[UCL 100 formulary] Flashcards

1
Q
A

Absorbs by physical binding (drug overdose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
A

Restore liver glutathione (paracetamol OD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
A

Surfactant laxative - enhances water incorparation (constipation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A

increases gastric pH (GORD)

*sodium anginate + calcium carbonate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
A

hyperosmotic laxative (constipation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A

Hyperosmotic laxative (constipation)

Lactulose breakdown by colonic bacteria acidifies lumen. inhibiting NH3 diffusion out of gut and enhances NH3 entry into gut (Portal systemic encephalopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A

Iso-osmotic laxative (constipation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A

saline cathartic effect (constipation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A

PPI: binds to H+/K+-exchanging ATPase in gastric parietal cells preventing acid secretion (ulcers/GORD/H.pylori)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
A

H2 receptors antagonist of gastric parietal cells; inhibits gastric secretions (GORD/ulcers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A

Intestinal irritant and stimulant (constipation/bowel prep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
A

ACEi: inhibits ACE, reduced [ATII]. (hypertension/CHF post MI/MI+stroke prevention)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A

alpha-adrenergic = ^CO and HR with reduced renal perfusion

beta-1 agonist = bronchial smooth muscle relaxation

(cardiac arrest/asthma/anaphylaxis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
A

Class III antiarrhythymic. (ventricular arrhythymias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A

ATII-R antagonists. Reduced vasconstriction/aldosterone (hypertension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A

irreversible COX-i. Reduced TXA2 and PGs. Inhibits platelet aggregation, anti-pyretic, analgesic. (ACS/pain/fever/TIA/RA etc)

nb: other NSAIDs are reversible inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
A

Thiazide diuretic. Inhibits Na reabsorption in DCT. (Hypertension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

verapamil

A

inhibits Ca2+ into myocardium/smooth muscel withough affecting [serum]. Prevents contraction of myocardium + dilation of coronary/systemic arteries (hypertension/CAD/angina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
A

Inhibitor of adenosine diphosphate (ADP)-induced pathway for platelet aggregation (ACS/CAD/MI+stroke prevention)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
A

heart failure = inhibits Na/K which increases Ca influx causing increased contractility

SVT = supresses AV node. ^ refractory

(AF/heart failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A

phosphodiesterase enzyme inhibitor increased cAMP. Inhibits platelet aggregation. (Thromboembolism prophylaxis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
A

Loop diuretics. inhibit Na/Cl reabsorption. ^ K/Mg/water loss. (hypertension/^k/^Mg/acute oedema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A

Nitrate causing vasodilation (angina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
A

Nitrate convert to NO intracellularly –> activating cGMP causing vasodilation (angina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
A

Factor 10, 9, 7, 2, C and S (Vit K antagonist reversal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
A

Aldosterone-antagonist. Increased Na,Cl,H20 secretion. retention of K+, H+. (hypertension, oedema, hyperaldosteronism, CHF, hypoK+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor; inhibits the rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis (hypercholestraemia)§

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
A

alpha-receptor antagonist, vascular dilation (hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
A

Block beta1-r. Negative chrono/ionotropic effect. (angina/post-MI/SV-arryhthymia/hypertension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
A

short and long acting M3 antimuscarinics –> smooth muscle dilation (COPD/CF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
A

Histamine H1-receptor antagonist in blood vessels, respiratory tract, and gastrointestinal tract (allergic rhinitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
A

inhaled steroids. (asthma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
A

binds to nicotine receptors (smoking cessation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
A

increased PaO2. (hypoxia/ etc..)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
A

Long-acting beta-2 agonist; action on beta-2 receptors relaxes bronchial smooth muscle with little effect on heart rate (asthma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
A

Corticosteroid (asthma)

37
Q
A

Salmeterol + Fluticasone (asthma)

38
Q
A

short B2 agonist. (asthma)

39
Q
A

Dopamine and serotonin antagonism + others - atypical (?) (schizophrenia/bipolar)

40
Q

diazepam, lorazepam, midazolam,
temazepam

A

BZDs: post-synaptic GABA-A transmission modulation, resulting in presynaptic inhibition (anxiety/seizure disorders)

41
Q
A

codeine + paracetamol (acetamorphine)

42
Q
A

reduced sensitivity of labyrinthine apparatus/ CTZ effects. (motion sickness/anti-emetic)

43
Q
A

D2 antagonists at CTZ (Domperidone does not cross BB - parkinsons. Metoclopramide used for N&V)

44
Q
A

GABA analogue (partial seizures/neuralgia)

45
Q
A

Levodopas. pre-cursor to dopamine (parkinsons)

46
Q
A

Competitive opioid antagonist (opioid reversal/OD)

47
Q
A

NSAIDs. Inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX)-1 and COX-2, thereby inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis (Many)

48
Q
A

selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist (N&V prophylaxis esp. chemo induced)

49
Q

fentanyl, morphine, oxycodone,
tramadol

A

Mu receptor antagonists (pain)

50
Q
A

Acts on hypothalamus to produce antipyresis

Peripherally blocks pain impulse generation; inhibit prostaglandin synthesis in CNS (?) (pain)

51
Q
A

Slows conduction velocity, promotes Na+ efflux or decreases Na+ influx from membranes in motor cortex neurons; stabilizes neuronal membrane

(status epilepticus/anticonvulsant)

52
Q
A

increase/mimic GABA (seizures/migraine/bipolar)

53
Q
A

SSRI presynaptic. (depression)

54
Q
A

TCAs. Norepinephrine + serotonin RIs (depression).

55
Q
A

increases GABA. unknown MOA. (insomnia)

56
Q
A

Cephalosporins. β-lactam antibiotic, less susceptible to lactamase. bacteriocidal. Disrupt peptidoglycan wall. (antibiotic)

57
Q
A

Fluoroquinolone. inhibits DNA gyrase in susceptible organisms; promotes breakage of double-stranded DNA. (antibiotic)

58
Q
A

aminoglycoside with pseudomonas activity. (antibiotic)

59
Q
A

Carbapenam. β-lactam antibiotic, nearly entirely non-susceptible to lactamase.

60
Q
A

Macrolide. RNA-dependent protein synthesis to arrest by blocking tRNA dissociation. (antibiotic)

61
Q
A

Nitroimidazole class. Disrupts DNA (anaerobic bacterial infection)

62
Q
A

Anti-fungals. Binding to sterols in fungal cell membrane, leading to alterations in cell permeability and cell death (anti-fungal)

63
Q

fluclox., penicillin G & V,
piperacillin-tazobactam

A

Penicillins. Disrupts x-linkage between peptidoglycan chains. (antibiotic)

64
Q
A

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which in turn inhibits folic acid reduction to tetrahydrofolate, causing inhibition of microorganism growth
(UTI/jiroveci)

65
Q
A

Tetracycline. binds to 30s block tRNA dissociation. (antibiotic)

66
Q
A

Binds tightly to D-alanyl-D-alanine portion of cell wall precursor blocking cell wall synthesis (antibiotic - MRSA)

67
Q
A

anti-protozoal. Unclear. (Malaria)

68
Q

hydrocortisone - including topical,
prednisolone

A

Corticosteroids. (many)

69
Q
A

Sulfonylurea. Ca2+ influx causing insulin vesicle release. (oral anti-diabetic)

70
Q
A

beta pancreatic cells. (diabetes/hyperkalaemia)

71
Q
A

Synthetic T4. (hypothyroidism)

72
Q
A

Decreases hepatic glucose production; decreases GI glucose absorption; increases target cell insulin sensitivity (DM)

73
Q
A

Pro-drug to methimazole. Inhibits synthesis of thyroid hormone by blocking oxidation of iodine in thyroid gland; blocks synthesis of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) (hyperthyroidism)

74
Q
A

oestradiol + progestin (contraception)

75
Q
A

Inhibits dihydrofolic acid reductase; inhibits purine and thymidylic acid synthesis, which in turn interferes with DNA in S phase. (DMARDs/other)

76
Q
A

colloids

77
Q
A

replaces iron (IDA)

78
Q
A

LMWH. Binds and accelerates AT III, increasing inhibition of Xa and II. Xa is responsible for prothrombin–>thrombin (anticoagulant)

79
Q
A

replaces K (hypokalaemia)

80
Q
A

Interferes with hepatic synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as proteins C and S (anticoagulation)

81
Q
A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor; inhibits conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine to uric acid; decreases production of uric acid without disrupting synthesis of vital purines (gout)

82
Q
A

Bisphosphonates, when attached to bone tissue, are “ingested” by osteoclasts and kill them. (osteoporosis)

83
Q
A

Stimulates calcium and phosphate absorption from small intestine; stimulates phosphate resorption at renal tubule; stimulates secretion of calcium into blood from bone (osteoporosis)

84
Q
A

Antimuscarinic; inhibits action of acetylcholine at parasympathetic sites in smooth muscle, CNS, and secretory glands (spastic GI tract, eye drops)

85
Q
A

Class 1B antidysrhythmic; combines with fast Na channels and thereby inhibits recovery after repolarization (ventricular arrhythmia/anaesthesia)

86
Q
A

Competitive benzodiazepine receptor antagonist (reversal of sedation/BZD OD)

87
Q
A

inhalation GA. Activates GABA-a, NMDA antagonist. (GA) severe side effect of hepatotoxicity–>hepatitis

88
Q
A

CNS depression via GABAa receptors (GA)

*SE = resp acidosis, cardiac, hypotension *

89
Q
A

acetylcholine agonist. (short term muscle relaxant - GA)