[U1] - Introductory Concepts Flashcards
1
Q
The study of blood group antigens and antibodies
A
Immunohematology/
Blood Banking
2
Q
He discovered the ABO blood groups in 1901.
A
Karl Landsteiner
3
Q
This improved preservative solution was introduced by Gibson.
A
Citrate phosphate
dextrose (CPD)
4
Q
RBC antibodies in the serum of individuals who have never been previously exposed to RBC antigens by transfusion, injection, or pregnancy.
A
Naturally occurring antibody
5
Q
causes agglutination by adjusting zeta potential between RBCs
A
22% Albumin
6
Q
Was believed that _____ blood was the same as human blood, but this elicited an
immune response.
A
animal
7
Q
MOA of Citrate
A
chelates calcium
8
Q
Two challenges of Blood banking regarding anticoagulants
A
a. What anticoagulant is safe for humans?
b. What anticoagulant can preserve blood?
9
Q
The first individual to receive a blood transfusion
A
Pope Innocent VII (1942)
10
Q
In 1869, recommended sodium phosphate
A
Braxton Hicks
11
Q
first blood group to be discovered
A
ABO blood group
12
Q
Carried out vein-to-vein transfusion of blood by using multiple syringes and a special cannula for puncturing the vein through the skin
A
Edward E. Lindemann
13
Q
In 1914, reported the use of sodium citrate as an anticoagulant solution for transfusions
A
Hustin
14
Q
Citrate toxicity can lead to
A
hypocalcemia
15
Q
Rous and Turner introduced a ________________ for the preservation of blood
A
citrate dextrose solution
16
Q
what is the role of dextrose in Acid citrate dextrose? (Loutit and Mollison)
A
preservative
17
Q
In 1957, introduced an improved preservative
solution called citrate-phosphate-dextrose (CPD)
A
Gibson
18
Q
a citizen seeking spiritual rebirth descended into a pit, or fossa sanguinis
A
Taurobolium
19
Q
Foreign molecules that bind specifically to an antibody or a T-cell receptor.
A
ANTIGEN
20
Q
T/F: All immunogens are antigens, but not all antigens are immunogens.
A
T
21
Q
An incomplete antigen
■ Ex. Nucleic acid, lipids
■ That can only elicit a response when combined with a carrier molecule (ex. proteins), turning it into an immunogen.
A
Hapten
(“half”-ten: incomplete)
22
Q
Characteristics of Antigens (Ags): Properties that Influence Immune Response
The larger the SIZE the more/less immunogenic
A
More
23
Q
Characteristics of Antigens (Ags): Properties that Influence Immune Response
The more complex, the more/less immunogenic
A
More
24
Q
Most immunogenic blood antigen
A
Antigen A, Antigen B
25
Full name of A antigen
N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
26
Full name of B antigen
D-galactose
27
Second most immunogenic
RhD
28
T/F: Third most immunogenic is k
False, Capital K (kell)
29
(2) ways to exposure to foreign red blood cell Ag. (mostly mentioned by sir jude)
Blood transfusion, Pregnancy
30
Triggers complement proteins (leading to
lysis)
Antibody
31
repulsion of one red cell to another due to a similar negative charge
Zeta Potential
32
What causes the negative charge for RBCs?
Sialic Acid
32
Basis of naming Igs
Heavy-chain compositions
32
Ratio of Kappa:Lambda
2:1
33
Heavy Chain composition of IgM
Mu (pentamer)
34
heavy chain composition of IgG
Gamma (monomer)
35
heavy chain composition of IgA
Alpha (dimer)
36
heavy chain composition of IgE
Epsilon
37
heavy chain composition of IgD
Delta
38
Activation of classical pathway of complement for IgM
1 molecule;
(kasi pentamer siya, may extra pa)
39
Activation of classical pathway of complement for IgG
2 molecules;
(kasi monomer, needs one more)
40
Ig that crosses the placenta
IgG
with it being the smallest
41
IgM vs IgG: which has a J chain?
IgM
(Since it is a pentamer, it connects all of the chains)
42
Reacts at body temperature
IgG
43
Reacts at ambient temperature (22-24°C) or cold temperatures (1-6°C)
IgM (Malamig)
44
T/F: IgM Agglutinates
T
(largest Ig, can cleave one cell to another)
45
T/F: IgG Agglutinates
False, it only coats since it is a monomer
46
Predominant Ab produced in the secondary response
IgG
47
passing through the placenta causes ______ immunity (active/passive)
passive
48
IgG Subclass best in passing through the placenta
IgG1
(1 Best placenta, 2 Kulelat placenta, 3 Best CA, 4 Kulelat CA)
49
49
50
IgG Subclass worst in passing through the placenta
IgG2
(1 Best placenta, 2 Kulelat placenta, 3 Best CA, 4 Kulelat CA)
50
IgG Subclass best in complement activation
IgG3
(1 Best placenta, 2 Kulelat placenta, 3 Best CA, 4 Kulelat CA)
51
IgG Subclass worst in complement activation
IgG4
(1 Best placenta, 2 Kulelat placenta, 3 Best CA, 4 Kulelat CA)
52
Other blood groups associated with IgG production
Rh, Duffy, Kidd, Kell (Ss, IgM)
Rich Daring Kids can Kill (Sir Greg)
53
What phase in the antibody concentration:
Ab production = Ab degradation
Stationary
54
What phase in the antibody concentration:
↓Ab production = ↑Ab degradation
Decline
55
Primary vs Secondary Phase in Immune response:
Fast degradation
Primary
56
Primary vs Secondary Phase in Immune response:
Longer lag phase (due to exposure)
Primary
57
Primary vs Secondary Phase in Immune response:
Slow degradation
Secondary
58
Primary vs Secondary Phase in Immune response:
Shorter lag phase (due to memory)
Secondary
59
Most commonly encountered naturally occurring Ab (ABO system)
IgM
60
Can exist in monomeric or pentameric form with J (joining) chain
IgM
61
IgM is in its pentameric form in _________ while, while monomeric form in _______.
serum/plasma ; B cell surface
62
Major secretory antibodies, found in most mucosa
IgA
63
May cause severe anaphylaxis if transfused in IgA-deficient patients
IgA
A = anaphylaxis
64
May cause urticaria if transfused in patients with severe allergic reactions due to release of histamines
IgE
E = Eosinophil = allergies (palatandaan ko lang lol)
65
IgD is found in ______
the surface of B cells
66
Antibodies derived from more than one antibody-producing parent cell (heterogenous)
Polyclonal
67
produced in response to a single antigen with more than one epitope
Polyclonal
67
Least significant Ig in blood banking
IgD
"D" importante (get it hahah)
67
preferred in testing: highly specific, well characterized, and uniformly reactive
Monoclonal
68
Antibodies derived from a single ancestral antibody-producing parent cell
Monoclonal
69
1 target antigen (Ex. 1 AHG → IgG or CRP)
Monospecific
"OR"
69
Also known as Expected or Regular Ab
Naturally occurring
69
Exact Ag binding site
Epitope
70
Multiple target antigens (Ex. 1 AHG → IgG and CRP)
Polyspecific
"AND"
70
Exact Ab binding site
Paratope
71
Found in individuals without previous exposure to RBC Ags from transfusion, injection or pregnancy
Naturally occurring
72
Known as Non-RBC stimulated Ab due to exposure to A- or B- like substances in the environment, producing Anti-A or B Ab.
Naturally occurring
73
____ is the only well-known blood group that has naturally occuring Ab.
ABO
74
Direct/Indirect:
Unknown: Ag
Direct
75
Direct/Indirect:
Unknown: Ab
Indirect
76
Direct/Indirect:
Known: Ab
Direct
77
Direct/Indirect:
Known: Ag
Indirect
78
also known as Forward or RBC typing
Direct Typing
79
80
also known as Reverse/Backward or Serum/Plasma typing
Indirect Typing
81
Also known as Unexpected or Irregular Ab
Immune
82
If individual is Rh (-), they have no Anti-__
D
83
Found in individuals with previous exposure to foreign Ag due to transfusion, injection, and pregnancy
Immune
84
Targets Ag absent in Px.
Alloantibodies
85
Targets Ag present in Px
Autoantibodies
85
Produced in response to self-antigens
Autoantibodies
86
Produced after exposure to non self antigens
Alloantibodies
87
Test to differentiate Autoantibodies and Alloantibodies
Positive autocontrol or direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
88
Also known as epitope-paratope
ANTIGEN-ANTIBODY REACTIONS
89
extent of the reciprocal relationship (fit) between the antigen and its binding site on the antibody
Lock and key mechanism
90
strength of the binding between a single antibody and an epitope of an antigen
Affinity
91
overall strength of reaction between several epitopes and antibodies
Avidity
91
T/F: ↑Avidity = ↑tendency to disassociate
F - ↑Avidity = ↓tendency to disassociate
92
93
number of epitopes per molecule of antigen
Valency
93
the _________ of an antiserum (or antibody) is one of its most important characteristics and is related to its relative avidity for antigen.
specificity
93
property of an Ab that can react with an Ag with a similar epitope
- Ex. Cowpox (Vaccinia) Vaccine to Smallpox (Variola) disease.
Cross-reactivity
94
Ability of the immune system to accept self-Ag
Tolerance
94
exposure to an antigen during fetal life
Chimera
94
defined as the lack of an immune response or an active immunosuppressive response
Tolerance
94
Some Ags are in the _____ (i.e. ABO), some are ________________ (i.e. Rh)
Surface; transmembrane proteins
94
Complement Proteins Pathway:
antigen-antibody reaction
Classical Pathway (most common)
95
Complement Proteins Pathway:
membrane property of a microorganism
Alternative pathway
95
Activation of Complement proteins will lead to __________
cell lysis
95
In Vivo / In Vitro:
Transfusion, Pregnancy
In Vivo
95
In Vivo / In Vitro:
Complement Proteins
In Vivo
95
In Vivo / In Vitro:
Clearance of Antigen-Antibody complexes
In Vivo
96
In Vivo / In Vitro:
Agglutination
In Vitro
96
In Vivo / In Vitro:
Hemolysis
In Vitro
97
In Vivo / In Vitro:
Sensitization
In Vitro
98
In Vivo / In Vitro:
Lattice formation
In Vitro
99
attachment of Ab to corresponding Ag on RBC membrane
Sensitization
100
combination of antibody and a multivalent antigen to form crosslinks
(Agglutinates after centrifugation)
Lattice Formation
101
● Enhances agglutination reactions
● Decreases reaction time by increasing the gravitational forces on the reactants to bringing reactants closer together
Centrifugation
102
Postzone/Prozone:
Ag excess
Postzone
103
Postzone/Prozone:
Ab excess
Prozone
104
Prozone and Postzone can be avoided through _______
Dilution
105
False (+/-):
Postzone
False (-)
106
False (+/-):
Prozone
False (-)
107
(+/-):
Equivalence zone
Only area where there is (+) visible result (due to Ag = Ab)
108
Ideal pH for Ag-Ab reactions
6.5-7.5
109
anti-M and anti-Pr(Sp1) reacts at (higher/lower) pH
Lower (acidic)
110
Cold reacting: Ig_ type
Warm reacting: Ig_ type
IgM; IgG
111
Reacts with both warm or cold temperatures
Biphasic
112
Cold/Warm/Biphasic reacting:
Donath Landsteiner
Biphasic
113
Cold/Warm/Biphasic reacting:
Autoanti-P
Biphasic
114
Difference in negative charge between the inner and outer surfaces of the cloud
Zeta potential
115
↑/↓
__ZP = __ distance = more difficult for RBCs to agglutinate
↑; ↑
116
Cheapest protein media, but longest incubation (15 - 60 mins)
Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)
117
Protein media that Removes excess H2O, no centrifugation needed. Incubation is 10-30 mins
Polyethylene Glycol (PEG)
118
enhancement media most commonly used in the Lab due to the shortest incubation time
Low ionic strength solution (LISS)
119
_______ component of Low ionic strength solution (LISS) prevents lysis
Glycine
120
Proteolytic enzymes used in blood banking (4):
■ Ficin: isolated from fig plants
■ Papain: papaya
■ Trypsin: pig stomach
■ Bromelin: pineapple
121
Determine if RBCs are coated with Ab and/or complement
Anti-human globulin (AHG) reagents
122
T/F: IgG Ab cannot overcome zeta potential
T
123
the first stage of red cell agglutination
Sensitization
124
He was appointed as the director of the first American Red Cross blood bank at Presbyterian Hospital.
Dr. Charles Drew
125
Factors of Sensitization Stage (4):
- Temperature
- Incubation Time
- pH
- Ionic Strength
126
Factors of Lattice Formation Stage (3):
- Zeta Potential
- Zone of Equivalence
- Centrifugation
127
Cleaves sialic acid from RBC membrane → ↓ negative charges and ↓ZP
Proteolytic Enzymes
128
Cleaves sialic acid from RBC membrane → ↓ negative charges and ↓ZP
Proteolytic Enzymes
129
Decreases ZP by increasing dielectric constant or adding more cations
protein media
130
removed from the body’s circulation through the mononuclear phagocyte system
Clearance of Antigen-Antibody Complexes
131
Attraction between two molecules on the basis of opposite charge
electrostatic force
132
Attraction between two molecules on the basis of opposite charge
electrostatic force
133
Attraction of two negatively charged groups (X-) for a H+ atom
hydrogen bonding
134
Weak bonds formed as a result of the exclusion of water from the antigen-antibody complex
hydrophobic bonding
135
Weak bonds formed as a result of the exclusion of water from the antigen-antibody complex
hydrophobic bonding
136
Attraction between the electron cloud (-) of one atom and the proton (+) within the nucleus of another atom
Van der Waals forces
137
preventing D-negative mothers from developing anti-D antibodies after delivering Rh-positive infants
tolerance
138
Glycoprotein (immunoglobulin) that recognizes a particular epitope on an antigen and facilitates clearance of that antigen.
antibody
