134
How will Royal Flights be protected outside CAS?
By the establishment of CAS-T
135
What class of airspace is CAS-T?
D
136
What are the dimensions of CAS-T?
Vertical and horizontal dimensions defined as required
137
For how long will CAS-T be active?
15 mins before to 30 mins after an ETD or ETA
138
What are the dimensions of RLLCs?
Royal Low Level Corridors
5nm either side of the a/c's track from the surface to 1000ft above the a/c's max operating level
139
What services do you provide as an APP ATCO?
Basic Service
Procedural Service
Alerting Service
140
What is the phraseology for a VMC Climb/Descent?
A/C making level change;
APP: GABCD, are you able to accept a descent maintaining own separation and VMC?
GABCD: Affirm
To A/C remaining level;
APP: GASJS, advise able to accept a descent/climb in VMC through your level
GASJS: Affirm
APP: GASJS, Roger, Essential Traffic Info..... climbing/descending FLXXX
To A/C making level change;
APP: G-CD, ETI.... maintaining own separation VMC descend FLxxx
141
What is essential traffic information?
Traffic which is separated for any period by less than the specified standard sep.
142
What shall essential traffic information include?
1) Direction of flight of conflicting a/c
2) Type of conflicting a/c
3) Cruising level of conflicting a/c and ETA for the reporting point, or for a/c passing through the level of another with less than the normal sep; the ETA for the reporting point nearest to where the a/c will cross the levels; and;
4) Any alternative clearance
143
Symbols no 1.
144
Symbols no 2.
145
Symbols no 3.
146
Symbols no 4.
147
Symbols no 5.
148
Symbols no 6.
149
Name the types of reversal procedure
Procedural Turn (follows reciprocal of inbound track)
Base turn (tear drop)
150
What are your actions in the event of a loss of sep?
Use every means to obtain required minima with least possible delay
Pass Tx info/ETI
151
When are tracks classified as same track?
When the tracks are sep by less than 45 degrees
152
When is a track classified as reciprocal?
When it is separated from the reciprocal of another a/c by less than 45 degrees
153
When is a track classified as crossing track?
When it is neither a same or a reciprocal track
154
What is the NDB frequency for EVN?
397kHz
155
What is the NDB frequency for WVN?
279kHz
156
What is the NDB frequency for WIA?
390kHz
157
What is the NDB frequency for BRN?
334kHz
158
What is the NDB frequency for TYN?
316kHz
159
What is the VOR frequency for AVO?
113.450 MHz 86Y
160
What is the VOR frequency for TAM?
113.6MHz
161
If the weather is 3000m to the N and 1000m to the S can an A/C depart SVFR?
No as the lowest visibility is the one used to determine the flight rules permitted.
162
Which visibility is used to determine whether SVFR or VFR flights can operate to/from an aerodrome?
Ground visibility
163
List the types of precision approach
PAR
ILS
ILS/DME
MLS
RNP APCH (ICAO only)
164
List the types of non-precision approach
RNP
NDB
VOR
GNSS
SRA
ILS (LLZ only)
VDF
165
How long is a standard 5 bar approach lighting system?
900m
166
When should unofficial reports from pilots, or unofficial observations from the tower be passed on?
When they are worse than those being officially reported
167
At what rate are hold turns made?
Rate 1 (3 degrees/sec) or with 25 degrees of bank (whichever uses less bank)
168
When shall an EAT be issued?
When arriving a/c are subject to a delay of 20 mins or more (or as determined by authority)
169
What are the hilding speeds for a/c up to an including 14000ft?
Normal;
CAT A & B- 170kt
CAT C, D & E- 230kt
Turbulent
CAT A & B- 170kt
CAT C, D & E- 280kt
170
What are the holding speeds for a/c above 14000ft up to and including 20000ft?
Normal- 240kt
Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80
171
What are the holding speeds above 20000ft up to and including 34000ft
Normal- 265kt
Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80
172
What is the normal length of the legs for a hold?
1 min, 1 and 1/2 above 14000ft
173
Describe the standard holding procedure
174
Describe the Parallel Entry to the hold
175
Describe the Offset Entry procedure
176
Describe the Direct Entry Procedure
177
How long does a complete holding pattern take a) up to, and b) above this level?
4 mins up to and inc. 14000ft
5 mins above this
178
What is the Vat of a Cat A A/C?
<91kts IAS
179
What is the Vat of a Cat B A/C?
91kts-120kts IAS
180
What is the Vat of a Cat C A/C?
121kts- 140kts IAS
181
What is the Vat of a Cat D A/C?
141kts- 165kts IAS
182
What is the Vat of a Cat E A/C?
166kts-210kts IAS
183
Which of the following are permitted to be used as a holding fix?
Overhead a VOR
Overhead a VOR with a co-located DME
Overhead an NDB
An intersection of VOR radials
An intersection of a VOR radial and a distance from a co-located DME
184
What determines the ICAO approach category of an a/c?
The a/c's Vat in landing configuration at its maximum certificated landing weight
185
What is the strip marking for delay not determined?
Z
186
What is the strip marking for delay for no delay expected?
^
187
What action should a controller take when a pilot reports "TCAS RA"?
Acknowledge by saying "C/S roger"
188
After a pilot has reported "TCAS RA" when can a controller next issue instructions to a/c?
When the pilot reports "clear of conflict"
189
What action should a controller take when a pilot announces climbing due to a TAWS alert?
Pass appropriate pressure setting
190
Following an RA when does ATC resume responsbility for separation for that a/c and any others affected by the manoeuvre?
When the pilot reports clear of conflict and current clearance resumed
191
What is the difference between a TCAS TA and a TCAS RA?
TA=Traffic Advisory- Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action
RA= Resolution Advisory and Pilots will take action in response to these
192
In which direction or plane are RAs given?
Vertical
193
What is the definition of a precision approach?
An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation
194
What is the definition of a non-precision approach?
An instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance
195
What is a VM (C) Approach?
A/c conducting a visual cct to a runway after making an instrument approach to a different runway
196
List the categories of ILS approaches
CAT I
CAT II
CAT IIIA
CAT IIIB
CAT IIIC
197
What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT I ILS?
DH no less than 200ft
198
What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT II ILS?
Ops with DH lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft
199
What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT III ILS?
Ops either;
1. DH <100ft, or, no DH and RVR not less than 175m
2. DH <50ft, or, no DH and RVR less than 175m but greater than 50m
3. No DH and no RVR limitations
200
What is the difference between a FAF and a FAP?
FAF= Final Approach Fix (only on non-precision approaches)
FAP= Final Approach Point (only on precision approaches)
201
What are, a) a base turn, and b) a procedure turn?
Both a form of reversal procedure which are to be used when no IAF or IF are available to construct a straight in approach.
a) Base turn flys an outsbound leg from the holding point for a time and then makes a continous turn onto approach
c) Procedure turn flys up the final approach (for a time/distance) initially before making a turn outbound to begin a turn back onto final approach
202
What does RNP mean?
Required Navigational Performance
203
How far above the base of CAS should a/c be kept?
500ft
204
In what class of airspace is an a/c flying at exactly the base of CAS deemed to be?
Class G, they would be deemed to be outside CAS
205
How long does it take to complete an orbit at rate one?
2 minutes
206
Define RVR
A more localised assessment of visual range in relation to a particular runway when the general met vis is less than 1500m
207
What does RVR indicate to a pilot?
The range over which the pilot of an a/c on the runway centreline can expect to see the runway surface markings, the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centreline
208
State two methods of obtaining RVR?
IRVR and the human observer method
209
In what increments are RVRs to be reported?
Up to 400m= 25m
400-800m= 50m
Above 800m= 100m
210
What happens to flight levels as pressure, a) rises, and b) falls?
a) Raises the FL as an altitude
b) Lowers the FL as an altitude
211
What is windshear?
A sustained change in wind velocity along an a/c's flight path which occurs significantly faster than an a/c can accelerate and decelerate
212
What alternative method can be used to determine the length of outbound legs of an instrument approach procedure if the DME fails?
Timed legs
213
What part of an ILS can still be used for approaches if the localiser fails?
None, there are no GP only approaches
214
What info is provided under any FIS?
SIGMET/AIRMET info
Information on Volcanic Activity
Information on release of radioactive materials or toxic chemicals
Info on the changes of availabilty of radio nav aids
Info on changes in conditions of aerodromes and facilities
Info on unmanned free balloons
Info on space weather
Any other info likely to affect safety
215
Can A/C be held over VRP's?
Outside CAS- Should not be done
Inside CAS- Yes
216
When may an A/C conduct a visual approach?
Pilot reports that they are visual with the surface and;
1) The reported C.C is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segement; or
2) The pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.
Controllers SHALL not clear an A/C for a visual approach when the RVR (TD) is less than 800m. If a pilot requests one in this circumstance than the pilot is to be informed that a visual approach is unavailable and what their intentions are.
217
What separation must be applied between A/C making a visual approach and other IFR A/C?
The standard separations as A/C making a Visual Approach still count as IFR and as making an Instrument Approach
218
May A/C be cleared to conduct a visual approach when outside CAS and what are the considerations if so?
Yes
Responsbility for the provision of deconfliction advice and tx info continues in accordance with the service being issued and is subject to the following;
1) Procedural Service- no requirement for controllers to change the level of service provided
2) DS- when flights carrying out visual approaches descen below the unit's terrain safe level, controllers shall no provide a DS and should instead provide a TS
3) TS- subject to maintenance of surveillance identity, there is no requirement to change the level of service.
4) BS- no requirement to change the level of service provided.
219
What shall Approach Control say to an A/C inbound from outside CAS that cannot be cleared to join or enter CAS yet?
They will be instructed to Remain Outside Controlled Airspace, told when to expect clearance and a time check.
220
When will you pass IRVR values to pilots?
At the beginning of each approach for a landing and then whenever there is a significant change in the RVR until the a/c have landed.
221
What a/c may be offered a visual approach?
IFR only
222
When may an a/c conduct a visual approach?
Pilot reports he can maintain visual ref to the surface and;
1) The reported C.C is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment, or;
2) The pilot reports at any time after commencing an approach procedure that the vis will permit a visual approach and landing and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.
223
Describe the semi-circular rule
A/c travelling east will do so at an odd level, west at an even level. VFR at 500ft.
For IFR outside CAS below FL195 this is not required;
1) At or below 3000ft AMSL
2) Above 3000ft AMSL;
a)In conformity with leveles allocated by an appropriate ATSU; or
b) in accordance with instrument approach procedures notified by the CAA in relation to an aerodrome
VFR not required to follow
224
What is a TMZ?
Transponder Mandatory Zone
Airspace of defined dimensions within which the carriage and operation of a pressure altitude reporting transponder is mandatory
225
What is an RMZ?
Radio Mandatory Zone
Airspace of defined dimensions within which the carriage and operation of suitable radio equipment is mandatory
226
What are, a) Temporary Segregated Areas, b) Temporary Reserved Areas, and c) Cross-Border Areas?
a) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic will not be allowed to transit.
b) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance
c) is an airspace reservation (TSA pr TRA) established for specific operational requirements over international boundaries
227
What is a danger area
Airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.
228
What is the RPS?
Regional Pressure Setting
Lowest forecast QNH in the region
229
What is an ASR?
Altimeter Setting Region
230
Define the VM (C) Area
Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area
Area in which obstacle clearance has been considered for a/c manoeuvring visually before landing. Determined by drawing arcs centred on each runway threshold and joining these arcs with tangent lines
231
What are your actions in the event of a GPWS warning or unplanned go-around?
ATCOs not to dissuade pilot from climbing. Appropriate pressure setting to be passed when able. GPWS warnings to climb will temporarily suppress TCAS RAs for the a/c suffering the GPWS warning, all other a/c will have their TCAS operate as normal.
Essential tx info and/or avoiding action shall be passed first to the a/c in conflict with the one receiving the GPWS warning.
Essential tx info and/or avoidance advice to be passed to GPWS a/c once Mode C or S indicates it is above the appropriate SMAC level. TI may be passed earlier but only if deemed necessary to avoid collision.
232
What are the wake turbulence minima for a/c on the final approach phase?
233
Name the types of flights that are afforded Cat A flight priority status.
Aircraft in emergency
Aircraft which have declared a police emergency
Ambulance/medical aircraft where the safety of life is involved.
234
Name the types of flights afforded Cat B flight priority status.
Police flights under normal operational priority
Aircraft engaged in search and rescue ops
Other flights approved by the CAA including open skies observation flights
235
Name the types of flights afforded Cat C flight priority status
Royal flights and flights carrying visiting heads of states which have been notified by NOTAM/temp supplement
236
Name the types of flights afforded Class D flight priority status.
Flights carrying the;
1) Prime Minister
2) Chancellor of the Exchequer
3) Home secretary
4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs
Flights carrying visiting Heads of Gov. notified by the CAA
237
Name the types of flights afforded Class E flight priority status.
Flight check engaged in or en route to time or weather critical tasks
HEMS/SAR flights positioning for the purposes of their duties
Other flights authorised by the CAA
238
Name the types of flights afforded Normal flight priority status.
Flight planned aircraft following the standard routing procedures Initial instrument flight tests
239
What flight category are training and non standard flights?
Class Z
240
What is the definition of windshear?
A sustained change in wind velocity along an aircraft’s flight path which occurs significantly faster than an aircraft can accelerate or deccelerate.
241
What is the heading of an a/c?
The direction it is pointing
242
What is the track of an a/c?
The direction an a/c is travelling in
243
What is drift?
The angular difference between heading and track
244
What is meant by ground visibility?
The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer
245
What is meant by flight visibility?
The forward visibility as seen from the cockpit of an a/c in flight
246
What is meant by delay not determined?
If, for reasons other than weather (for example an obstruction on the runway), the extent of the delay is not known, aircraft are to be advised “delay not determined”.
247
What is an RNP Approach and what accuracy is required?
An RNP approach utilises GNSS augmented by either ABAS (e.g. RAIM) or SBAS to provide lateral only, or lateral and vertical guidance. The accuracy required is 0.3 NM unless it is a hazardous approach, requiring RNP (AR) in which case its 0.1 NM.
248
What is safeguarding?
The act of protecting the runway in anticipation of Low Vis Operations. For LVOs there must be Low Visibility Procedures. When the vis or cloud falls below a prescribed minima and is forecast to worsen the ADC shall initiate safeguarding
249
Who is responsible for initiating LVPs?
The aerodrome controller
250
Under what conditions must RVR be passed?
1. When the RVR reading is equal to or less than the maximum reportable for the RVR system in use
2. When Shallow fog is present and for the period for which it is forecast
3. Whenever the aerodrome met report shows the vis to be less than 1,500m
251
What level does Danger Area D012 go up to normally?
2500ft AMSL
252
What is the ILS frequency at Avon?
LLZ-110.9MHz
GP-334.250MHz
ILS frequency in total listed as 110.9MHz in MATS 2
253
What is the DME Channel at Avon?
42Y
254
What is the axis and turn direction in the AVO hold?
Left hand 090 degrees
255
What is the axis and turn direction in the EVN hold?
Left hand 263 degrees
256
Which a/c require an entry procedure for the AVO?
Those from the N, NE, E and SE
257
Which a/c require an enrty procedure for the EVN?
Those from the NW, N, SW and W
