Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCP - cannot remember > tx > Flashcards

tx Flashcards

1
Q

sle - renal

A
  • steroids
  • mycophenalate
  • cyclophosmide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PMR -

A

steroid cannot betaken anymore
TOCLIZUMAB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SLE internal organ

A

prednisilone / cyclophosmaide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SLE - antibodies

A
  • BELIMUMAB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

graves disease eye

A

steroids
tociluzimab rituximab
radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Good pasture mx

A
  • plasma exchange
  • IV immunoglobulin
  • methyprednislone and cyclophospmide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

guillan barr syndrome Tx

A

IV immunogloblins first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Myasthenia gravis Tx

A
  • long acting acetylcholine inhibtors - pyridostigmine
  • prednisilone
  • azathioprine , cyclosporin , mycophenolate motefil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MYASTHENIA CRISIS

A

PLASMAPHORESIS
OR
INTRAVENOUS IMMUNOGLOBULINS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

renal cancer

A
  • mycophenolate motefil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

multiple myeloma

A
  • thalidomine / bortezomib
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ankylosing spondylitis

A

NSAIDS

ANTI - TNF = etanercept / adalimumab

methotrexate/ sulfasalaizne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

psoriatic arthirits

A

NSAIDS
methotrexate
anti - tif - infliximab / adlaimumab and etanercept
ustekinumab/secukinumab
apremilast - PDE4 inhibtor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis

A

pirfenidone
nintedanib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

pemphigus vulgaris

A

prednisilone
azathioprine / cyclophosphomide
rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

adhesive capsulitis

A

NSAIDS
PHYSIO
ORAL / INTRARTIULAR STEROIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

low esr found in ?

A

POLYCETHMIA - JAK 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

polycethmia rubra vera treatmnet

A

aspirin - prevent thromembolic events
venesection - first choice
hydroxyurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

recative arthritis tx

A

analgesia= NSAIDS
intrarticular steroids
sulfasalazine and mthotrexate if persistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

osteoarthritis

A

topical nsaids - first line - esp if hands and knees
oral NSAID
(do not recommend paracetamol or opiods )
intrarticular sterodids
if not = joint replacemnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

rheumatoid arthritis tx

A

flares - steroids - short course
maintenance = methotrextate / sufasalaizne / leflunomide / hydroxycholorquine
INAQEUATE REPSONSE TO TWO DMARD INCLUDING METHOTREXATE = TNF A INHIBTORS = adalimumab
rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

carpal tunnel syndrome

A

intrarticula steroids
brace
or surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

yersinia

A
  • quinilones / tetracylie / macrolides / /co-trimoxazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

animal bites resistant to amox

A

metrondazole and doxycylin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

liver abscess

A

metronidazole + ciprofloxacin +amoxi
amox allergy = metro+ clinda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS

A

STEROIDS AND AZATHIOPRINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Stills disease features

A

ana and rf negative
arthralgia
lymphadenopathy
rash - salmon pink
elevated serum ferritin
pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Stills disease Tx

A

= NSAIDS
steroids - does not mprove prognosis but improoves symptoms
methotrexate / anakinara - against IL1 /anti-TNF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CLL can cause

A

CAN CAUSE warm AUTOIMMUN HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA = need prednisilone if not responding rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CLL- FCR not responding

A

(fludrabine , cyclophosphamide , rituximab)

if not working - irutinib / ALEMTUZIMAB (anti-cd52)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

HUS tx

A

fluid replacemnt / blood transfusion / dialysis

plasma exchange and eculuzimab - for non diarrheal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

PNH

A

Management
* blood product replacement- pancytopneia
* anticoagulation - thrombotic
* eculizumab, a monoclonal antibody directed against terminal protein C5,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

sideroblastic anemia features

A

high ferrtin
iron sat
high iron
basophilic stippling
prussian blue or perls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

sideroblastic anemia cause ?

A

myelodysplsi
alcohol
lead
ant-TB
Congenital cause: delta-aminolevulinate synthase-2 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

pyoderma gangrenosum Tx

A

oral steroids
ciclosporin / infliximab
surgery to do with IBS delayed till this is managed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

psoriasis exacerbation

A
  • alcohol
  • drugs: beta blockers,
  • lithium,
  • antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs
  • ACE inhibitors,
  • infliximab
  • withdrawal of systemic steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

mycophenlate side effects

A

tremor / hypertonia / somnolence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

evolocumab / ezetemibe

A

educed cholestrol
ezetimibe - reduces cholesterol from small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

disseminated gonoccoal infection = spread to knee

A

iv ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

diabetic foot ulcer

A

co - amoxiclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

pneumocystic jirovecii prophylaxis =

A

trimethoprim sulfmethoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

SBP - Tx

A

iv pip/taz iv cefoaxim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

cystine stones Tx

A

penicillamine

43
Q

HLA-B58 related to ?

A

steven johnson syndrome
or drug rcausing eosinophilia and systemic symtoms

44
Q

HLAB52= related to

A

TAKYASU ARTERITIS
ULCERATIVE COLITIS

45
Q

allopurinol side effects with

A

azathioprine (as azathioprine is converted to 6 mercapturine = xanthine oxidase responsible to oxidate this
theophyline - as allopurinol is a CYP enzyme inhibtor
cyclophosmide = allopuirnol reduces its renal clearance

46
Q

WASP

A

recurrent bacterial chest infection
eczema
thrombocytopenia
low IgM

47
Q

heerfordt syndrome

A

parotid enlargemnet and fever - seocndary to sarcoidosis

48
Q

what is thin basemnet mebrane disease -

A

perisiant micosopic heamturea
AD - disorder of collagen 4 / family history of microspic heamturea without kidney failure
normotension and creatinin levels

49
Q

which abx causes agranulocytosis ?

A

trimethoprim

50
Q

what is cetuximab

A
  • epidermalgrowth factor inhibtor
51
Q

what iswhat is nivolumab

A

programmed cell death inhibitor
used as chemotherapy
for T cells to alert other cells of cancerous cell

52
Q

insulinoma tx

A

rapid weight gain
diplopia
hypoglycaemia

CT pancreas
surgery
diazoxide / somatostatin

53
Q

BRUCELLOSIS TX and feature in clinical lab

A

WBC normal

Dry cough, fever , multiple joint pain

doxy + Rifampicin
erythromycin

54
Q

shigella tx

A

none
unless immunocomprmised then ciprofloxacin

55
Q

what has absent cornea reflex ?

A

vestibular shwanoma - tinitus and vertigo and abesnt corneal reflex

56
Q

campylobacter

A

macrolides
then fluroquinilones

57
Q

convex st segment elevation ?

A

burgada - v-v3 followed by t wave inversion

58
Q

concave st elevation

A

pericarditis

59
Q

what do we give in gas gangrene - clostridium perfingens

A

clindamycin and metronidazole

60
Q

posterior cerebellar artery stroke feature

A

contralateral homonymous hemianopia - with macula sparing
visual agnosia

61
Q

weber syndrome

A

branches of posterior after supplying midbrain

  • ipsilateral cn3 palsy
    -contralateral weakness of upper and lower extremity
62
Q

anterior inferior cerebellar artery

A

same s wallenberg - put ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness

63
Q

drug for dermatitis herpetiformis

A

dapsone

64
Q

diverticulosis feature and tx

A

LLQ
FEVER - RAISED WBC
MORE IN COPD AND INCREASED AGE
CAN HAVE DIARRHEA MIXED WITH BLOOD

RESPOND WELL TO iv fluids and IV co-amoxiclav

65
Q

dominant temporal lobe affected ?

A

receptive aphasia
dyslexia
impaired VERBAL MEMORY
WORD AGNOSIA
INABILITY TO INTERPRET WORDS SAID

66
Q

non dominant temporal lobe affected ?

A

impaired musical skills
impaired non verbal memory

67
Q

lichen planus tx

A

potent topical steroids are the mainstay of treatment

benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended for oral lichen planus

extensive lichen planus may require oral steroids or azahioprin , ciclosporin

68
Q

TX of whipple disease ?

A

2 weeks of IV therapy is must

1) ceftriaxoe or penicillin
co trimoxazole nd tetracyclines are alternatives

69
Q

function of tociluzimab ?

A

IL6- INHIBTOR

USED IN RHEUAMTOID NOT CONTROLLED BY DMARDS AND ANT-TNF
PMR
AND ALSO TEMPORAL ARTERITIS

70
Q

nephrogenic DI - failing to respond to solute or protein reduction is given?

A

hydrochlorothiazide

71
Q

Oculogyric crisis tx

A

benztropine or procyclidine

72
Q

Oculogyric crisis causes

A

restlessness, agitation
involuntary upward deviation of the eyes

Causes
antipsychotics
metoclopramide
postencephalitic Parkinson’s disease

73
Q

membranous nidiopathic membranous nephropathy TX ?

A

idiopathic/ chronic - rituximab

rapidly progressive - steroids and cyclophosphamide

74
Q

polyarteritis nods usually seen in ?

A

hep B
mononeuritis multiplex, sensorimotor polyneuropathy
LIVIDO RETICULARIS

75
Q

ANA and p-ANCA stands for ?

A

ANA - anti-nuclear

ANCA - anti neutrophil

76
Q

raloxifene- decrease the risk of

A

breast cancer
increase VTE risk

77
Q

STRONIUM RANELATE - CONTRAINDICATED IN

A

IN SIGNIFICANT HEART DISEASE

78
Q

Klinefelter’s syndrome dx?

A

elevated gonaditropin levels but low testosterone
xxy

79
Q

difference between viral labrynthitis and vestibular neuritis

A

both have recent viral infection

viral labrynthitis - sudden onset vertigo
hearing loss may happen

vestibular neuritis - recurrent vertigo lasting days and and hours
NO HEARING LOSS

80
Q

hyperparathyroidism
Indications for surgery

A

serum Calcium > 1mg/dL above normal
Hypercalciuria > 400mg/day
Creatinine clearance < 30% compared with normal
Episode of life threatening hypercalcaemia
Nephrolithiasis
Age < 50 years
Neuromuscular symptoms

81
Q

TTP tx ?

A

abx worsen
plasma exchange
steroids/ immunosuppressants (rituximab)
vincristine

82
Q

dermatomyositis not controlled by prednisolone ?

A

azathioprine

if co existing lung disease - cyclosporin and cyclophosmaide

83
Q

Dx of guillan barre syndrome

A

LP - ISOLATED ELEVATED PROTEIN, normal white cell count

Nerve conduction studies - decreased velocity due to demyelination

84
Q

Cause of which immunoglobulin deficiency makes blood transfusion reaction

A

IgA (most common immunoglobulin deficiency)

85
Q

How is brugada syndrome different from HOCM AND long QT syndrome

A

Vfib occurs at night unlike HCOM and long qt syndrome which occurs more during the day and related to exercise

Resistant to anti arrythmia - ICD needed

AJMALINE and flecainide used to see the ECG changes

86
Q

Difference between different dyslipidemia

A

Familial heterozygous hyperlipidemia
Total cholesterol rise mainly LDL
TG stay stable
Cardiovascular disease - same in homozygous however cardiovascular disease states at teenage years

Familial combined- increase in total cholesterol and triglycerides

87
Q

Common cause of third nerve palsy

A

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

Cavernous sinus thrombosis - usually 6th nerve palsy before and associated with sinusitis

88
Q

Chest drain insertion location

A

5th intercostal space mid axillary line

Tension - The preferred insertion site is the 2nd intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line in the affected hemithorax.

89
Q

Abx given in tetanus alongside tetanus immunoglobulin

A

Metronidazole

90
Q

VOMITING LEADS TO

A

HYPOCHLORAEMIC acidosis

91
Q

Difference between Becker and duchenne dystrophy

A

progressive proximal muscle weakness
Gower’s sign: child uses arms to stand up
Calf pseudohypotrophy

Duchenne - occurs from 5 years early
Becker from 10 years AND NO INTELLECTUAL IMPAIRMENT

92
Q

Which juice is a potent inhibitor of CYP3A4

A

Grapefruit

93
Q

Causes of drug induced lupus and investigations

A

Anti ANA positive
Anti-DS DNA NEGATIVE

Anti-histone POSITIVE
Anti-ro - POSITIVE
Anti- smith POSITIVE

Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Phenytoin
Procainamide

94
Q

prophylaxis of CMV

A

valganciclovir

95
Q

what antipsychotic is used in Parkinson when presented with schizophrenia ?

A

quetiapine / clozapine

96
Q

TX for sagittal sinus thrombosis ?

A

enoxaparin

97
Q

barrett oesophagus tx ?

A

metaplasia -endoscopy every 3-5 years
low grade dysplasia - endoscopy radio frequency ablation

98
Q

SAAG > 11g/L
indicates ?

A

(indicates portal hypertension)
= cirrhosis/alcoholic liver disease
acute liver failure
liver metastases

Cardiac
right heart failure
constrictive pericarditis

Other causes
Budd-Chiari syndrome
portal vein thrombosis
veno-occlusive disease
myxoedema

99
Q

SAAG <11g/L
indicates ?

A

Hypoalbuminaemia
nephrotic syndrome
severe malnutrition (e.g. Kwashiorkor)

Malignancy
peritoneal carcinomatosis

Infections
tuberculous peritonitis

Other causes
pancreatitis
bowel obstruction
biliary ascites
postoperative lymphatic leak
serositis in connective tissue diseases

100
Q

Pleural effusion: causes
Transudate (< 30g/L protein)

A

Transudate (< 30g/L protein)
heart failure (most common transudate cause)
hypoalbuminaemia
liver disease
nephrotic syndrome
malabsorption
hypothyroidism
Meigs’ syndrome

101
Q

what can transform into AML ?

A

primary polycethmia

102
Q

tx for resistant eczema to - topical steroids and tacrolimus ?

A

ciclosporin / azathioprine / mycophenolste

103
Q

pytriasis resistant to ketaconazole ?

A

oral itraconazole

104
Q

Tx for erythrodermic psoriasis ?

A

ciclosporin

105
Q
A

MRCP - cannot remember (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions