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Turbine DC-3 Flashcards

1
Q

Vmo

A

170

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2
Q

Vle

A

141

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3
Q

Vfe (top of white arc)

A

95

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4
Q

Va

A

107

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5
Q

Vyme

A

99

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6
Q

Maximum half flap speed

A

97

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7
Q

Maximum full flap speed

A

95

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8
Q

Vso

A

64

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9
Q

VMCa

A

67

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10
Q

VMCg

A

60

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11
Q

V1 and V2 at gross weight

A

82 & 90 knots

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12
Q

What is Max torque for takeoff and for how long?

A

3800 for 5 minutes (take off)

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13
Q

What 2 mechanical devices take the DC-3TP’s prop to feather?

A

Spring and counterweight

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14
Q

How many prop governors are on a DC-3TP and what are their primary functions?

A

There are two on each engine.
One is the primary governor which governs the prop speed in normal operations. The other is an overspeed Gov. for an overspeed situation.

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15
Q

In the test mode at what RPM does the overspeed governor max out at?

A

1564

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16
Q

If a two-way communications failure occurs on IFR flight plan and VFR conditions are encountered which should the pilot do?

A

Land as soon as practical

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17
Q

How often must VOR equipment be checked for IFR operations?

A

Every 30 days

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18
Q

What is traffic pattern altitude for a large aircraft operating in class D airspace?

A

1500 feet

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19
Q

Above what cabin pressure altitude must all occupants be supplied with supplemental oxygen?

A

15,000 feet

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20
Q

What 2 criteria must be met for a passenger to sit in the jump seat on the flight deck?

A
  1. An available seat in the cabin.
  2. Captain approval.
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21
Q

How old does a passenger need to be in order to sit in an emergency exit row?

A

15 years old

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22
Q

Do pilots flying for a 125 certificate holder need to comply with night currency?

A

No

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23
Q

What six items of paperwork are required for an MFI flight?

A

Flight log (Signed Airworthiness Release)
Signed Flight Plan (including wx)
Signed Flight Release
Signed Load Manifest (passenger list attached)
Weight & Balance
Money pouch

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24
Q

Which Internet aviation weather sources are approved under MFI Ops specs?

A

N/A must only use FAA approved wx

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25
Q

Can an MFI airplane accept the clearance to land and hold short of a crossing runway?

A

No
(Operation Specifications)

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27
Q

What 3 things must a flight crewmember have on them?

A
  1. Pilot certificate
  2. Medical certificate
  3. Photo ID
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27
Q

What four things are required to operate special VFR?

A

Have an ATC clearance
Remain clear of clouds
Have 1 statute mile visibility
Operate during daylight hours (if aircraft and pilot not instrument rated)

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28
Q

In an auto feather condition what component feathers the prop?

A

The dump valve

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29
Q

The autofeather dump valve is looking for what in order to feather the prop?

A

Positive power (from the opposite engine high pressure switch) and negative ground (from the failing engine low pressure switch)

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30
Q

What two criteria need to be met in order for the auto feather system to feather the failing engine’s prop?

A

Torque below 200 foot pounds and power levers above approximately 90% Ng

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31
Q

What component in the electrical system switches the starter to generator mode upon engine NG reaching about 43%?

A

The generator control unit (GCU)

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32
Q

Why is it so important to have your GPUs voltage set within acceptable limits before hooking it up to the aircraft?

A

Because there is no overvoltage protection

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33
Q

How many total electrical buses are there on a turbine DC-3 and what are they?

A

9 Total
1 Hot buss
4 Generator buses
2 Avionics buses
2 Battery buses

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34
Q

What is the maximum cranking time of each start?

A

30 seconds

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35
Q

How many starts can be done in a row without waiting more than 60 seconds in between starts to cool the starter/generator?

A

Three

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36
Q

How much rest time must there be after the first or second start attempt?

A

60 seconds of rest each time

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37
Q

How much rest time must there be after a third failed start?

A

30 minutes rest

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38
Q

If you have a generator fail and cannot get it restarted the bus tie should be in which position?

A

The closed position

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39
Q

How many batteries does a DC-3TP have and what is their voltage?

A

2
24 volts

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40
Q

Are the batteries in the DC3-TP wired in series or parallel?

A

Parallel

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41
Q

If the fire detection loop has a single break in it can it still operate?

A

Yes

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42
Q

Does the resistance in the dielectric material in the fire detection tubing decrease or increase as the temperature rises?

A

Decrease

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43
Q

At approximately how many ohms will the fire detection system computer set off the alarm?

A

100 ohms

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44
Q

What four things happen when the fire warning T handle is pulled?

A

Shuts off the fuel
Shuts off the hydraulics
Arms the extinguishers
Turns off bleed air

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45
Q

With a confirmed engine fire in-flight what five things should be accomplished before activating the fire extinguisher?

A

Move the Power lever to idle
Pull the T handle
Feather the prop
Move the condition lever to stop
Slow to 91 knots

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46
Q

The PT 6A – 65 A.R. is
A. A reverse flow
B. 2 (split) shaft
C. A free turbine
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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47
Q

What shaft HP is the PT 6A – 65 AR engine de-rated to?

A

1230 shaft horsepower

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48
Q

What limits the shaft horsepower of a PT6A – 65 AR engine to 1230 hp at sea level?

A

The pilot by not going over the take off torque setting.

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49
Q

If the propeller speed exceeds 1800 RPMs what do you do?

A

Bring the power lever to idle, feather the propeller, condition lever to stop and shut down the engine.

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50
Q

What should you do if the engine oil pressure drops below 90 psi in-flight?

A

Reduce the torque to 2000 or torque 20

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51
Q

What should you do if the engine oil pressure drops below 60 PSI in-flight?

A

Shut the engine down

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52
Q

Can BP 2380 and Castrol 5000 oil be mixed in the PT 6 – 65 AR engine?

A

No

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53
Q

Must the star valve be open in order for the emergency or standby pump to operate a hydraulic component?

A

No

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54
Q

A frequently cycling pressure regulating valve would indicate what problem in the hydraulic system?

A

An accumulator with a low or lost air charge

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55
Q

The hydraulic reservoir holds a total of how many quarts of hydraulic fluid?

A

10 quarts

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56
Q

How many quarts are available to the engine driven hydraulic pumps?

A

7 quarts

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57
Q

How many quarts are available for the emergency or standby hydraulic pump?

A

3 quarts

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58
Q

What allows a reduced flow of oxygen for a given altitude?

A

The Oxi-saver cannula.

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59
Q

How do the flow valve adjustments on the O2 systems differ between 200mf and 500mf?

A

They are the same now

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60
Q

Describe the location of the O2 tanks on both 200 MF and 500 MF

A

Beneath the floor in the forward cabin

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61
Q

Describe how you would get fuel out of the right front aux tank to run both engines if it’s transfer pump failed.

A
  1. Open the right interconnect
  2. Open the wing interconnect
  3. Run the left transfer in auto
  4. Run the right rear in manual
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62
Q

How many electric driven fuel pumps are on a turbine DC-3 and where are they?

A

8 total.
2 in both main tanks and one in each of the 4 auxiliary fuel tanks

63
Q

What is the best way to avoid a thunderstorm?

A

To fly on the upwind side at least 20 miles from the heaviest precipitation

64
Q

If encountering turbulence while circumventing a thunderstorm is it best to keep your wings level and let the air speed and altitude fluctuate?

65
Q

According to MFI operational specification what is the minimum RVR and visibility in statute miles for takeoff

A

1600 RVR and 1/4 mile visibility

66
Q

When taking off under reduced visibility conditions, MFIs SOP requires an alternate airport to be within how many miles?

A

60 Nautical miles

67
Q

When taking off under reduced visibility conditions, MFIs SOP requires the current and ETA weather at the alternate airport to be above what minimums?

A

800 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility

68
Q

Structural icing on the airframe can cause loss of performance due to:
A. Increased drag
B. Decreased Stall speed
C. Increased weight
D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

69
Q

If you encounter inadvertent icing what three possible ways are there to get out of this condition

A

Climb
descend
Get out of visible moisture

70
Q

If an airway marker has an arrow as part of its marker sign what does it mean?

A

It is a one way airway

71
Q

What does the number under the airway signify?

A

The MEA, the minimum en route altitude

72
Q

What does the number underneath the airway signify that is followed by a “T”?

A

It is the MOCA

73
Q

What is the normal range of hydraulic system pressure?

A

600-875 PSI

74
Q

In order for the brakes to operate properly, what must the minimum hydraulic system pressure to be?

75
Q

During flight, how is the landing gear maintained in the up position?

A

Trapped fluid pressure

76
Q

Which way should you turn the star valve to be sure that it is fully closed?

77
Q

What is the air preload in the main hydraulic system accumulator?

78
Q

What would be the indication that the accumulator is ruptured?

A

Low or no fluid, frequently cycling hydraulic regulator, “banging” sound whenever a hydraulic system is used.

79
Q

If hydraulic system pressure climbed to and remained steady at 1000 PSI, what malfunction would this indicate?

A

The hydraulic pressure regulator is inoperative.

80
Q

What four systems on the turbine DC-3 are operated by the main hydraulic system?

A

Landing gear
flaps
brakes
wipers

81
Q

How is the latch lock handle repositioned to the spring position after the gear is raised?

A

By returning the gear handle to the neutral position

82
Q

What is the procedure to be followed in raising the landing gear?

A
  1. Unlatch the lock
  2. Select up
83
Q

What is the procedure to be followed in lowering the landing gear?

A
  1. Select down
  2. Check pressure in green
  3. Put the handle in neutral
  4. Check for 2 green lights
  5. Latch the lock
84
Q

What four items should be checked after the gear is lowered to assure it is down and locked?

A
  1. Pressure
  2. Two green lights
  3. Lock is latched
  4. Visually check the gear
85
Q

If when the power levers are closed on approach to landing you notice that the red landing gear warning lights are on, what may be the problem?

A

The gear handle is not in neutral.

86
Q

If the mechanical down latches cannot be locked, as indicated by a red light and warning horn, is it still safe to land provided that the landing gear appears to be fully extended, the landing gear system pressure is up and the gear handle is a neutral?

A

Yes, but don’t break hard

87
Q

When landing under the conditions where the mechanical down latches cannot be locked, what precautions should be observed?

A

Monitor down pressure
Clear the runway & pin the gear

88
Q

The hydraulic system pressure relief valve is set to open at what pressure?

A

1000 PSI +50 -0

89
Q

In the event of failure of the main hydraulic system, what procedure should be followed for emergency use of brakes?

A

Turn on emergency electric pump when brakes are needed

90
Q

Can the DC-3 hydraulic reservoir be replenished in-flight?

A

Yes (don’t forget to put the cap on or you will get a shower if you select flaps or gear)

91
Q

In the event of a brake in the landing gear down lines, how would you go about lowering the landing gear?

A
  1. Put the plane in a 30-60°bank
  2. Select gear down
  3. Use 1.5-2 gravity turn.
92
Q

Where is the wing flaps selector valve control located?

A

At the end of the flap handle

93
Q

In the event of failure of the main hydraulic system, how could you lower the wing flaps, if at all?

A

Use the emergency pump if you have lots of fluid

94
Q

Where are the hydraulic pressure gauges located?

A

The lower right side instrument panel.

95
Q

Where is the parking brake control located?

A

The lower part of the center console

96
Q

How are the parking brakes set on the DC three?

A
  1. Apply pedals on captain side only
  2. Pull parking brake knob
97
Q

If you had to make a wheels up emergency landing due to terrain hazards, could you still use the brakes to shorten your ground distance?

98
Q

What is the minimum amount of fuel required in an auxiliary fuel tank to use the manual transfer pump when the engines are running?(MFI SOP)

A

400 pounds of fuel

99
Q

When completing an engine status report form in flight, how should the engines be set?

A

The torque settings should be matched and the cabin bleed air off

100
Q

What is the fuel capacity of each main tank?

A

118.5 gallons
116 gallons usable

101
Q

What is the capacity of each front aux fuel tank

A

202 gallons
200 gallons usable

102
Q

What is the capacity of each rear aux tank

A

200 gallons
199 gallons usable

103
Q

What is the total fuel capacity of a turbine DC-3

A

1041 gallons total
1030 gallons usable

104
Q

What class of medical does MFI require?

A

Second for 125, First for Haiti (2023)

105
Q

What is the normal oil pressure range?

A

90-135 PSI

106
Q

What is the total oil tank capacity?

A

10 quarts each engine

107
Q

What is the total usable oil quantity?

A

6 quarts each engine

108
Q

What is the total oil system capacity?

A

15 quarts each engine

109
Q

What is the maximum allowed oil consumption?

A

0.24 pints per hour

110
Q

What kind of propeller is on the turbine DC three?

A

Hartzell five bladed 111.2 inch propeller

111
Q

What type of propeller?

A

Hydraulically operated, constant speed, full feathering, reversible

112
Q

Maximum ramp weight

A

29,300 pounds

113
Q

Maximum landing weight?

A

28,750 pounds

114
Q

Maximum weight in the cargo compartment

A

11,790 pounds

115
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight

A

26,200 pounds

116
Q

For emergency take off what is the maximum shaft horse power

117
Q

What is the maximum torque for emergency take off?

A

4400 Ft/lbs

118
Q

What is the normal operating range for oil temperature

A

0 to 100°C

119
Q

What rpm should not be used for Taxi?

A

1170-1400 RPMs

120
Q

What is the maximum approved altitude?

A

24,000 feet MSL

121
Q

What speed should be used for a single engine approach and landing?

A

V ref + 10

122
Q

What speed should be used for a single engine go around?

A

V2 + 6 kts

123
Q

How much should you increase the final approach speed for a no flap landing?

A

10 Knot’s

124
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity?

A

13 Knot’s

125
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component for take-off or landing?

A

10 Knot’s

126
Q

What is the air pressure of the main tires?

127
Q

How much should the main struts be extended

A

3 to 4 inches

128
Q

When should the engine anti-ice be turned on in flight?

A

When you are in visible moisture the temperature is below +5°C/41°F

129
Q

What is the tire pressure of the tail wheel?

130
Q

When should one use manual ignition in flight?

A

Normally, Lineup check to a safe altitude. Final check-after landing.
When you are in heavy rain or with less than 75 pounds of fuel remaining in the main tank.

131
Q

At what airspeed is the stability augmentation system and the stall warning horn activated?

A

At 4 to 9 kn above the aircraft stall speed.

132
Q

The PT 6A – 65 AR Engine is classified as a free turbine or a fixed turbine?

A

Free Turbine and also a reverse flow.

133
Q

How many compressor stages and type does the engine have?

A

Four axial stages and one Centrifugal stage

134
Q

Maximum ITT in reverse

135
Q

Maximum propeller speed in reverse

136
Q

Transient power setting is limited to how many seconds?

A

20 seconds

137
Q

What is the maximum starting temperature and duration?

A

1000 ITT for no more than 5 seconds

138
Q

What are the maximum hours between engine overhauls periods while operating with Avgas fuel?

A

150 hours based on quantity used and average consumption.

139
Q

What are the torque limits for operating 1000 RPM or less?

A

2000 lb ft

140
Q

True or False: Both fuel boost pumps must be operational on each engine for takeoff.

141
Q

TRUE or FALSE

Positioning of power levers below the flight idle stop while the airplane is in flight is prohibited.

142
Q

What two things can happen if the power levers are in advertently position below flight idle?

A
  1. Loss of airplane control.
  2. Overspeed condition and consequent loss of engine power
143
Q

Describe the procedure if the gas generator fails to light within 10 seconds after moving the condition lever to LOW IDLE position.

A

Condition Lever to stop.
Depress the start-abort switch.
Clear the engine per engine clearing procedure before attempting another start

144
Q

Describe the procedure for clearing the engine after a failed light off.

A

Before beginning clearing procedures allow 30 seconds for a fuel drainage.

  1. Condition lever to STOP position.
  2. Ignition switch to OFF
  3. Batteries to ON
  4. Boost pump ON
  5. Starter to Manual for 15 seconds.
145
Q

What are the captain’s responsibilities on a flight morning before departure?

A
  1. Paperwork
  2. Weather
  3. Bringing passengers to plane
  4. Confirming with SIC that cargo/bags/aircraft are ready for flight
146
Q

What are the FO’s responsibilities on a flight morning before departure?

A
  1. Go to flight office and confirm fuel required by looking at load manifest
  2. Check cargo paperwork
  3. Bring pilot bags to aircraft
  4. Preflight
147
Q

What does WART stand for?

A

W-weather
A-abnormal procedures
R-runway/departure procedures
T-threats

148
Q

When should the WART acrostic be used?

A

During preflight briefing

149
Q

How much time should be allowed between preflight and scheduled departure time?

A

30 minutes

150
Q

What is abort checklist before V1 with sufficient runway?

A

Power levers- IDLE
Brakes- APPLY

151
Q

What is abort procedure before V1 without sufficient runway?

A

Power levers- IDLE
Brakes- APPLY
Condition levers- STOP
Fuel Firewall shutoffs- CLOSED
Battery master switches- OFF
Generators- OFF

152
Q

What is checklist for engine failure after V1?

A

Airspeed- maintain V2
Directional control- maintain
Power levers- maximum
Gear and flaps- up (after positive rate)
Auto feather- confirm

153
Q

What is procedure if the engine did not autofeather?

A

PF- place hand on power lever “verifying (L or R)”
PF- verify with power lever
PF- place hand on prop lever “feather (L or R)
PF- feather
PF- place hand on condition lever “stop (L or R)”
PF- stop

154
Q

Maximum 1/4 flaps airspeed

Aviation (2 decks)

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