Security+ Practice Tests 6-10 Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following does NOT refer to an email communication threat vector?
Skimming
Malicious attachment
Social engineering
Malicious URL
Phishing
A
Skimming
Skimming is collecting PII from a payment card.
2
Q
Which of the following mitigates the risk of supply chain attacks?
DRP (Disaster Recovery Plan)
Vendor/intermediary checks
BCP (Business Continuity Plan)
IRP (Incident Response Plan)
A
Vendor/intermediary checks
3
Q
A comprehensive security screening of a potential third-party vendor before forming a partnership.
A
VDD (Vendor Due Diligence)
4
Q
DRP stands for
A
Disaster Recovery Plan
5
Q
BCP stands for
A
Business Continuity Plan
6
Q
IRP stands for
A
Incident Response Plan
7
Q
A detailed strategy and set of systems for ensuring an organization’s ability to prevent or rapidly recover from a significant disruption to its operations.
A
BCP (Business Continuity Plan)
8
Q
A written document, formally approved by the senior leadership team, that helps your organization before, during, and after a confirmed or suspected security incident.
A
IRP (Incident Response Plan)
9
Q
A formal document created by an organization that contains detailed instructions on how to respond to unplanned incidents such as natural disasters, power outages, cyber attacks and any other disruptive events.
A
DRP (Disaster Recovery Plan)
10
Q
Examples of social media threat vectors include:
PII harvesting
social engineering
identity/account theft
malicious URLs
all of the above
A
All of the above
11
Q
Threat intelligence gathered from publicly available sources
A
OSINT
12
Q
OSINT stands for
A
Open Source Intelligence
13
Q
Insight gained from processing and analyzing public data sources such as broadcast TV and radio, social media, and websites. These sources provide data in text, video, image, and audio formats.
A
OSINT (Open-Source Intelligence)
14
Q
RFC stands for
A
Request for Comments
15
Q
A formal standards-track document developed in working groups within the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). Contains specifications and organizational notes about topics related to the internet and computer networking, such as routing, addressing and transport technologies.
A
RFC (Request for Comments)
16
Q
The U.S. government repository of standards based vulnerability management data represented using the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP). This data enables automation of vulnerability management, security measurement, and compliance. Provides advanced searching features.
A
NVD (National Vulnerability Database)
17
Q
NVD stands for
A
National Vulnerability Database
18
Q
CVE stands for
A
Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
19
Q
A publicly available catalog of cybersecurity vulnerabilities. Contains a list of records each containing an identification number, a description, and at least one public reference. Feeds NVD.
A
CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures)
20
Q
What is CVE/NVD?
A
Two different programs that publicly disclose known cybersecurity vulnerabilities. They are both set up for a user to search by OS, platform, etc.
The CVE was launched by the MITRE Corporation as a community effort.
The NVD was launched by the NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology).
21
Q
NIST stands for
A
National Institute of Standards and Technology
22
Q
Which of the following refer to vulnerability databases? (Select 2)
DBA
CVE
DBaaS
NVD
AIS
A
CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures)
NVD (National Vulnerability Database)
23
Q
DBA stands for
A
Database Administrator
24
Q
DBaaS stands for
A
Database as a Service
AKA managed database service
25
AIS stands for
Automated Indicator Sharing
26
A service the CISA provides to enable real-time exchange of machine-readable cyber threat indicators and defensive measures between public, federal, and private-sector organizations.
AIS (Automated Indicator Sharing)
27
CVSS stands for
Common Vulnerability Scoring System
28
A public framework for rating the severity of security vulnerabilities in software.
CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System)
29
TTP stands for
Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures
30
This acronym describes the behavior of a threat actor in three levels – the “why,” the “what,” and the “how."
TTP (Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures)
31
A common language for describing cyber threat information
STIX
32
STIX stands for
Structured Threat Information eXpression
33
A standardized XML programming language for conveying data about cybersecurity threats in a common language that can be easily understood by humans and security technologies.
STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression)
34
TAXII stands for
Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information
35
A dedicated transport mechanism for cyber threat information
TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information)
36
A suite of communication protocols used to interconnect network devices on the internet or private networks (intranet or extranet).
TCP/IP
37
S/MIME stands for
Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
38
A widely accepted protocol for sending digitally signed and encrypted messages (including email).
S/MIME
39
A specification extending the format of email to support sending images, audio/video files, archives, etc. Expands upon SMTP.
MIME
40
GitHub is an example of:
Digital media store
Virtualization software
File/code repository
Social media site
File/code repository
41
A type of formal document that describes the specifications for a particular technology
RFC (Request for Comments)
42
PII stands for
Personally Identifiable Information
43
RFQ stands for
Request for Quote
44
RFI stands for
Request for Information
45
RFP stands for
Request for Proposal
46
A formal process for gathering information from potential suppliers of a good or service.
RFI (Request for information)
47
A business document that announces a project, describes it, and solicits bids from qualified contractors to complete it. Goals and objectives are defined to give vendors a good idea of the requirements.
RFP (Request for Proposal)
48
A solicitation for goods or services in which a company invites vendors to submit price quotes and bid on the job.
RFQ (Request for Quote)
49
IPS stands for
Intrusion Prevention System
50
SIEM stands for
Security Information and Event Management
51
A solution that helps organizations detect, analyze, and respond to security threats before they harm business operations.
SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
52
IDPS stands for
Intrusion Detection Prevention System
53
A network security tool that continuously monitors a network for malicious activity and takes action to prevent it, including reporting, blocking, or dropping it, when it does occur.
IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)
54
A type of attack aimed at exploiting vulnerability that is present in already released software but unknown to the software developer is called:
Zero-day attack
55
A type of attack in which an attacker crafts a TCP packet with the Urgent, Push, and Fin header flags set, and injects it into the network. This can cause receiving devices to slow down (DoS), reboot, or behave in inconvenient ways.
Xmas tree attack
AKA Christmas tree attack
56
A word used to describe encryption protocols that contain weak implementations and cannot be considered secure anymore.
Deprecated
57
Which of the following is a deprecated encryption protocol?
SSH
TLS
S/MIME
SSL
IPsec
PGP
SSL
58
What do FTP, HTTP, IMAP, POP, and SMTP have in common?
They are all cleartext network protocols.
59
Vulnerability scanning: (select all that apply)
Identifies lack of security controls
Actively tests security controls
Identifies common misconfigurations
Exploits vulnerabilities
Passively tests security controls
Identifies lack of security controls
Identifies common misconfigurations
Passively tests security controls
60
A special isolated folder on a machine's hard disk where the suspicious files detected by Antivirus and Antimalware protection are placed to prevent further spread of threats.
Quarantine
61
SOAR stands for
Security, Orchestration, Automation, and Response
62
A stack of compatible software programs that enables an organization to collect data about security threats and respond to security events with little or no human assistance.
SOAR
63
Difference between SOAR and SIEM?
SIEM aggregates data from multiple security systems to generate alerts.
SIEM uses pattern matching to generate alerts that the IT team can investigate. It does NOT take action itself when it identifies a threat.
SOAR acts as the response engine to those alerts generated by the SIEM.
SOAR can also collect data from external applications.
64
A server used for collecting diagnostic and monitoring data from networked devices.
Syslog server
65
A server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. It improves privacy, security, and performance in the process.
Proxy server
66
UC stands for
Unified Communications
67
An umbrella term for the integration of multiple enterprise communication tools -- such as voice calling, video conferencing, instant messaging, presence, content sharing, etc. -- into a single, streamlined interface, with the goal of improving user experience and productivity.
UC (Unified Communications)
68
AV stands for
Audio Visual
69
ICS stands for
Internet Connection Sharing
70
A feature that allows a device with internet access to act as a host or access point for other devices to connect to the web.
ICS (Internet Connection Sharing)
71
A security solution designed to detect anomalies in the log and event data collected from multiple network devices is called:
SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
72
Which tool enables automated response to security incidents?
SOAR (Security, Orchestration, Automation, Response)
73
Penetration testing: (Select all that apply)
Bypass security controls
Only identifies lack of security controls
Actively tests security controls
Exploits vulnerabilities
Passively tests security controls
Bypasses security controls
Actively tests security controls
Exploits vulnerabilities
74
NIDS stands for
Network Intrusion Detection System
75
HIDS stands for
Host-based Intrusion Detection System
76
Cybersecurity solution that monitors IT systems for signs of suspicious activity to detect unusual behaviors or patterns associated either with human users or applications that could be a sign of a security breach or attempted attack.
This solution operates on an individual host system.
HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System)
77
HIPS stands for
Host Intrusion Prevention System
78
An installed software package which monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host.
In case of attempted major changes by a hacker or malware, this software blocks the action and alerts the user so an appropriate decision about what to do can be made.
HIPS (Host Intrusion Prevention System)
79
An internet standard protocol used to monitor and manage network devices via agents. This protocol collects, organizes, and sends data from various devices for network monitoring assisting with fault identification and isolation.
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
80
A penetration test performed by an authorized professional with the full prior knowledge on how the system that is to be tested works is called:
White-box testing
81
A penetration test of a computer system performed without the prior knowledge on how the system that is to be tested works is called:
Black-box testing
82
A penetration test in which the person conducting the test has a limited access to information on the internal workings of the targeted system is called:
Gray-box testing
83
In penetration testing, this type of reconnaissance relies on gathering information on the targeted system with the use of various non-invasive software tools and techniques, such as pinging, port scanning, or OS fingerprinting.
Active reconnaissance
84
In penetration testing, this type of reconnaissance involves gathering any type of publicly available information that can be used later for exploiting vulnerabilities found in the targeted system.
Passive reconnaissance
85
An optimal Wireless Access Point (WAP) antenna placement provides a countermeasure against:
War chalking
Spoofing
War driving
Insider threat
War driving
86
When people draw symbols in areas to indicate the presence of an open Wi-Fi network. The symbols used typically say something about the access point.
War chalking
87
Attackers searching for wireless networks with vulnerabilities while moving around an area in a moving vehicle.
War driving
88
Which statement applies to the concept of OSINT?
Gaining advantage over competitors
Passive reconnaissance
Preparation before launching a cyberattack
Active reconnaissance
Passive reconnaissance
89
In cybersecurity exercises, the attacking team
Red team
90
In cybersecurity exercises, the defending team
Blue team
91
In cybersecurity exercises, the event overseer (referee)
White team
92
In cybersecurity exercises, a collaborative approach that involves the blue and red teams working together to improve an organization's security
Purple team
93
T/F: A physical network diagram contains information on hardware devices and physical links between them.
True
94
T/F: A logical network diagram describes the actual traffic flow on a network and provides information related to IP addressing schemes, subnets, device roles, or protocols that are in use on the network.
True
95
Which of the following acronyms refers to software or hardware-based security solutions designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information?
DRP
DHE
DLP
DEP
DLP (Data Loss Prevention)
96
DLP stands for
Data Loss Prevention
97
EDR stands for
Endpoint Detection and Response
98
EDTR stands for
Endpoint Detection and Threat Response
99
An endpoint security solution that continuously monitors end-user devices to detect and respond to cyber threats like ransomware and malware.
EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response)
AKA EDTR (Endpoint Detection and Threat Response)
100
Difference between EDR and HIPS
EDR offers more capabilities than HIPS.
Unlike HIPS products which typically use an old-school standalone engine for detection/response, EDR products simultaneously run on the endpoint device (host), and are managed by either an on-premises server engine, or a cloud computing management back-end.
EDR harnesses the threat detection/response capabilities of the vendor's global threat intelligence database, which is further enhanced with machine learning capabilities.
Although HIPS products are good for detection/prevention of breaches, they generally don't have the variety of features of EDR, nor the server-side/cloud-based intelligence engines managing them from afar.
101
The 3 states of digital data
At rest
In transit/motion
In processing
102
Which of the 3 states of digital data requires data to be processed in an unencrypted form?
In processing
103
The process of replacing sensitive data with nonsensitive information which holds a reference to the original data and enables its processing but has no value when breached.
Tokenization
104
DRP stands for
Disaster Recovery Plan
105
DHE stands for
Diffie-Hellman key exchange
106
This method allows two parties that have no prior knowledge of each other to jointly establish a shared secret key over an insecure channel. This key can then be used to encrypt subsequent communications using a symmetric-key cipher.
DHE (Diffie-Hellman key exchange)
107
DEP stands for
Data Execution Prevention
108
A technology built into Windows that helps protect you from executable code launching from places it's not supposed to. It does that by marking some areas of your PC's memory as being for data only, no executable code or apps will be allowed to run from those areas of memory.
DEP (Data Execution Prevention)
109
Any function that can be used to map data of arbitrary size to fixed-size values
Hash function
110
T/F: A hash function allows for mapping large amount of data content to a small string of characters.
The result of hash function provides the exact "content in a nutshell" (in the form of a string of characters) derived from the original data content. In case there is any change to the data after the original hash was taken, the next time when hash function is applied, the resulting hash value calculated after content modification will be different from the original hash.
True
111
A duplicate of the original site, with fully operational computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data. Used in disaster recovery.
Hot site
112
A disaster recovery facility that provides only the physical space for recovery operations is called
Cold site
113
Which alternate site allows for fastest disaster recovery?
Cold site
Hot site
Warm site
Hot site
114
A disaster recovery site that features an equipped data center but no customer data. In other words, it is "ready to go," but still needs some data moved over. It might need some cables plugged in or some systems updated or configured.
Warm site
115
A website or set of files on a computer server that has been copied to another computer server so that the site or files are available from more than one place. It has its own URL, but is otherwise identical to the principal site.
Used to make site access faster when the original site may be geographically distant from those accessing it.
Mirror site
116
A monitored host holding no valuable data specifically designed to detect unauthorized access attempts and divert attacker's attention from the actual network is known as:
Honeypot
117
A customized login page that users must address before connecting to a public (or free) Wi-Fi network. It presents the user with terms of service, which they must agree to before accessing the WiFi hotspot.
Captive portal
118
Hardware or software that tie together network security features into one simple-to-use, easy-to-manage appliance.
UTM appliance
119
UTM stands for
Unified Threat Management
120
Which of the following is an example of fake telemetry?
OSINT
Bluejacking
DNS sinkhole
Replay attack
DNS sinkhole
121
Data collected from a network environment that can be analyzed to monitor the health and performance, availability, and security of the network and its components, allowing network administrators to respond quickly and resolve network issues in real-time.
Examples include:
CPU power Utilization - peaks, averages, over-utilization, and under-utilization.
Server memory utilization.
Disk space utilization.
User requests and user activity.
Telemetry
122
Files in a honeypot host. If accessed, they will send an alert.
Honeyfiles
123
Information that cybercriminals send to a machine engaging in Machine Learning to trick the antimalware software from recognizing actual malware code.
Fake telemetry
124
A DNS that hands out an incorrect/invalid IP address when given a FQDN
DNS sinkhole
AKA DNS blackhole
AKA IP blackhole
125
How to use a DNS sinkhole for good
Compromised hosts often access certain known malicious websites. So a DNS sinkhole can be configured to instead route to a site inside of the organization to send an alert instead of the malicious website. This way, network admins are alerted that the particular host is compromised.
126
Deliberately incorrect/invalid data is also known as
Fake telemetry
127
A cloud computing service model in which clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment and software?
IaaS
128
Which cloud service model would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app?
XaaS
SaaS
PaaS
IaaS
PaaS
129
A cloud computing service model offering remote access to applications based on monthly or annual subscription fee is called:
SaaS
130
A cloud computing deployment model in which the cloud infrastructure is provisioned for open use by the general public
Public cloud
131
A cloud computing environment dedicated to a single organization.
Private cloud
132
A cloud infrastructure in which multiple organizations share resources and services based on common operational and regulatory requirements.
Community cloud
133
A mixed cloud computing environment where applications are run using a combination of computing, storage, and services in different environments
Hybrid cloud
134
A cloud service model in which the third party manages the networking, storage, servers, and virtualization.
The client manages the OS, middleware, runtime, data, and applications.
Enables end users to scale and shrink resources on an as-needed basis. Offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources.
IaaS
135
A cloud service model in which the third party manages the networking, storage, servers, virtualization, OS, middleware, and runtime.
The client manages the data and applications.
Used for developing, running, and managing applications.
PaaS
136
A cloud service model in which the third party manages everything, and the client manages nothing.
The consumer typically pays a subscription fee to use this.
SaaS
137
A transport protocol that supports transferring STIX insights over HTTPS
TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Intelligence Information)
138
Difference between a race condition and TOCTOU?
The race condition is the malfunction itself
TOCTOU is the vulnerability that arises from the malfunction
139
An attack in which the attacker sends many packets with fake MAC addresses to a switch to overflow the switch's address table, causing it to become full and unable to process traffic
MAC flooding
140
T/F: A cloud deployment model consisting of two or more interlinked cloud infrastructures (private, community, or public) is referred to as a hybrid cloud.
True
141
Which of the following would be the best solution for a company that needs IT services but lacks any IT personnel?
MSA
MaaS
MSP
MSSP
MSP (Managed Service Provider)
142
MSP stands for
Managed Service Provider
143
IT professionals that deliver IT services such as server management, network support cybersecurity, application implementation, and infrastructure management via regularly scheduled IT support.
MSP (Managed Service Provider)
144
MSSP stands for
Managed Security Service Provider
145
A third-party service provider that focuses exclusively on security services
MSSP (Managed Security Service Provier)
146
MSA stands for
Master Service Agreement
147
A contractual agreement between the service provider and the customer that outlines responsibilities and expectations between the MSSP and the client.
MSA (Master Service Agreement)
148
Difference between MSP and MSSP
MSP provides IT and security services.
MSSP provides ONLY security services.
149
A service that integrates various forms of transport and transport-related services into a single, comprehensive, and on-demand mobility service.
MaaS (Mobility as a Service)
150
MaaS stands for
Mobility as a Service
151
Which of the following terms refers to a third-party vendor offering IT security management services? (Select best answer)
MSP
MaaS
MSA
MSSP
MSSP (Managed Security Service Provider)
152
T/F: The term "Fog computing" refers to a local network infrastructure between IoT devices and the cloud designed to speed up data transmission and processing.
True
153
A decentralized computing infrastructure in which data, compute, storage and applications are located somewhere between the data source and the cloud. It brings the advantages and power of the cloud closer to where data is created and acted upon.
Fog computing
154
A compute layer between the cloud and the edge. Where edge computing might send huge streams of data directly to the cloud, this type of computing can receive the data from the edge layer before it reaches the cloud and then decide what is relevant and what isn’t. The relevant data gets stored in the cloud, while the irrelevant data can be deleted or analyzed at this layer for remote access or to inform localized learning models.
Fog computing
155
What is the difference between edge computing and fog computing?
They are basically the same, except edge computing means that the storage and processing devices are either at the same place or extremely near to the devices that are connecting to them.
Fog computing sits between the edge and the cloud. Some data may get saved into the cloud, while other data is either erased or processed in the fog network.
Edge computing helps devices get FASTER results.
Fog computing helps in FILTERING information before it gets saved into the cloud.
156
Which of the following solutions would be best suited for situations where response time in data processing is of critical importance?
Edge computing
157
Which is faster: fog computing or edge computing?
Edge computing
Edge computing helps get FASTER results.
Fog computing helps FILTER data before it gets saved into the cloud.
158
Which of the following devices best illustrates the concept of edge computing?
Router
Smartwatch
Thin client
Server
Smartwatch
Remember that edge computing receives information from devices and quickly gives processing results back.
159
T/F: In client-server model, the term "Thin client" refers to a networked computer equipped with the minimum amount of hardware and software components. As opposed to thick client, which runs applications locally from its own hard drive, thin client relies on network resources provided by a remote server performing most of the data processing and storage functions.
True
160
Which of the following terms refers to the concept of virtualization on an application level?
Serverless architecture
Containerization
SoC (System on a Chip)
Infrastructure as code
Containerization
161
A way to build and run applications and services without having to manage infrastructure or configuration. It is very similar to PaaS, but it involves granular control, automatic scaling, and usage-based payment, rather than a flat-fee like PaaS.
Serverless architecture
162
The packaging of software code with just the OS libraries and dependencies required to run the code to create a single lightweight executable that runs consistently on any infrastructure. It is an OS-level virtualization method used to deploy and run distributed applications without launching an entire virtual machine.
Containerization
163
An IC that integrates most or all components of a computer or other electronic system on a single chip.
SoC (System on a Chip)
164
SoC stands for
System on a Chip
165
IC stands for
Integrated Circuit
166
An assembly of electronic components in which hundreds to millions of transistors, resistors, and capacitors are interconnected and built up on a thin substrate to form a small chip or wafer.
IC (Integrated Circuit)
167
T/F: In software engineering, the term "Microservice" describes independent and self-contained code components that can be put together to form an application.
True
168
Independent and self-contained code components (services) that can be put together to form an application.
Microservice
169
Which of the following answers refer to software technologies designed to simplify network infrastructure management? (Select 2 answers)
SDP
SSP
SDV
SEH
SDN
SDV (Software-Defined Visibility)
SDN (Software-Defined Networking)
170
Used to describe a hardware or service component that is improved or completely managed by software
Software-defined
171
The capability to clearly see all aspects of an organization's digital footprint as well as the risks and vulnerabilities within it. Also includes the ability to view security controls and the gaps created by inadequate controls.
Security visibility
172
A security solution that automates security visibility through a software framework.
SDV (Software-Defined Visibility)
173
SDP stands for
Software-Defined Perimeter
174
A security technique that controls access to resources based on identity and forms a virtual boundary around networked resources.
It hides Internet-connected infrastructure so that external parties cannot see it, but internal authorized users can.
SDP (Software-Defined Perimeter)
175
SSP stands for
System Security Plan
176
A formal document that provides an overview of the security requirements for an information system and describes the security controls in place or planned for meeting those requirements.
SSP (System Security Plan)
177
SEH stands for
Structured Exception Handling
178
Code in a program that takes over when programs throw an exception due to a hardware or software issue.
SEH (Structured Exception Handling)
179
In cloud computing, users on an on-premises network take advantage of a transit gateway to connect to:
WAN
VPC
SAN
VLAN
VPC (Virtual Private Cloud)
180
VPC stands for
Virtual Private Cloud
181
A secure, isolated private cloud hosted within a public cloud.
VPC (Virtual Private Cloud)
182
SAN stands for
Storage Area Network
183
A network of storage devices that can be accessed by multiple servers or computers, providing a shared pool of storage space.
SAN (Storage Area Network)
184
WAN stands for
Wide Area Network
185
A large network of LANs that is not tied to a single location.
WAN (Wide Area Network)
186
VLAN stands for
Virtual Local Area Network
187
A type of network used to share the physical network while creating virtual/logical segmentations to divide specific groups
VLAN
188
A term used to describe a situation in which large number of deployed virtual machines lack proper administrative controls.
VM sprawl
189
The process of breaking out of the boundaries of a guest operating system installation to access the primary hypervisor controlling all the virtual machines on the host machine.
VM escape
190
The audit of use and consumption of network resources
Usage audit
191
Which of the following security measures can be used to prevent VM sprawl? (Select 2 answers)
Patch management
Usage audit
Physical security controls
Sandboxing
Asset documentation
Usage audit
Asset documentation
192
A cybersecurity practice where you run, analyze, and observe code in a safe, isolated environment that mimics end-user operating environments.
Sandboxing
193
What are the countermeasures against VM escape? (Select 2 answers)
Group policy
Sandboxing
User training
Patch management
Asset documentation
Sandboxing
Patch management
194
Which programming aspects are critical for secure application development process? (Select 2 answers)
Patch management
Input validation
Password protection
Error and exception handling
Application whitelisting
Input validation
Error and exception handling
195
The approach of restricting the usage of any tools or applications only to those that are already vetted and approved
Application whitelisting
AKA application allowlisting
196
The approach used to prevent certain applications or executables from running in a network
Application blacklisting
AKA application blocklisting
197
The process of removing redundant entries from a database is known as:
Normalization
198
What are the countermeasures against SQL injection attacks? (Select 2 answers)
Code obfuscation
Database normalization
Stored procedures
Code signing
Input validation
Stored procedures
Input validation
199
A prepared SQL code that you can save so the code can be reused over and over again.
Stored procedure
200
How do stored procedures prevent SQL injection?
They allow the users to only access your database by using the procedures that you have already defined. Users cannot write their own code.
201
T/F: Code obfuscation techniques rely on encryption to protect the source code against unauthorized access.
False
While encryption is part of obfuscating source code, it is not a reliable way to protect the entire source code.
Programmers use multiple ways simultaneously throughout the code to obfuscate it. These techniques include using alternate code forms (binary, replacing a function with a table lookup, etc), changing up data storage methods to hide the data, randomizing aggregation patterns, and encrypting small strings in order to make the code hard to read.
202
A type of redundant source code producing an output not used anywhere in the application is commonly referred to as:
Dead code
203
Code that can never be executed in a running program because the code surrounding it makes it impossible.
Dead code
204
Any lines of code that are added in the body of a program.
Also refers to lines of code within the program in contrast to a routine that is external to the program, and called for as needed.
Inline code
205
Program code that is unnecessarily long, slow, or otherwise wasteful of resources
Code bloat
206
A repetition of a line or a block of code in the same file or sometimes in the same local environment.
Duplicate code
207
T/F: In web application programming, the term "Backend" typically refers to the part of a computer system or application that is not directly accessed by the user (for example a web server). On the opposite side, "Frontend" means software that can be accessed by the user locally (an example of this would be user's web browser). Code execution and input validation that take place in the backend are referred to as server-side operations, the frontend equivalent of this is known as client-side operations.
True
208
A collection of commonly used programming functions designed to speed up software development process is known as:
Library
209
A component that can be loaded into the MMC (Microsoft Management Console) to provide a specific management capability for a device.
Snap-in
210
A place where all of an organization's data is stored and can be analyzed.
Data repository
211
A lightweight software package containing an application's code, its libraries, and other dependencies.
Container
212
A heavy software package that provides complete emulation of low-level hardware devices like CPU, disk, and networking devices.
Virutal machine
213
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a specialized suite of software tools used for developing applications for a specific platform?
GUI
SDLC
API
SDK
SDK (Software Development Kit)
214
SDK stands for
Software Development Kit
215
GUI stands for
Graphical User Interface
216
SDLC stands for
Software Development Life Cycle
217
API stands for
Application Programming Interface
218
A set of definitions and protocols for building and integrating application software. It simplifies how developers integrate new application components into existing architecture and enables services/applications to communicate with each other.
API (Application Programming Interface)
219
Difference between SDK and API
SDK is a suite of software development tools and pieces of code to create applications.
API is a set of definitions and protocols to allow programmers to integrate new applications with existing architecture.
220
A nonprofit organization focused on software security
OWASP (Open Worldwide Application Security Project)
221
OWASP stands for
Open Worldwide Application Security Project
222
CSIRT stands for
Computer Security Incident Response Team
223
A team charged with incident response, handling all security incidents affecting an organization within a timely manner.
CSIRT (Computer Security Incident Response Team)
AKA CERT (Computer Emergency Response Team)
AKA CIRT (Computer Incident Response Team)
224
IETF stands for
Internet Engineering Task Force
225
An SDO for the internet and is responsible for the technical standards that make up the TCP/IP suite.
IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force)
226
SDO stands for
Standards Development Organization
227
CERT stands for
Computer Emergency Response Team
228
CIRT stands for
Computer Incident Response Team
229
T/F: CSIRT, CERT, and CIRT are used interchangeably
True
230
A type of code that has already been translated from a high-level programming language into a low-level programming language and converted into a binary executable file is referred to as:
Compiled code
231
The process of transforming a computer program written in a given language (usually high-level programming language) into a set of instructions in another format or language (usually low-level programming language).
Compiling
232
An example of a low-level programming language
Binary code
233
Examples of high-level programming languages
Python, Ruby, C#, Java, etc.
234
What does it mean when code "doesn't compile"?
When the compiler was checking for correct syntax, it found errors and the translation into machine code wasn't successful.
235
The final phase of the program lifecycle in which the machine executes the program's code
Runtime
236
Code used to automated processes that would otherwise need to be executed step-by-step by a web developer.
Script
237
A network transit hub that you can use to interconnect your virtual private clouds (VPCs) and on-premises networks.
Transit gateway
