Udemy Sections 7-8 Supply Chain Management and Virtualization Flashcards

1
Q

Ensuring that the operation of every element (hardware, firmware, driver, OS, and application) is consistent and tamper resistant establishes a what?

A

Trusted computing environment

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2
Q

A legal principle identifying a subject has used best practice or reasonable care when setting up, configuring, and maintaining a system

A

Due diligence

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3
Q

Properly resourced cybersecurity program

Security assurance and risk management processes

Product support life cycle

Security controls for confidential data

Incident response and forensics assistance

General and historical company information

You must consider all of these things in order to do what?

A

Due diligence

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4
Q

A microprocessor manufacturing utility that is part of a validated supply chain (one where hardware and software does not deviate from its documented function)

A

Trusted Foundry

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5
Q

Who operates the Trusted Foundry Program?

A

DoD

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6
Q

What does the Trusted Foundry do?

A

Ensures that microprocessors in a supply chain are secure. It is run by the DoD.

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7
Q

The process of ensuring that hardware is procured tamper-free from trustworthy suppliers

A

Hardware source authenticity

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8
Q

ROT stands for

A

Root of Trust

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9
Q

A cryptographic module embedded within a computer system that can endorse trusted execution and attest to boot settings and metrics

A

ROT (Root of Trust)

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10
Q

Hardware that is used to scan the boot metrics and OS files to verify their signatures, which we can then use to sign a digital report

A

Hardware root of trust

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11
Q

What is the most common ROT?

A

TPM (Trusted Platform Module)

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12
Q

A specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, keys, hashed passwords, and other user and platform identification information

A

TPM (Trusted Platform Module)

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13
Q

Which part is the part of your system that ensures when your computer is booted up, it does so securely?

A

TPM (Trusted Platform Module)

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14
Q

What is the program name to manage the TPM in your Windows computer?

A

tpm.msc

OR you can manage the TPM through group policy

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15
Q

An appliance for generating and storing cryptographic keys that is less susceptible to tampering and insider threats than software-based storage

A

HSM (Hardware Security Module)

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16
Q

Methods that make it difficult for an attacker to alter the authorized execution of software

A

Anti-tamper

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17
Q

FPGA stands for

A

Field programmable gate array

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18
Q

PUF stands for

A

Physically unclonable function

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19
Q

What type of mechanisms are FPGA and PUF?

A

Anti-tamper mechanisms

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20
Q

What do FPGA and PUF do?

A

When an attacker attempts to tacker with a system, these mechanisms zero out your cryptographic key, which wipes out the info on that system. That way, you know the system has been tampered with.

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21
Q

A type of exploit that gives an attacker an opportunity to run any code at the highest level of CPU privilege

A

Firmware exploit

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22
Q

A type of system firmware providing support for 64-bit GUI operation at boot, full GUI and mouse operation at boot, and better boot security

A

UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface)

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23
Q

A feature of UEFI that prevents unwanted processes from executing during the boot operation. Checks each process for digital signatures. If a process does not have a legitimate digital signature, it will not be loaded.

A

Secure boot

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24
Q

A UEFI feature that gathers secure metrics to validate the boot process in an attestation report. How much time each process takes to load, etc.

A

Measured boot

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25
A claim that the data presented in the report is valid by digitally signing it using the TPM's private key
Attestation
26
A means for software or firmware to permanently alter the state of a transistor on a computer chip. It uses one-time programming to secure cryptographic keys and other security information during the development process. If someone attempts to tamper with the firmware, this triggers, and the system that had been tampered with will no longer be trusted.
eFUSE
27
A hardware component in a computer microchip that acts as a switch, letting current through to represent the binary digit 1, or cutting it off to represent 0
Transistor
28
A firmware update that is digitally signed by the vendor and trusted by the system before installation
Trusted firmware update
29
A disk drive where the controller can automatically encrypt data that is written to it. It also decrypts the data when it is being read from the drive. Encryption and decryption is done at the hardware level because of the function of the firmware.
SED (Self-Encrypting Drives)
30
A mechanism for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of software code and data as it is executed in volatile memory
Secure processing
31
Low-level CPU changes and instructions that enable secure processing
Processor security extensions
32
What is SME?
Secure Memory Encryption Processor security extension for AMD processor
33
What is SEV?
Secure Encrypted Virtualization Processor security extension for AMD processor
34
2 names for the processor security extension for AMD processors
SME (Secure Memory Encryption) SEV (Secure Encrypted Virtualization)
35
What is TXT?
Trusted eXecution Technology Processor security extension for Intel processor
36
SGX stands for What is it?
Software Guard eXtensions Processor security extension for Intel processor
37
2 names for the processor security extension for Intel processors
TXT (Trusted eXecution Technology) SGX (Software Guard eXtensions)
38
This happens when the CPU's security extensions invoke a TPM and secure boot attestation to ensure that a trusted OS is running
Trusted execution
39
The extension that allows a trusted process to create an encrypted container for sensitive data
Secure enclave
40
Certain operations that should only be performed once or not at all, such as initializing a memory location. Extensions are in place to make sure that an attacker can't redo these operations to make your computer vulnerable (buffer overflow, race condition, etc.)
Atomic execution
41
Data is encrypted by an app prior to being placed on the data bus. Ensures data being sent over the network or bus is encrypted. You must ensure that the device at the end of the bus/network is trusted to decrypt the data
Bus encryption
42
Secured I/O, cryptographic processor, persistent memory, and versatile memory are all functions of what?
TPM
43
The creation of a virtual resource
Virtualization
44
A container that contains an emulated computer that can run an entire OS
Virtual machine
45
2 main types of virtual machines
System VM Processor VM
46
A VM that is a complete platform designed to replace an entire physical computer and includes a full desktop/server OS
System virtual machine
47
A type of VM that is designed to only run a single process or app like a virtualized web browser or a simple web server
Processor VM
48
Software that manages the distribution of the physical resources of a host machine (server) to the virtual machines being run (guests)
Hypervisor
49
Other name for Type 1 hypervisor?
Bare metal
50
Which of the 2 hypervisors is faster and more efficient?
Type I (bare metal) Because the type I hypervisor doesn't have to waste any of the host computer's resources by running a full desktop OS first; a type I hypervisor acts as a stripped down, special OS to provide the physical resources to the VMs
51
Other name for Type II hypervisor?
Hosted
52
This type of hypervisor runs directly on the host computer's hardware and functions as an OS in and of itself
Type I (bare metal)
53
This type of hypervisor runs within a normal OS
Type II (hosted)
54
A virtualization method where a single OS kernel is shared across multiple VMs, but each VM receives its own user space for programs and data
Application containerization
55
T/F: Application containerization is less efficient than Type I and Type II hypervisors
False. It is more efficient than both of them.
56
Docker, Parallels Virtuozzo, and OpenVZ are examples of what type of software?
Application containerization
57
An attack that allows an attacker to break out of a normally isolated VM by interacting directly with the hypervisor
VM escape
58
How to reduce the risk of VM escape?
Virtual servers should be hosted on the same physical server as other VMs, on the same network (or network segment) based on its classification
59
This word means it's easy for things to scale up or down to meet user demands
Elasticity
60
Contents of a VM that exist as deleted files on a cloud-based server after deprovisioning of a VM
Data remnants
61
Occurs when a user is able to grant themselves the ability to run functions as a higher-level user. This can be disastrous when a user does so for a hypervisor
Privilege elevation AKA privilege escalation
62
Occurs when a VM is moved from one physical server to another over the network. Vulnerable to MITM attacks if the data is not encrypted
Live migration
63
T/F: It is best security practice to limit the connectivity between the VM and the host by use of a virtualized network card or network shares
True This keeps malware from spreading between VMs
64
T/F: When hosting a large amount of VMs, it is best security practice to spread them out over several separate, physical servers
True This prevents attackers from initiating a DoS attack that will take down all of your VMs at once
65
Occurs when VMs are created, used, and deployed without proper management or oversight by the system admins. It essentially means losing track of the VMs, where they are, whether they need to be updated, etc.
Virtualization sprawl
66
Which type of hypervisor is described in these layers: Guest VM Hypervisor Physical hardware
Type I (bare metal)
67
Which type of hypervisor is described in these layers? Guest VM Hypervisor Host OS Physical hardware
Type II (hosted)