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Blood and Lymph Unit 2 > Type I Immunopathology and Parasite Immunity > Flashcards

Type I Immunopathology and Parasite Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

What is the true role of IgE and Th2?

A

Fighting parasites

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2
Q

Is IgG produced in a person infected with worms?

A

Yes. and it activates complement and recruits neutrophils

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3
Q

Are neutrophils able to kill helminths?

A

No they lack a helminthocidal mechanism

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4
Q

When a mast cell binds antigens to it FcR the mast cell degranulates what does it release?

A

Anti-helminth IgE
Histamine
Prostaglandins
Leukotrienes

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5
Q

What does histamine do to the smooth muscle of the gut?

A

Increases contraction and violent peristalsis

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6
Q

What do the prostaglandins and leukotrienes do (released as ECF=A2)?

A

Attract eosinophils in large numbers

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7
Q

Eosinophils have Fc receptors that recognize IgG. How does that help it recognize the worm it needs to kill?

A

Because IgG is already opsonizing the worm at this point

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8
Q

What do the eosinophils do after the Fc receptor binds the IgG + helminth?

A

It releases the content of its granules Including Major Basic Protein which is highly toxic the the helminth

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9
Q

What is the role of Th2-like Tfh cells?

A

They go to the lymph node and help B cells switch to IgE production

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10
Q

What is the role of Th2 cells in helminth infection?

A

They go to the site of infection and attract both eosinophils and macrophages

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11
Q

What do Th2 cells produce to recruit eosinophils and macrophages?

A

IL-4
IL-5
IL-13

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12
Q

What do IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13 do to macrophages?

A

Activate them to the alternative M2 pathway where they heal damage and wall off M1-resistant invaders

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13
Q

Eosinophilia in the blood is indicative of what?

A
  1. Parastie infection

2. Type II immunopathology

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14
Q

What are allergens?

A

Antigens that cause allergy

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15
Q

When will a mast cell degranulate?

A

When two adjacent IgE molecules are bound to the same antigen

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16
Q

What does histamine do the the bronchial smooth muscle?

A

Causes contraction

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17
Q

Is it common to see a type I immunopathology reaction to an antigen that can penetrate intact skin?

A

Uncommon

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18
Q

What is allergic rhinitis?

A

Seasonal (August and September) allergy to ragweed

Causes runny nose and itchy eyes

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19
Q

What is eczema?

A

Chronic dry and easily irritated skin, itch, and rash caused by an allergen

Secondary bacterial infections are common

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20
Q

What is oral allergy syndrome?

A

Almost immediate allergy to foods that causes tingling lips and tongue, itching, and swelling of the lips

ONLY oral cause stomach acid causes degradation of allergen

21
Q

Asthma is considered both __________ and _________.

A

broncoconstrictive and inflammatory

It is important to avoid fibrosis

22
Q

What is hyper IgE syndrome?

A

Autosomal Dominant condition
Inability to make INF gamma
So Th2 dominant
High IgE, skin abscesses and fungal and Pseudomonas pneuonia

23
Q

What percentage of people experience allergic symptoms at some time in their life?

A

15%

24
Q

A newborn with two parents who have allergies has a _____% of developing allergies.

A

65

25
Q

Is the incidence of asthma on the rise or decline?

A

Rise

26
Q

Give an example of a cross-reaction.

A

Cantaloupes cross-react with ragweed; people with ragweed rhinitis can have cantalouope oral allergy syndrome

27
Q

What is atopic state?

A

Prone to develop any of the range of allergic syndroms

Infant with eczema can go on to have allergies to fish or milk, or develop asthma

28
Q

Production of IgE is dependent upon what?

A

Tfh/ IL-4

29
Q

IgE binds to that two cells that have Fc(epsilon)RI?

A

Basophils (found in blood)

Mast cells (found in tissue)

SUPER HIGH BINDING AFFINITY

30
Q

What does degranulation release?

A

histamine
heparin
enzymes
TNF

31
Q

What clinical symptoms does histamine produce?

A

Itch
Blood vessel dilation
leakiness

32
Q

What occurs in the late phase reaction?

A

Phospholipase PLA2 cleaves arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids

Converted into prostaglandins by COX and leukotrienes by lipoxygenase

33
Q

What is the role of prostaglandins and leukotrienes?

A

They initiate inflammation, constrict bronchioles, and are together called “eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis”

34
Q

What are the two phases of Type I reactions?

A

Immediate phase

Late phase

35
Q

Describe immediate phase

A

Due to histamine, so can be blocked by antihistamines

Antihistamines are receptor antagonists

36
Q

Describe late phase

A

Onset: 4-10 hours

Dependent on prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and cytokines

37
Q

Eosinophils are attracted to ECF-A and IL-4 what are these mediators produced by?

A

ECF-A is produced by Mast cells

IL-4 is produced by Th2

38
Q

Name some things that can trigger bronchospasms in hyperreactive lungs.

A

Dry air
Irritants in the air
Viral infections
Cold

39
Q

What is chronic spontaneous urticaria CSU?

A

IgG antibody against the Fc(epsilon)R1 on mast cells&raquo_space;»Chronic stimulation of histamine release

Tx: mAb omalizumab (binds to Fc or IgE so it can’t bind to mast cells)

40
Q

What is the most important diagnostic tool for diagnosing allergy?

A

History

41
Q

Does a positive skin test conclusively mean that the patient is allergic to that allergen?

A

No. Cross-reactivity could be occuring

42
Q

ImmunoCAP-FEIA is used to diagnose a specific allergen, but is it safe?

A

Yes. CAP testing is completely safe, unlike skin test which have some risk

43
Q

What is asthma?

A

Reversible bronchoconstricitive disease with progressive inflammation leading to fibrosis

44
Q

How is asthma diagnosed?

A

Spirometry-measures air flow

Measure FEV1- volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled from full lungs in 1 second

Then you measure FEV1 again once they get a bronchodilator treatment

45
Q

Th2 in the lungs is proinflammatory. Why is this bad? How can you treat it?

A

Inflammation leads to fibrosis which is irreversible

Glucocorticoids

46
Q

Antihistamines are effective for what phase of a type I reaction?

A

Immediate

47
Q

How does epinephrine help treat anaphylaxis?

A

Constricts blood vessels, but dilates bronchial smooth muscle

48
Q

What is the role of the following in the treatment of type I reactions:

  • Glucocorticoids
  • Leukotriene Inhibitors
  • Rescue Inhalers
  • LABAs (Lone-Acting Beta-2 Agonists)
  • IgE blocker
  • Immunotherapy
A
  • Glucocorticoids: Local anti-inflammatory. Systemic has a lot of side effects. Block PG and LT synthesis and cause apoptosis in eosinophils
  • Leukotriene Inhibitors: Block either synthesis (Zileuton) or binding (Montelukast)
  • Rescue Inhaler: Short-acting beta-2 antagonist
  • LABAs: reduce bronchoconstriction (Fluticasone/salmeterol
  • IgE blocker: Omalizumab

Immunotherapy: Dilute solution of allergen extracts mechanism not clear. Oral desensitization. Peanut allergen skin patch

49
Q

What is the role of Nucala (mepolizumab)?

A

Humanized interleukin-5 antagonist monoclonal antibody. Reduces severe asthma attacks by reducing the levels of blood eosinophils

Blood and Lymph Unit 2 (9 decks)

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