UCL Flashcards

1
Q

Ms. C is considering taking an oral combined contraceptive pill as her main form of
contraception. She is worried about the risk factors that she has been reading about on the
internet.
Which of the following is least likely to be a risk factor for venous thromboembolism in
patients taking the combined oral contraceptive?
Select one:
1. age over 35 years
2. obesity
3. family history
4. smoking
5. hypertension

A

Hypertension

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2
Q

Mrs G’s doctor diagnoses her with type 2 diabetes which is initially managed with lifestyle
and diet changes. After 3 months it is decided that a blood test should be taken to see what
her HbA1c levels are.
Which of the following HbA1c values is the most appropriate target for Mrs G?
Select one:
1. 53 mmol/mol
2. 51 mmol/mol
3. 50 mmol/mol
4. 49 mmol/mol
5. 48 mmol/mol

A

48 mmol/L

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3
Q

What are blood glucose targets for diabetes?

A

A target HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is generally recommended when type 2 diabetes is managed by diet and lifestyle alone, or when combined with a single antidiabetic drug not associated with hypoglycaemia (such as metformin hydrochloride). Patients prescribed a single drug associated with hypoglycaemia (such as a sulfonylurea) should usually aim for an HbA1c level of 53 mmol/mol (7.0%).

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4
Q

Mr A has been prescribed theophylline, as this drug has a narrow therapeutic window, he
should be counselled to recognise the signs of toxicity.
Which of the following is a toxic effect of theophylline?
Select one:
1. bruising
2. drowsiness
3. convulsions
4. goitre
5. watering eyes

A

Convulsions

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5
Q

What are the toxicity signs of theophylline?

A

N&V/gastric irritation
Tachycardia
Convulsions
CNS stimulations (dizziness/agitation/dilated pupils)
Arrhythmias
Hypokalaemia
Blood in vomit
Severely uncontrolled asthma

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6
Q

You are running a training day with your medicine counter assistants for over-the-counter
(OTC) referrals.
Which of the following symptoms of piles is the least likely to warrant a referral to a doctor?
Select one:
1. a constant throbbing pain, made worse by sitting down
2. blood mixed in the stools, giving them a tarry red or black appearance
3. bright blood on the stools
4. symptoms have not improved after 1 week of treatment with over the counter products
5. haemorrhoid symptoms with nausea and vomiting

A

Bright blood on the stools

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7
Q

Mr H brings in a new prescription for sildenafil 100mg tablets. You are looking at his patient
medication record (PMR) and notice that this prescription is not safe due to a
contraindication from his regular medicines.
Which of the following medicines is contra-indicated with sildenafil?
Select one:
1. isosorbide 20 mg mononitrate
2. simvastatin 40 mg tablets
3. amlodipine 5 mg tablets
4. warfarin 5 mg tablets
5. aspirin 75 mg tablets

A

Isosorbide mononitrate

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8
Q

What is the interaction between sildenafil and isosorbide mononitrate?

A

Isosorbide dinitrate potentially increases the risk of hypotension when given with Sildenafil. Manufacturer advises avoid.

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9
Q

Question 20-22 concerns Mr R, he has presented to Accident and Emergency with central
crushing chest pain, which radiates down his arm. He is short of breath and feels nauseous.
The doctors have ordered an electrocardiogram (ECG) and troponin I levels to be taken immediately and after 12 hours.
Which of the following statements is false?
Select one:
1. an ECG will differentiate whether the patient has had a STEMI or NSTEMI
2. troponin I is a specific indicator of damage to the heart muscle
3. troponin I levels are taken immediately after chest pain is experienced and then after 12 hours to identify if the patients troponin levels have decreased
4. The patients symptoms are characteristic of a myocardial infarction
5. aspirin 300mg should be administered

A

troponin I levels are taken immediately after chest pain is experienced and then after 12 hours to identify if the patients troponin levels have decreased

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10
Q

When should troponin I levels be taken in an MI?

A

10–12 hours after the onset of symptoms

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11
Q

Ms. W is taking regular oral hydrocortisone for the foreseeable future.
Which of the following is not a recognised side effect of corticosteroid therapy?
Select one:
1. Addison’s disease
2. diabetes
3. hypertension
4. osteoporosis
5. water retention

A

Addison’s disease

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12
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Addison’s disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) is caused by destruction of the adrenal cortex. This results in reduced production of glucocorticoids (such as cortisol), mineralocorticoids (such as aldosterone), and adrenal androgens (such as dehydroepiandrosterone).

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13
Q

How is Addison’s disease treated?

A

Mineralocorticoid replacement e.g., hydrocortisone

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14
Q

A lady comes into your community pharmacy. She would like some advice about her
daughter who has been suffering from a fever. You suspect they have an infection.
Which of the following may not need to be reported as a notifiable disease?
Select one:
1. food poisoning
2. toxic shock syndrome
3. meningitis
4. measles
5. whooping cough

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

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15
Q

Mr T appears at the pharmacy asking for your advice. He has developed hypopigmented
macules and patches on his left arm and upper back. The patches started off as small but
have coalesced together and now cover the entire back of his arm and upper back.
He is self-conscious about the discolouration and has been wearing long sleeves to hide the
patches. You examine the skin and notice the patches to be slightly pink in colour and
covered in a fine powdery scale. Upon further questioning you discover that the patches are
not painful and he does not have these patches anywhere else
View resources
Which of the following conditions is Mr T most likely to be suffering from?
Select one:
1. eczema
2. psoriasis
3. pityriasis versicolor
4. rosacea
5. vitiligo

A

Pityriasis versicolour

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16
Q

What does eczema look like?

A

Inflamed skin can look red on white skin, and darker brown, purple or grey on brown or black skin. This can also be more difficult to see on brown and black skin.

Scratching can affect your sleep, make your skin bleed, and cause secondary infections.

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17
Q

What does psoriasis look like?

A

Psoriasis typically causes patches of skin that are dry and covered in scales.

On brown, black and white skin the patches can look pink or red, and the scales white or silvery. On brown and black skin the patches can also look purple or dark brown, and the scales may look grey.

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18
Q

What does pityriasis versicolor look like?

A

Pityriasis versicolor is a common fungal skin infection. It’s sometimes also called tinea versicolor. A GP can prescribe treatment for it, but it can keep coming back.

Pityriasis versicolor causes patches of skin to change colour.
The patches are flat and round and can join up to form large areas. They may look scaly and can sometimes be itchy.

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19
Q

A locum GP at one of your nearby surgeries rings you and would like to prescribe a medicine
as a private repeat. He is unsure about repeatable prescribing and how to supply lawfully.
Which of the following statements is least appropriate when advising the GP about repeatable prescribing?
Select one:
1. prescriptions for Schedule 2 and 3 Controlled Drugs are not repeatable
2. NHS prescriptions are not repeatable
3. when a prescriber has endorsed ‘REPEAT x 3’ the prescription can be dispensed a maximum
of three times
4. when a prescriber writes ‘REPEAT’ for an oral contraceptive pill the prescription may be
dispensed a maximum of six times
5. if the prescription states “REPEAT” but the number of repeats is not stated then it can only
be repeated once (dispensed twice in total) unless it is for an OCP

A

when a prescriber has endorsed ‘REPEAT x 3’ the prescription can be dispensed a maximum
of three times
[can be dispensed four times]

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20
Q

Mrs J has a history of acid reflux. She is very worried that her medicines may aggravate her
symptoms.
Which of the following medicines is most likely to aggravate her symptoms and should
therefore be taken after food?
Select one:
1. amoxicillin
2. digoxin
3. mefenamic acid
4. lisinopril
5. temazepam

A

Mefenamic acid

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21
Q

What is mefenamic acid?

A

NSAID used to treat mild to moderate pain.

22
Q

A patient has been taking clindamycin for the past three days and has developed nausea
and diarrhoea. They ask for your advice about what to do.
They have been taking the clindamycin as prescribed: 450 mg QDS. They still have four more
days of treatment to go.
What is the most appropriate advice to give the patient?
Select one:
1. they should complete the prescribed course to avoid developing resistance
2. nausea and vomiting is a common side effect of all antibiotics as it also kills the good
bacteria in your stomach
3. they should go back to the doctor as the dose they have been prescribed is too high. The
doctor should prescribe a lower dose of 300 mg qds to reduce the incidence of diarrhoea
and vomiting
4. they should stop taking the clindamycin immediately and go and get an urgent appointment with their doctor
5. they should try to remain hydrated and use oral replacement sachets to replace the fluid
and electrolytes they have lost

A

they should stop taking the clindamycin immediately and go and get an urgent appointment with their doctor

23
Q

When is clindamycin C/I?

A

Diarrhoeal estate

24
Q

You are working as a Band 6 rotational pharmacist. You are currently on your surgical
rotation and revising your knowledge of anaesthetics.
Which of the following medicines is the most widely used intravenous anaesthetic in adults
and children due to quicker patient recovery and less hangover effect?
Select one:
1. etomidate
2. ketamine
3. nitrous oxide
4. propofol
5.thiopental sodium

A

Propofol

25
Q

When would you use Thiopental sodium?

A

Thiopental sodium is a barbiturate that is used for induction of anaesthesia, but has no analgesic properties. Induction is generally smooth and rapid, but dose-related cardiovascular and respiratory depression can occur. Awakening from a moderate dose of thiopental sodium is rapid because the drug redistributes into other tissues, particularly fat. However, metabolism is slow and sedative effects can persist for 24 hours. Repeated doses have a cumulative effect and recovery is much slower.

26
Q

When would you use etomidate?

A

Etomidate is an intravenous agent associated with rapid recovery without a hangover effect. Etomidate causes less hypotension than thiopental sodium and propofol during induction. It produces a high incidence of extraneous muscle movements, which can be minimised by an opioid analgesic or a short-acting benzodiazepine given just before induction.

27
Q

When would you use ketamine?

A

Ketamine is used rarely. Ketamine causes less hypotension than thiopental sodium and propofol during induction. It is used mainly for paediatric anaesthesia, particularly when repeated administration is required (such as for serial burns dressings); recovery is relatively slow and there is a high incidence of extraneous muscle movements. The main disadvantage of ketamine is the high incidence of hallucinations, nightmares, and other transient psychotic effects; these can be reduced by a benzodiazepine such as diazepam or midazolam.

28
Q

Give me examples of inhaled anaesthetics?

A

nitrous oxide
Isoflurane

29
Q

You receive a prescription for aspirin 75 mg OD for 6 weeks, for a 2-year-old child
Which of the following statements regarding aspirin is incorrect?
Select one:
1. aspirin is not licensed for use in children <16 years
2. acetylsalicylic acid may be a contributory factor in the causation of Reye’s Syndrome
3. aspirin can be used in the treatment of Kawasaki disease
4. aspirin is contraindicated in gastric/intestinal haemorrhage, or other kinds of bleeding such
as cerebrovascular haemorrhage
5. aspirin promotes prostaglandin synthesis via
cyclooxygenase inhibition

A

aspirin promotes prostaglandin synthesis via
cyclooxygenase inhibition

30
Q

How does aspirin work?

A

aspirin inhibits prostaglandin synthesis via
cyclooxygenase inhibition

31
Q

A 15-year-old girl comes into your pharmacy requesting a supply of the emergency oral
contraceptive (EHC). Your pharmacy has a Patient Group Direction for the supply of the
POM version of levonorgestrel 1500 tablets to women under the age of 25.
In which of the following situations are you least likely to supply EHC to this patient using
this PGD for levonorgestrel 1500 tablets?
Select one:
1. she is taking a combined oral contraceptive pill and has missed two concurrent days in the
first week of a pill pack (days 1-7) and had unprotected intercourse during this first week
2. she admits that she is being abused
3. she is taking amitriptyline for neuropathic pain and has had unprotected sex in the last 24
hours
4. she had unprotected intercourse five days ago and also on a second occasion 48 hours ago, and she has not taken any other EHC
5. she has already taken a levonorgestrel 1500mg tablet in the same cycle

A

she had unprotected intercourse five days ago and also on a second occasion 48 hours ago, and she has not taken any other EHC

32
Q

How long does levonorgestrel protect you for?

A

72 hours

33
Q

How long does Ulipristal acetate protect you for?

A

120 hours

34
Q

Mr B has flown into the UK from France to visit his family. Late on a Saturday afternoon Mr
B enters your pharmacy and explains that he has left his supply of sodium valproate 500 mg
modified release tablets in France. It is prescribed by a doctor registered in France for his
epilepsy.
Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding this situation?
Select one:
1. sodium valproate 500mg modified release tablets cannot be supplied as an emergency supply
2. you do not know Mr B and do not have access to his medical records, as he is not your patient so you cannot make an emergency supply
3. you do not believe an emergency supply is necessary and it would be more practical for Mr
B to obtain a prescription
4. Mr B should attempt to contact his doctor in France instead of requesting an emergency supply
5. An emergency supply can be made for the sodium valproate 500mg modified release tablets as France is within the EEA

A

An emergency supply can be made for the sodium valproate 500mg modified release tablets as France is within the EEA

35
Q

Ms. B comes into your pharmacy and asks if you can give her some advice. You see that she
is heavily pregnant and confirm that she is nearly eight months pregnant. She has been
suffering from constipation and her stools are quite hard and pellet like. She has tried to
change her diet and drink plenty of water like her midwife suggested over a week ago but it
has not made much difference. She has also tried to take to take more exercise but is
struggling to do so because she is heavily pregnant.
She has no other symptoms and does not have any medical conditions, nor does she take
any other medicines. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far.
Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give Ms. B?
Select one:
1. recommend the use of senna tablets
2. recommend the use of Pepto-Bismol®
3. recommend the use of bisacodyl tablets
4. recommend the use of milk of magnesia
5. recommend the use of ispaghula husk

A

recommend the use of ispaghula husk

36
Q

A patient has a combination of drugs which have flagged an interaction on their PMR.
Which of the following combinations is most likely to warrant permanently changing one of
the drugs to an alternative treatment?
Select one:
1. levothyroxine 100 micrograms OD and Adcal D3 1 BD
2. clarithromycin 500mg BD and simvastatin 40mg ON
3. warfarin 3mg OD and ibuprofen 400mg TDS
4. amlodipine 10mg OD and simvastatin 80mg
5. methotrexate 10mg once a week and ibuprofen 400mg TDS

A

warfarin 3mg OD and ibuprofen 400mg TDS

37
Q

What is the interaction between warfarin and ibuprofen?

A

Warfarin causes bleeding, as can Ibuprofen ; concurrent use might increase the risk of developing this effect. Manufacturer advises use with caution or avoid.

38
Q

What is the interaction between methotrexate and ibuprofen?

A

Ibuprofen is predicted to increase the risk of toxicity when given with Methotrexate (particularly high-dose). Manufacturer advises monitor.

39
Q

What is the interaction between clarithromycin and simvastatin?

A

Clarithromycin is predicted to increase the exposure to Simvastatin. Manufacturer advises avoid.

40
Q

What is the interaction between levothyroxine and Adcal D3?

A

Oral Calcium carbonate is predicted to decrease the absorption of oral Levothyroxine. Manufacturer advises separate administration by at least 4 hours.

41
Q

Mrs F comes into your community pharmacy requesting advice about her 2-year-old child’s
symptoms. They have a distinctive cough, a hoarse voice and are struggling to breathe. They
do not have asthma or an airway obstruction.
You diagnose the child as having croup.
Which of the following statements regarding croup is not correct?
Select one:
1. it commonly affects young children aged between six months and six years
2. mild croup symtoms usually resolve within 48 hours
3. between coughs, they may gasp for breath – this may cause a “whoop” sound
4. if severe it can be treated with steroids such as dexamethasone or budesonide
5. it is commonly caused by a virus

A

between coughs, they may gasp for breath – this may cause a “whoop” sound

42
Q

What are the symptoms of croup?

A

Suspect croup in a child with a sudden onset of a seal-like barking cough. Hoarse voice is also common.
Symptoms are typically worse at night and increase with agitation.
Prodromal, non-specific upper respiratory tract symptoms (coryza, non-barking cough, mild fever) may have been present for between 12 and 72 hours.
Progressive upper airway obstruction can result in the development of stridor and respiratory distress.

43
Q

Mr T is 47-years-old, he visits your pharmacy complaining of symptoms which he believes is
related to his prostate gland. His symptoms have been present for four months. He has seen
on a television advert that he may be able to buy something OTC to alleviate his symptoms.
Which of the following is most appropriate with regards to the use of tamsulosin as an OTC
treatment?
Select one:
1. Mr T meets the age requirements to be eligible to buy tamsulosin OTC
2. you cannot sell tamsulosin to Mr T as he has had the symptoms for over 4 months
3. if it is suitable for a patient, initially a 1 week supply of tamsulosin can be sold
4. patients taking tamsulosin OTC should see their doctor within 4 weeks of starting treatment
5. if after taking tamsulosin OTC for one week, there has been an improvement in urinary symptoms, a further supply of six weeks can be made

A

Mr T meets the age requirements to be eligible to buy tamsulosin OTC

44
Q

What is the criteria for selling tamsulosin OTC?

A

Total supply of upto 6 wees
Age: 35 to 75 yrs old
Given for BPH - persistent symptoms for 3 months
Initially give 2 weeks, if improvement then given 4 weeks
See doctor within

45
Q

For the statement below, select the single most likely substance, from the list that would
match the statement.
is often raised in patients who have a liver blockage (blocked bile ducts)
Select one:
1. potassium
2. sodium
3. magnesium
4. creatinine
5. ALT
6. ALP
7. albumin
8. phosphate

A

ALP - The driving force behind increases in ALP is an accumulation of bile acids within the hepatocyte

46
Q

For the statement below, select the single most likely substance, from the list that would
match the statement.
Deficiency of this substance is often seen in severe asthmatics
Select one:
1. potassium
2. sodium
3. magnesium
4. creatinine
5. ALT
6. ALP
7. albumin
8. phosphate

A

Magnesium

47
Q

For the statement below, select the single most likely substance, from the list that would
match the statement.
Found in foods such as dark chocolate, seeds and avocado
Select one:
1. potassium
2. sodium
3. magnesium
4. creatinine
5. ALT
6. ALP
7. albumin
8. phosphate

A

Magnesium

48
Q

Theme: Drugs used to manage disorders of the central nervous system
View resource
For the statement below, select the single most appropriate drug, from the list that would
match the statement.
is a licensed treatment for a patient suffering from neuropathic pain
Select one:
1. lithium
2. clozapine
3. haloperidol
4. prochlorperazine
5. flupentixol
6. risperidone
7. nortriptyline
8. pregabalin

A

Pregabalin

49
Q

For the statement below, select the single most suitable drug from the list that would match
the statement.
Mr C is suffering from an acute episode of moderate proctitis. His doctor would like to start
him on the first line monotherapy as an oral agent.
Select one:
1. budesonide
2. sulfasalazine
3. prednisolone
4. omeprazole
5. loperamide
6. glucosamine
7. allopurinol
8. naproxen

A

Sulfasalazine

50
Q

Theme: Drugs associated with thyroid disorders
The next seven questions are based on the same list of options, but different scenarios. Each
option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
For the statement below, select the single most applicable drug from the list that would
match the statement.
used in the treatment of both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism
Select one:
1. levothyroxine
2. risedronate
3. carbimazole
4. topical iodine
5. liothyronine sodium
6. amiodarone
7. lithium
8. metoprolol

A

Levothyroxine

51
Q

Theme: Drugs associated with thyroid disorders
For the statement below, select the single most applicable drug from the list that would
match the statement.
can be prescribed for a patient requiring adjunct treatment for management of side effects
associated with hyperthyroidism
Select one:
1. levothyroxine
2. risedronate
3. carbimazole
4. topical iodine
5. liothyronine sodium
6. amiodarone
7. lithium
8. metoprolol

A

Metoprolol

52
Q

What beta blockers are licensed to treat side effects
associated with hyperthyroidism?

A

The beta-blockers propranolol (used most commonly), metoprolol, and nadolol are licensed for the treatment of thyrotoxicosis as an adjunct to antithyroid drug treatment.