TX Civ Pro Flashcards

1
Q

in order for TX court to acquire specific PJ over a nonresident ∆ what is required

A
  • cause of action must arise from ∆’s act or transaction in TX
  • ∆ must purposefully do some act or consummate some transaction in TX
  • assumption of jurisdiction by TX must not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice
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2
Q

to avoid default judgment in DC, a written answer to a lawsuit must be filed

A

by 10am on the first Monday after the expiration of 20 days from the date ∆ was served with process

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3
Q

when must a special appearance be filed

A

prior to or simultaneous with any pleading or motion

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4
Q

if not challenged, the objection to venue is deemed…

A

waived

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5
Q

general venue rule

A
  • county in which all or substantial part of the events or omissions giving rise to the claim occurred
  • county of ∆’s residence at the time the cause of action accrued
  • county of ∆’s principal office in the state if the ∆ is not a natural person
  • if none of the above then the county in which P resided at the time of the accrual of the action
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6
Q

a court may transfer an action from a county with proper venue to any other county of proper venue if it finds…

A
  • the transfer of the action would not work an injustice to any other party
  • maintenance of the action in the county of the suit would work an injustice to the movant, considering the movant’s economic and personal hardship
  • the balance of interests of all parties predominates in favor of the action being brought in the other county
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7
Q

P’s response to a motion to transfer venue must be filed 30 days before the hearing and must contain…

A
  • affidavits to prove matters specifically denied by ∆ AND
  • specific denial of any of ∆’s pleaded venue facts which P wishes to contest
  • need not be verified
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8
Q

P has pleaded facts supporting the venue of the court and ∆ files motion challenging venue denying these facts… what is the best way to ensure the court finds the venue proper?

A

P replies 30 days before the hearing on venue, stating ∆’s motion to transfer was made after filing an answer and was therefore not filed in due order

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9
Q

in a suit where multiple claims arise out of the same series of transactions what are viable challenges to venue

A
  • in a suit involving multiple Ps, a challenge alleging that venue is not established by each P
  • challenge alleging that the P brings suit in the county appropriate for his first claim, but a subsequent claim is controlled by mandatory venue provisions
  • in a suit involving multiple ∆s where venue is not proper, the first answer to be filed fails to raise the issue of venue, but another ∆ subsequently challenges venue in his answer
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10
Q

what might ∆ properly file in response to P’s pleading that makes an overly vague negligence claim

A

special exception pointing out with particularity the vagueness in P’s pleading

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11
Q

special exception

A

objection to form or substance which identifies the particular pleading excepted to and points out the specific problem with the pleading

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12
Q

motion to quash

A

dilatory plea that delays or defeats an action without determining the merits of the matter
- used to challenge service of process

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13
Q

if P does not amend the pleadings after the court sustains a special exception, the court may…

A

strike those parts of the pleadings and if no cause of action still exists in the remainder of the pleadings, dismiss the case without prejudice

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14
Q

what issues does a plea in abatement address

A

defects in the pleadings

  • challenges a P’s pleadings by alleging facts arising outside the petition set forth reasons why the case should be suspended or dismissed
  • does not challenge venue or jurisdiction
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15
Q

within _____ days of filing an answer, a ∆ may file _____ to join a 3rd party who is liable to the P for all of P’s recovery

A

30 days; 3rd party petition

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16
Q

when may ∆ bring in a 3rd party ∆

A
  • 3rd party will be liable to him for all or part of the P’s recovery OR
  • 3rd party is directly liable to P
  • unless ∆ asserts 3rd party claim within 30 days after filing his answer he must obtain leave of court
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17
Q

discovery of a consulting expert’s ID and work product are discoverable if…

A

the expert’s opinions or impressions have been reviewed by an expert who will testify at trial

18
Q

under level II discovery control plan, if the cumulative duration of oral depositions is exceeded, what action may be taken

A

a W may suspend the deposition if the time limitation has expired
- under level II each side may have no more than 50 hours of deposition time to examine and cross examine

19
Q

under what circumstances may a ∆ call to testify at trial a W whose ID had not been disclosed in response to discovery

A

∆ must show either good cause for the nondisclosure OR that the opposing party will suffer no prejudice or surprise

20
Q

if ∆ was served with discovery requests before his answer to the petition is due he has ___ days from service of the requests for disclosure

A

50

21
Q

Rule 194

A

IDs discoverable matters that are so automatic they are not subject to objection

  • testifying expert’s name, address, phone
  • in PI cases medical bills reasonably related to injuries
22
Q

a party may gain entry on designate land or other property to inspect, measure, survey, test, or sample the property or designated object by…

A

serving a request on all parties OR a motion for good cause shown and notice of hearing on all parties and the nonparty

23
Q

production of documents and things may be requested from…

A

a nonparty by obtaining a court order or by serving a subpoena compelling the specific form of discovery

24
Q

when may a court allow withdrawal of an admission

A
  • if the party shows good cause AND
  • if the court finds that the parties relying on the admissions will not be unduly prejudiced AND
  • that the presentation of the merits of the action will be subserved
25
Q

if a ∆ fails to appear at his deposition, the P may may…

A

move the court for sanction

26
Q

if a ∆ objects to a request to produce when must he file a motion for a protective order

A

within 30 days after service of the subpoena

27
Q

what does notice of deposition when sent to a party act as

A

subpoena - ∆ may not ignore the notice

28
Q

motion for a protective order may be used to object to the…

A

time and place of deposition before the time for compliance
- if objection is raised within 3 business days of service, the objection stays the deposition until the objection is resolved

29
Q

where may a W be deposed

A
  • county of the W’s residence
  • county where the W is employed or regularly transacts business in person
  • county of suit (if W is party)
  • county where W is served with subpoena or within 150 miles of the place of service
30
Q

objections made during a deposition that are likely to be sustained

A
  • ∆ objects to P’s attorney conferring with a W about a question
  • P’s attorney objects to leading questions
  • ∆’s attorney objects that the W’s answers are nonresponsive
31
Q

if ∆ is served with notice of deposition and request for production of documents at the deposition, the deposition may be held

A

30 days from the date the notice was served

32
Q

under TX state law, a party may move for summary judgment…

A

alleging that there is no genuinely disputed fact OR that the adverse party has no evidence or one or more elements of a claim or defense

33
Q

summary judgment evidence must be submitted by the moving party ONLY if…

A

the ground is that there is no genuine issue of material fact

34
Q

what may be used to support a motion for summary judgment

A
  • affidavits
  • deposition transcripts
  • authenticated or certified public records
  • NO ORAL TESTIMONY
35
Q

evidence of a formal settlement offer made under TRCP is…

A

admissible only for the purpose of enforcing the settlement agreement or obtaining litigation costs

36
Q

when a judge rules against a party regarding the admissibility of her evidence in a motion in limine, to preserve issue for appeal, the party must…

A

approach the judge outside the presence of the jury to get a final ruling, then submit an offer of proof or bill of exceptions

37
Q

prospective jurors may be challenged for cause if the juror is…

A
  • interested directly or indirectly in the case
  • is a W in the case
  • has a relationship to a party within the 3rd degree
  • was on a previous jury that tried the same case or one identical in factual issues
  • has bias or prejudice in favor of or against a party in the case
38
Q

when ∆ has raised and affirmative defense and the jury finds for P, what must ∆ show to be successful on a motion for judgment not withstanding the verdict

A

∆ has conclusively proved all elements of the defense, or P has failed to produce any evidence on his claim

39
Q

a motion for new trial is required as a prerequisite as to…

A
  • complaint on which evidence must be heard
  • complaint of factual insufficiency to support jury finding
  • complaint that jury findings are against the great weight and preponderance of the evidence
  • complaint of inadequacy or excessiveness of damages found by jury
  • improper, incurable jury argument
40
Q

how long before a court loses plenary power when a motion for new trial is filed

A

105 days after the order was singed

41
Q

verdicts in civil cases can be rendered by how many members

A

10 members of an original jury of 12 or 5 members of an original jury of 6
- all 10 or 5 must agree to all the answers and each must sign the verdict

42
Q

affidavits used in support of a motion for summary judgment must meet all of the following requirements

A
  • based on personal knowledge
  • affirmatively show the affiant is competent to testify
  • be based on admissible evidence